Answer:
A 22 to 25 amino acid sequence present in the central section of the protein, which gives rise to an alpha helix in the membrane is known as the stop-transfer anchor sequence. The sequence plays an essential function in targeting the protein towards the plasma membrane. On the other hand, it also ceases targeting of the protein towards the endoplasmic reticulum, which was started by the signal peptide.
Thus, the process of translation of the remaining of the protein occurs within the cytosol due to the tethering of the transmembrane domain. In the stop-transfer anchor sequence, the hydrophobic amino acids present are isoleucine and valine. After mutation, these amino acids get converted into arginine and lysine, thus, hydrophilic amino acids replace hydrophobic amino acids in the sequence.
Due to this, the transmembrane domain cannot be targeted towards an integral part of the plasma membrane by the short transfer anchor sequence, and therefore, now the translocation of the protein will take place towards the endoplasmic reticulum as initiated by the signal peptide at the beginning.
How many chromosomes in a tail
i might be wrong i would say 5
The body uses non-specific immune responses as the first line of defense when we are exposed to pathogenic or disease causing organisms. Which of the following factors is a nonspecific response?
A. Antibodies are produced after an infection.
B. Bacterial cell surface proteins start a response.
C. Unbroken skin provides a physical barrier.
D. Vaccine injections will imitate viral exposure.
Answer:
C
Explanation:
A nonspecific response is a defense you are born with. You were born with unbroken skin to be a physical barrier.
Final answer:
The correct answer to the question about which factor is a nonspecific immune response is that unbroken skin provides a physical barrier, which is part of the innate immune system and acts non-specifically to block pathogens. So the correct answer is option C.
Explanation:
The non-specific immune response is the first defense mechanism of the body against pathogenic organisms. This response is innate and does not target specific pathogens. Instead, it includes physical and chemical barriers like skin and mucous membranes, as well as leukocytes that phagocytize pathogens and other general responses to prevent infections from establishing themselves in the body.
Considering the provided options, the correct answer to the question 'Which of the following factors is a nonspecific response?' is C. Unbroken skin provides a physical barrier. This is because unbroken skin is a part of the innate immune system, acting instantaneously to block the entry of a broad range of pathogens without specificity towards any particular type of pathogen. In contrast, the production of antibodies and the specific immune response involving B and T cells are tailored to specific pathogens and are thus specific, not nonspecific, immune responses.
Mr. Walker plants a new plant next to a tall tree in his yard. It is partly in the sun, but is mostly in the shade He notices that it is
growing with all of its leaves on one side. Why is the plant growing this way?
A.It is dying
B.It is trying to get sunlight.
C.It is trying to stay in the shade.
B.It wants to be closer to the tree.
Answer:
B. it's trying to get sunlight.
(D. is plausible too)
Explanation:
Plants need sunlight for photosynthesis, so they tend to act towards the sunlight (phototropism)
Mr. Walker's plant is growing with all its leaves on one side to reach more sunlight, which is a response called phototropism, influenced by the hormone auxin aiding in maximizing photosynthesis.
Mr. Walker's plant is exhibiting a common response to its light environment known as phototropism, which is the growth of a plant in the direction of its light source. Since the plant is mostly in the shade due to a tall tree, it grows toward the area where it can receive more light. In more scientific terms, this is caused by the plant hormone auxin, which redistributes on the shaded side of the plant, causing those cells to elongate more and thus bending the plant toward the light. This adaptation helps the plant maximize its photosynthesis capabilities by increasing the exposure of its leaves to sunlight. Plants in different light conditions, such as full light or shade, may also exhibit different growth characteristics, with sun-loving plants having reduced leaf area and thicker leaves, and shade plants showing the opposite traits.
Nutrients from digested food enter the bloodstream through the process of
(1) absorption (3) respiration
(2) elimination (4) secretion
Answer:
1. Absorption is the answer
Answer:
absorption
Explanation:
the food gets into the blood stream by absorbing the tiny cells of food
Science is seldom advanced in isolation. Watson and Crick could not have arrived at their model of the helix without discovery of the structure of and how they are linked together, X-ray crystallography data, or biochemical analysis of the molar proportions of in double-stranded .
Answer:
Correct question= What does the history behind the elucidation of secondary structure of DNA tell you about the role of the scientific community in advancing science? Were Watson and Crick solely responsible?
