Answer: a. Rubisco
Explanation:
Photosynthesis is a way of making organic molecules from carbon dioxide (CO2). To build organic molecules, cells use raw materials provided by the light reactions. 1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase, also known as Rubisco, is the enzyme needed for carbon fixation during the Calvin cycle. This enzyme is found in the stromal space of the chloroplast. It acts by adding CO2 to the 5-carbon sugar ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate forming 2 molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate.
Which neural term is a synonym for action potential?
Answer: We can express some synyms for action potential, such as, AP (action potential), nerve impulse, and conduction signal.
Explanation:
Nerve cells transmit information to each other to the others through electrical impulses called action potentials (PA), making the communication of neurons similar to a network of electronic circuits. Generally, action potentials are dependent on the activation of sodium channels (Na +), which open in response to variations in membrane potential and are therefore characterized as voltage-dependent.
The correct option is Option D (Nerve Impulse). An action potential, synonymous with a nerve impulse, is a brief electrical charge that travels along a neuron’s membrane. This process involves a rapid change in the membrane’s electrical potential. Depolarization is a key phase in action potential generation.
An action potential, also known as a nerve impulse, is a brief electrical charge that travels along the membrane of a neuron. This process involves a momentary change in the electrical potential of the neuron's membrane. During action potential generation, the cell membrane potential changes quickly from negative to positive due to the flow of sodium ions into the cell and potassium ions out of the cell, which is termed depolarization.The full question is available online. The question is :
Which neural term is a synonym for action potential?
a) Axoplasm
b) Axolemma
c) Synaptic knob
d) Nerve impulse
1. You are studying a trait in corn that you believe exhibits Mendelian inheritance. You count phenotypes and find that there are 375 of one phenotype and 125 of the other phenotype. When you perform a chi-square test, the chi-square value is zero. Your conclusion based on this test is
this trait is inherited in a Mendelilan fashion
none of the answers is correct
this trait exhibits codominance
this trait is not inherited in a Mendelian fashion
this is a dihybrid cross
Answer:
This trait is inherited in a Mendelian fashion.
Explanation:
Chi-square test is used to test the relationship b/w variables, on performing the chi-square test on traits of corn, value that we obtained was zero, it means that there is no relationship b/w two traits. So, the trait has been inherited independently in Mendelian fashion.
Answer:
this trait is inherited in a Mendelian fashion
Explanation:
The chi-square test aims to verify whether the observed absolute frequency of a variable is significantly different from the expected absolute frequency distribution. Applies when one wants to study the dependency between two variables, through a double entry table or also known as a contingency table.
When chi square is calculated, the values of a table with constant numbers (called tabulated X) are compared with the result found in the chi square calculation. If the chi-squared value is zero, then there are no significant differences between the hypotheses. In the case of the above question, this would mean that the characteristic, studied in the above question, is inherited from Mendelian ways.
Helper T (TH) cells recognize antigens when they are bound to a(n)
A. hapten.
B. immunoglobulin.
C. natural killer cell.
D. major histocompatibility complex (MHC) protein.
Answer:
d
Explanation:
Helper T cell and inflammatory T cell TCRs recognise epitopes displayed by MHC class II molecules on the surface of antigen-presenting immune cells, including: macrophages that engulf foreign particles such as bacteria; dendritic cells that present antigen to T cells; and B cells that produce antibodies.
Final answer:
Helper T (TH) cells recognize antigens when bound to a major histocompatibility complex (MHC) protein. T cell receptors (TCRs) on T cells bind to the foreign protein fragments presented on MHC proteins by antigen-presenting cells (APCs).
Explanation:
Helper T (TH) cells recognize antigens when bound to a major histocompatibility complex (MHC) protein. T cells have antigen receptors on their surface called T cell receptors (TCRs), which bind to the foreign protein fragments (peptides) presented on MHC proteins by antigen-presenting cells (APCs) such as macrophages or dendritic cells. The TCRs recognize and bind simultaneously to the foreign protein fragment and the MHC protein on the APC surface.
Dynamothermal (regional) metamorphism occurs when ________. a. the upper surface of a body of rock develops a thick soil profile b. a pluton causes metamorphism in a small surrounding region c. regression of the sea leads to erosion of sedimentary cover on a body of rock d. rock becomes deeply buried during continental collision and mountain building
Answer:
d. rock becomes deeply buried during continental collision and mountain building
Explanation:
Dynamothermal (regional) metamorphism occurs when rock becomes deeply buried during continental collision and mountain building.
Dynamothermal (regional) metamorphism occurs when rock becomes deeply buried during continental collision and mountain building.
What is mountain building?Orogeny is just the way of mountain building, and it can be studied as a geological structural event, a topographical event, as well as a chronological event because it affects specific rock and crustal locations, causes recognizable structural features and occurs over a specific period of time.
What is collision?A collision should be any process by which two or perhaps more bodies quickly impose forces on one another.
Therefore, dynamothermal (regional) metamorphism occurs when rock becomes deeply buried during continental collision and mountain building.
To know more about mountain building and collision
https://brainly.com/question/14335800
#SPJ2
This portion of the vestibular apparatus is responsible for dynamic equilibrium.
Select one:
a. semicircular canals
b. sensory cells
c. vestibule
d. otoliths
Answer:
Semicircular canals
Explanation:
Ear is one of the important sense organ responsible for hearing and equilibrium. Human ear is divided into three parts: outer ear, middle ear and inner ear.