Explanation
The earlier discovery of nucleotide sequence and base pairing by Levene formed the basis of later discovery and formulation of double Helix DNA structure by Waston and Crick. Thus Levene work contributed to discovery of DNA double helix structure of Waston and Crick
In addition earlier work of Franklin on X-ray crystallography data, and comprehensive research on biochemical analysis of ,molecular proportion of nucleotide by Chargaff, were another supporting bedrock on which Waston and Crick built their discovery of double helix structure of DNA.
Evidently most scientific discoveries were usually arrived at from the earlier work or discoveries, and rarely in isolation.
An image of a plant growing in a tunnel is shown. Which tropism is best illustrated?
Answer:
Gravitropism i think?
Explanation:
Answer:
Gravitropism
Explanation:
Gravitropism (also known as geotropism) is a coordinated process of differential growth by a plant or fungus in response to gravity pulling on it. Gravity can be either "artificial gravity" or natural gravity. It is a general feature of all higher and many lower plants as well as other organisms.
the role of a "leader sequence" is to A. directly control transcription. B. determine whether transcription can proceed through the genes in the operon. C. determine whether RNA polymerase can bind. D. terminate transcription. E. direct the looping of the DNA that prevents transcription initiation.
Answer:
The role of a "leader sequence" is to B. determine whether transcription can proceed through the genes in the operon.
Explanation:
The "leader sequence" is the 5′ untranslated region (5′ UTR). Its main function is the regulation of translation of a transcript using different mechanisms. They differ depending we are talking about eukaryotes or prokaryotes (more complex). It determines whether transcription can proceed through the genes in the operon. The operon is is a functioning unit of DNA that is made of a cluster of genes under the control of a single promoter.
The classification of algae in taxonomic groups remains a topic of some debate. The classic approach to classification focused on cell wall composition, storage products, and pigment production. While molecular techniques can be used to confirm the identity of algae, it is helpful for you to be able to recognize distinguishing features of algae as you conduct your survey. Fill in the blank with the appropriate algae group to correctly complete the sentence. Reset Help Phaeophyta Rhodophyta Chlorophyta Chrysophyta 1. Considered the progenitor of land plants, have 18S rRNA sequences comparable to plants 2 are utilized commercially to produce carrageenan and can photosynthesize at depths greater than 10 meters 3. Described as "hairy" in appearance produce alginic acid, which can be used as a thickening agent. 4. The is a diverse group that includes the diatoms, a major component of phytoplankton.
Answer:Phaeophyta--Described as "hairy" in appearance produce alginic acid, which can be used as a thickening agent.
Rhodophyta ;are utilized commercially to produce carrageenan and can photosynthesize at depths greater than 10 meters
Chlorophyta;Considered the progenitor of land plants, have 18S rRNA sequences comparable to plants
Chrysophyta;The is a diverse group that includes the diatoms, a major component of phytoplankton
Explanation:algae are a diverse group of organisms with majority of them living in water and a few on land. They are green and contains chlorophyll.they also contains phycobillins pigments.
Chlorophyta are green algae that exist in water habitat an example is Chlamydomanas reinhardi.they have similar structures with higher plants such as chlorophyll, cellulose cell wall and stores food as starch.
The chrysophyta includes diatoms.diatoms have a cell wall composed of pectin and deposits of silica. They may occur in large deposit as diatomaceous earth.
Phaeophyta--are brown algae. An example is sea weed they are found in deeper ocean waters. Sea weed has a thallus which branches into a basal holdfast that aids attachment to rocks.their blade allows the plant to float
Rhodophyta are algae which are sometimes Unicellular in form they have a characteristic red color due to the presence of phycoerythrin along with phycocyanin, chlorophyll.they are used as source of algar for microorganism culture.
Place the steps of circulation described below in the correct order, beginning with C.
13. _C_
14. ___
15. ___
16. ___
17. ___
A. De-oxygenated blood exits through the pulmonary artery and travels to the lungs to pick up oxygen and get rid of carbon dioxide
B. Oxygenated blood in the left ventricle leaves through the body’s main artery, the aorta, and travels throughout the body
C. De-oxygenated blood from the body enters the heart through the right atria, then right ventricle
D. Blood delivers oxygen needed for cellular respiration to all cells in the body and removes the CO2 that is created as a result.
E. Newly oxygenated blood is brought back to the heart through the pulmonary veins into the left atria and then down to the left ventricle
Answer:
B,A,E,D
Explanation:
hope this helped ;-}
The correct order of the steps of circulation, beginning with C, is: C, A, E, B, D
Explanation:C. De-oxygenated blood from the body enters the heart through the right atria, then right ventricleA. De-oxygenated blood exits through the pulmonary artery and travels to the lungs to pick up oxygen and get rid of carbon dioxideE. Newly oxygenated blood is brought back to the heart through the pulmonary veins into the left atria and then down to the left ventricleB. Oxygenated blood in the left ventricle leaves through the body’s main artery, the aorta, and travels throughout the bodyD. Blood delivers oxygen needed for cellular respiration to all cells in the body and removes the CO2 that is created as a resultHow does the ocean environment affect where ocean organisms live?
Which type of selection allows for the middle phenotypes to have increased fitness
Answer:
Stabilizing Selection
Explanation:
There are 3 types of selection: directional, stabilizing, and disruptive.
Directional selection means that the animal slowly evolves from one extreme phenotype to the other extreme. For example, in horses, a horse could evolve from very weakling into a super strong and fast one.
Stabilizing selection means that the middle phenotype is chosen over the two extremes. For example, in babies, a too-low or a too-high birth weight are both bad, so a middle-weight is preferred.
Disruptive selection means the two extremes are chosen. For example, if there is a population of mice living in an area of sand and grasslands, the light colored mice can blend in with the sand, while the dark colored mice can blend in with the grass. However, the middle-colored mice cannot.
The only one that matches here is stabilizing.
Hope this helps!
The liver is the......................
gland in the body.
The liver is the
gland in the body.
The liver is the...................... gland in the body.
Answer: The liver is the largest
gland in the body.
Final answer:
The liver is the largest gland in the human body and has multiple functions in metabolism. It is involved in carbohydrate metabolism by carrying out processes like gluconeogenesis, glycogenolysis, and glycogenesis, as well as the breakdown of hormones.
Explanation:
As the largest gland in the body, the liver assumes a pivotal role in maintaining overall metabolic equilibrium. Beyond its sheer size, this vital organ serves a multitude of functions crucial for bodily functions. In the realm of carbohydrate metabolism, the liver orchestrates intricate processes such as gluconeogenesis, the synthesis of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources; glycogenolysis, the breakdown of glycogen into glucose for immediate energy needs; and glycogenesis, the storage of excess glucose as glycogen for future use.
Moreover, the liver plays a key role in hormonal regulation by breaking down insulin and various other hormones, contributing to the finely tuned orchestration of metabolic activities. This multifaceted involvement in metabolic processes underscores the liver's significance as a dynamic organ essential for maintaining homeostasis and ensuring the seamless functioning of the body's diverse physiological pathways.
Where does most of the water vapor in the atmosphere originate?
Answer:
Most of it comes from the ocean.
Explanation:
The table above shows the average amount of sunlight for each month. During which month would the Summer Solstice occur in the Northern Hemisphere?
A. Month 6 because it had an average of 15.2 hours of sunlight.
B. Month 4 because it had an average of 13.32 hours of sunlight.
C. Month 7 because it had an average of 14.93 hours of sunlight.
D. Month 5 because it had an average of 14.52 hours of sunlight.
Answer:
A. Month 6 because it had an average of 15.2 hours of sunlight.
Explanation:
Summer Solstice occurs in June, which is the sixth month of the year. Summer Solstice is the longest day of the year, for the Northern hemisphere this is between the 20, 21 or 22 of June, During one of these days, the Northern hemisphere is more exposed to the sun rays giving more hours of sunlight, which means a longer day.
Maria wanted to Gram stain some bacteria growing on cheese she found in the back of her refrigerator. She couldn't find any crystal violet, but did have crystal yellow. An email to her BIO 1510 lab instructor assured her that the two stains had exactly the same properties. She was able to perform the rest of the procedure according to the usual protocol. When she looked at her slide she found two organisms. One was rod-shaped and yellow in color, the other was pink and spherical. What color would the Gram negative bacteria be if she didn't counterstain the slide
Answer:
If mordant isn't utilized the both gram positive and negative cells show up green (if natural green utilized)
Clarification here severe utilized is iodine.after the option of essential stain(crystal violet) when we include iodine,it will respond and frame precious stone violet-iodine complex. We realize that gram positive cells have progressively acidic protoplasm.also peptidoglycan layer of gram positive microorganisms is thick, and these properties make them ready to hold the precious stone violet-iodine complex. Furthermore, after decolonization because of this property gram positive microorganisms won't be de-colorized and hold essential stain(pink).
So if severe isn't included gram positive microorganisms the gem iodine complex won't be framed thus precious stone violet alone can't tie emphatically to peptidoglycan and will be de-colorized and produce shade of counter-stain (sufranine-pink,neutral green-green).
Here gram positive is purple and round.
Lysosomes are considered to be part of the endomembrane system because they ________. Lysosomes are considered to be part of the endomembrane system because they ________. deposit end-products of digestion in the endoplasmic reticulum are composed largely of phospholipids facilitate movement between stacks of the Golgi are formed from products synthesized by the endoplasmic reticulum and proces
Answer:
Lysosomes are considered to be part of the endomembrane system because they are formed from products synthesized by the endoplasmic reticulum and processed by the Golgi
Explanation:
Lysosomes are organelles whose function is the digestion of macromolecules, they contains hydrolytic enzymes and membrane proteins
1.
What does your liver do? Ist two major roles and briefly explain each
role.
Are euglena unicellular or multicellular?
Answer: unicellular
Explanation: Euglena are unicellular organisms classified into the Kingdom Protista, and the Phylum Euglenophyta. All euglena have chloroplasts and can make their own food by photosynthesis.
I really hope this helps!
Euglena are unicellular organisms that are known for their flexibility and unique capability to behave like both plants and animals. They move towards light for photosynthesis but can also absorb nutrients in the absence of light. Their flexibility is due to a protein structure known as a pellicle.
Explanation:The Euglena is a type of organism classified under the Euglenozoans group. It is a unicellular organism that exhibits traits of both plants and animals. Common in many aquatic environments, Euglena have been known for their ability to move towards light due to a primitive ocular organ known as an eyespot. Additionally, they possess chloroplasts for photosynthesis, enabling them to be photosynthetic when light is present. However, in the absence of light, they can also absorb organic nutrients from their environments.
The Euglena, being unicellular, belongs to the domain of Eukarya which includes all unicellular and multicellular organisms with cells that contain membrane-bound nuclei and organelles. The flexible nature of Euglena is attributed to a tough pellicle composed of protein bands attached to the cytoskeleton. These protein bands spiral around the cell giving it a unique flexibility and structure.
Learn more about Euglena here:https://brainly.com/question/30932505
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Greg is breeding leopard geckos and wants to produce a new color morph. He crosses a homozygous red morph with a homozygous white morph and their offspring are white with red spots. Greg is now fabulously wealthy. What type of genetic pattern do these leopard geckos display?
O Pleiotropy
O Incomplete dominance
O Multiple allelism
O Epistasis
O Codominance
Answer:
Codominance
Explanation:
Codominance occurs when two heterozygous allele for a trait is expressed equally in the an organism's phenotype with neither allele being dominant or recessive. In codominance, none of the allele hides the expression of the other allele. So when two alleles are crossed, the offspring carries a combination of the parents phenotype without anyone masking the other.
From the question, the type of genetic pattern of the leopard geckos display is codominance.
16-16: In a series of experiments, genes that code for mutant forms of an RTK are introduced into cells. The cells also express their own normal form of the receptor from their normal gene, although the mutant genes are constructed so that the mutant RTK is expressed at considerably higher concentration than the normal RTK. What would be the consequences of introducing a mutant gene that codes for an RTK (A) lacking its extracellular domain, or (B) lacking its intracellular domain
Answer:
Kinase-connected receptors or receptor tyro-sine kinases react for the most part to protein and chemical go between. A solitary trans membrane helix interfaces the extracellular restricting area to the intra-cellular space. e.g. insulin, development factors. The official of the ligand triggers the commencement of a few succession of occasions related with phosphorylation of proteins, this is called protein kinase course.
For instance, the official of development hormone to the receptor in the plasma layer causes dimerization (by the actuation of Janus kinase 2, JAK2) of the receptor (conformation change) that bring about auto-phosphorylation of tyro-sine buildups. The official of SH2-space (src homology) protein (Grb-2) to the phosphorylated tyro-sine buildups invigorates cell development through a course of protein phosphorylation.
a). RTKs are the trans-membrane receptors, which have a ligand restricting site on the extracellular area and tyro-sine authoritative on the intra-cellular space. In the event that it comes up short on the extracellular area, the ligand can't tie to the receptor site, so no cell reaction happens.
b). On the off chance that it does not have the intra-cellular space, the ligand can tie to the receptor site, the receptor can't impart signs tot eh intra-cellular area because of the absence of intra-cellular space.
Answer:
(A) lacking its extracellular domain:
RTK receptors can bind to the ligand, this phenomenon leads to a decrease in the rate of molecular interaction between receptors and ligands.
(B) lacking its intracellular domain:
RTK receptors can not bind to the ligand and therefore they are inactive, this phenomenon doesn't have effects on the receptor-ligand interaction mechanism
Explanation:
These types of experiment are very important in molecular biology since they enable to determine the function of transmembrane proteins in molecular signaling pathways
Professor Owen made an astute observation: In outbred cattle, dizygotic twins that share the same placenta occur occasionally. Indeed, if one examines peripheral blood samples from such twin pairs, each has blood cells derived from the other, indicating shared circulatory systems in utero. Surprisingly, even though they are not genetically identical, they accept tissue grafts from one another.
(a) In as much as these are dizygotic twins and thus are not genetically identical, does their mutual graft acceptance violate the "isografts succeed, allografts fail" rule?
(b) What does this experiment tell you about the underlying mechanism of that last property of the immune system - non-responsiveness to "self?"
Answer:
When talking about dizygotic and not monozygotic twins, they share the uterus, but they do not share the bag, nor the nutritional sources nor the placenta, if they can share the same amniotic sac depending on how far one ovum separated from another.
Thus, being two different ovules and fertilized by two different sperm (unlike homozygotes, which is an ovum fertilized by a sperm that divides into two and share the same development medium) they present the same genetic load but not the expression of this or the same phenotype since they develop in two different environments, this was raised in certain investigations and it was presented that even the different location that they present in the uterus can influence the different phenotypic manifestations of the genome.
There are studies that maintain that immunosuppressive treatments in grafts between monozygotic twins do not make sense and should not be done since it was experimented in certain cases and the patients had no problem of rejection in allografts, since it is argued that they have the same genotype and this genotype. It is usually expressed in the same way, therefore it is rare that the immune receptors and the immune response differ and consider something foreign to a tissue that presents histocompatibility almost 100 percent.
In contrast, in dizygotes it is different, allografts are made but under protocol immunoregulatory treatments that prevent rejection of the allogeneic implant or graft. Thus, certain researchers argue that having developed other phenotypes between twins, this causes the histocompatibility complex to express itself differently and thus the immune response does not recognize it as its own.
Explanation:
With the wording then we can conclude that the dizygotic twins corrupt the myth that transplants of tissues or organs can be performed without immunomodulatory treatment, if or if drugs must be administered to avoid rejection of said tissue or organ.
Use this information for questions 19-21 Two mice breed. The male is heterozygous for the dominant traits of black fur and active behavior but is homozygous recessive for light eyes. The female mouse is heterozygous for dark eyes, has white fur, and displays lazy behavior. How many types of gametes does the male mouse produce?
Answer:
Four (4)
Explanation:
Assuming the allele for black fur color is represented by B, the alternate will be b.
Assuming the allele for active behavior is A, the alternate will be a.
Assuming the allele for light eyes color is L, the alternate will be l.
A male is heterozygous for the dominant traits of black fur and active behavior but is homozygous recessive for light eyes.
Heterozygous for black fur = Bb
Heterozygous for active behavior = Aa
Homozygous recessive for light eyes = ll
Hence, the genotype of the male is BbAall
Possible gametes:
BAl
Bal
bAl
bal
Hence, 4 types of gametes are produced by the male.
Answer:
The male mouse would produce four possible combinations of gametes in equal proportions which includes: BAd, Bad, bAd and bad.
Explanation:
let B- black fur, A- active behaviour and D-dark eyes
The male mouse is heterozygous for dominant traits of black fur and active behavior but is homozygous recessive for light eyes.
Thus the genotype will be: BbAadd
The female mouse is heterozygous for dark eyes, has white fur, and displays lazy behavior. thus the genotype wil be: bbaaDd
The male mouse would produce four possible combinations of gametes in equal proportions which includes: BAd, Bad, bAd and bad
How are mitosis and binary fission similar?
Answer:
The similarity they have is that they both produce two identical cells to each other and to the mother cell, but the mechanism is totally different as binary fission takes place in prokaryotic cells while mitosis takes place in eukaryotic ones
Explanation:
hope this helps
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Which kingdoms contain organisms that are multicellular?
Answer:
Animal
Explanation:
Answer:
Animalia and Plantae
Explanation:
After several generations of labeling cells in 15N media, the cells are switched to 14N media for one generation. The DNA extracted after one generation in 14N media was centrifuged in a cesium gradient. The DNA formed a single band with a density somewhere between DNA grown in 15N media and DNA grown in 14N media. This data is consistent with which replication model:
A) conservative replication only
B) conservative and dispersive replication
C) semiconservative replication only
D) dispersive replication only
E) semiconservative and dispersive replication
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
The experiment that was conducted for the labeling of cells in 15 N media and then for a generation in 14N media shows two replication model
One is the semi-conservative model in which a single strand of the DNA acts as the template strand to make new complementary copies of DNA.
The other model is the dispersive replication which shows the hybrid of two DNA. The parental and the daughter cells are both shown in the newly synthesized DNA.
Hence, the correct answer is Option D
One type of chicken has three different types of feather: white, speckled (spotted black and white) and black. A speckled chicken is mated with a black chicken. If 8 chicks are born, how many would be speckled?
A)8
B)4
C)6
D)2
I'm going to use the letter W for this
Going by the question, white is the dominant trait.
WW = white
Ww = speckled
ww = black
4 chickens would be speckled because 50% of the punnet square is Ww
Make chart with Microsoft Office that describes at least 3 major events that occur in development of the fetus during each month of pregnancy. The must include the month, the size of the embryo or fetus, and a description of 3 major events that occur that month. You can cut and paste or simply attach this to your submission.
Answer:
Check the explanation
Explanation:
Month 1
Fertilization
Embryo formation
Blastocyst
Fetus development
Month 2
Fetus growth
External organs begin to differentiate
Month 3
Eyelids form
Nose begins to develop
Face starts to form
Month 4
Organ systems complete
Fetal circulation complete
Placenta complete
Distinct fingers and toe
Month 5
Fetus size 10 – 17 cm
Heartbeat is present
Sex differentiated
Rudimentary kidneys formed
Month 6
Fetus size 25 cm
Weight 260gms
Fetal movements felt by mother
Langua covers
Month 7
Fetus size 28 – 36cm
Weight 680gms
Eyebrows and finger nails develop
Wrinkled skin
Month 8
Fetus size 35 – 38 cm
Weight 1200 – 1800gm
Eyes open and close
Skin is red
Month 9
Fetus size 42 – 49 cm
Weight 1900 – 2700 gms
Eyelids open
Amniotic fluid decreases
Month 10
Fetus 48 – 52 cm
Weight 3000g
Smooth skin
Bones osstifies
Statement: Allopatric models of speciation follow Occam’s Razor in the sense that they require minimal assumptions to allow populations to evolve separate traits. For example, once populations are separate, only a single simple process like drift is necessary to drive differentiation (phenetic concept), evolution of novel characters (phylogenetic concept), or even permanent breeding barriers (biological species concept). It doesn’t mean that other factors don’t participate (e.g., selection, mutation), but it doesn’t require them.Sympatric models (which don’t physically separate populations) require more assumptions, usually needing to invoke at least two additional assumptions. These are usually:A) That sister species are each other's closest relative.B) Selection against hybrids and assortative mating.C) Ploidy level shifts
Answer:
B) Selection against cross breeds and assortative mating.
C) Ploidy level movements
Explanation:
Sympatric speciation is typically known as troublesome determination, a kind of common choice wherein two particular varieties in an attribute are supported rather than a transitional type of the characteristic. This speciation mostly happens through polyploidy, in which a posterity or gathering of posterity will be delivered with double the ordinary number of chromosomes.
How does comparing fossils from different areas help scientists?
Answer:
It helps them figure out what was in the area thousands of years ago
Suppose that you have just started a summer internship working for a cooperative service, where you will collect soil samples, conduct laboratory and field tests, and make recommendations on soil conservation and agricultural practices.
(i) Identify one biome that is characterized by soil that is rich in humus. Describe how humus originated in the soil of this biome and TWO ways that humus improves conditions for plant growth.
(ii) Describe TWO soil conservation practices that are designed to decrease soil erosion. *
Answer: seen below
Explanation:
I) Deciduous forest: is an example of a biome (a biome is a large naturally occurring community of flora and fauna occupying a major habitat) it's seasonal/tropical and temperate.
Humus which is an organic component of soil originated here because of plant and animal materials decomposition on the forest. Two ways humus improves soil conditions includes;
a) by providing fertility or nutrients for plants and soil organisms.
b) humus also helps the topsoil hold water.
II) Two soil conservation practices that decreases erosion include;
a) Conservation tillage, minimizes the number of tillage passes, where the soil aggregate disruption is reduced, and a minimum of 30% of the soil surface covered with residues, and this aims to reduce by disturbing the soil as little as possible when planting crops.
b) Terracing or division terrace, this helps by shaping the land to create level shelves of earth to decrease soil and water runoff, thereby decreasing erosion.