Inner ear is mainly responsible for the equilibrium of the body. Vestibular apparatus together with semicircular canals is responsible for the dynamic equilibrium of the body. Dynamic equilibrium involves head rotation and vertical movements of the body.
Thus, the correct answer is option (a).
why was ice used during the extracting DNA
Answer: The Cold Water temperature helps increase the attachment of the DNA Explanation:
Using ice-cold ethanol and ice-cold water increases the yield of DNA. Low temperatures protect the DNA by slowing down the activity of enzymes that could break it apart. ... DNases in the cytoplasm would destroy the DNA of viruses entering the cell. Cold ethanol helps the DNA to precipitate more quickly
Explain Gynecomastia in males.
Gynecomastia is an increase in the size of the mammary gland in men. The condition can occur in one or both breasts. It starts as a small mass under the nipple, which can be sensitive. One breast can be bigger than the other. Its cause is an imbalance between the stimulatory effects of estrogen (female sex hormones) and the inhibitory effects of androgens (male sex hormones) in the breast tissue, when the first ones increase, or the second ones descend.
Gynecomastia is a problem relatively common in the population, and there are three prevalence peaks throughout life:
Newborns: Between 60 and 90% of newborns have gynecomastia, produced by the passage of maternal estrogens through the placenta. It is a transient gynecomastia that disappears in about 2-3 weeks.
Puberty: Gynecomastia in puberty affects mainly young people aged between 10 and 14 years, and is due to the transient and physiological increase in estrogen that occurs at this age.
Elderly: Is due to an increase in fatty tissue with a greater peripheral aromatization ( a process that occurs in adipose tissue and that involves the conversion of androgens into estrogens), a decrease in the production of testosterone by the testes and the use of drugs.
Historically, an important strategy for disrupting the adhesion of integrins to their ligands is by using a synthetic peptide that mimics the binding site on the ECM molecule to which the integrin attaches. In the case of fibronectin, the amino acid sequence is arginine-glycine-aspartate (when written using the single letter designation for each amino acid, this sequence becomes RGD). Explain why addition of such synthetic peptides would disrupt binding of cells to their normal substratum.
Answer:
Upon binding of integrins with such synthetic peptides, disrupts the receptors, and make them unavailable to bind with fibronectin or laminin.
It would impact in inhibition of binding of cells to extracellular matrix (ECM). It is an important strategy that disrupts the adhesion of integrins and ligands. It can have significant role in tumor invasion and metastasis.
What is the action of the biceps femoris?
Answer:
The main action of biceps femoris is the knee flexion and hip extension.
Explanation:
Biceps femoris muscle is a thigh muscle present in the posterior part of the body. This muscle has two heads of origin.
Biceps femoris is involved in the knee flexion. The kknee flexion decreses the angle between the femur and tibia. Biceps femoris is also involved in the hip extension. The hip joints are open during hip extension.
The biceps femoris is a key muscle in the posterior thigh compartment, responsible for flexing the knee, extending the hip, and also participates in the abduction and lateral rotation of the thigh.
Explanation:Action of the Biceps Femoris
The biceps femoris is a key muscle within the posterior compartment of the thigh, which is a part of what is commonly known as the hamstrings. It plays a crucial role in the movement of both the hip and the knee joints. The action of the biceps femoris is to flex the leg at the knee and to also assist in hip extension. Additionally, this versatile muscle is involved in abducting (moving away from the midline of the body) and laterally rotating the thigh at the hip joint, which allows for movements such as sitting cross-legged.
When the knee bends, the biceps femoris is the agonist, meaning it is the primary muscle causing the movement. In contrast, when extending the leg at the knee, such as when kicking, the quadriceps femoris acts as the antagonist to the biceps femoris, opposing its action. Thus, the biceps femoris and quadriceps femoris dynamically oppose each other during different movements of the knee.
When discussing cholesterol levels with a patient, which of the following is desirable?High cholesterol, low HDLHigh LDL, low cholesterolHigh cholesterol, high LDLHigh HDL, low LDLHigh HDL, High LDL
Answer:
Low LDL and High HDL
Explanation:
HDL refers to high-density lipoproteins and are considered as good cholesterol. HDL serves to channelize the cholesterol from body tissues and blood to the liver. The liver cells then eliminate the cholesterol. In this way, HDL serves to reduce the blood cholesterol level and should be present in a higher amount in the body.
On the other hand, LDL is low-density lipoproteins which carry the cholesterol from the liver to the body cells. Since LDL increases the cholesterol in body cells, it is considered as bad cholesterol and should be present in the lower level in the body.
Desirable cholesterol levels involve having high HDL (good cholesterol) and low LDL (bad cholesterol). High-density lipoproteins (HDL) help remove other types of cholesterol from the bloodstream, while low-density lipoproteins (LDL) promote cholesterol buildup and blockage in the arteries.
Explanation:When discussing cholesterol levels, the most desirable scenario is to have High HDL, Low LDL. HDL, or high-density lipoproteins, often referred to as 'good cholesterol', helps remove other forms of cholesterol from your bloodstream, thus reducing the risk of heart disease. LDL, or low-density lipoproteins, often called 'bad cholesterol', is the main source of cholesterol buildup and blockage in the arteries. Therefore, a high level of HDL and a low level of LDL is considered beneficial for your health.
Learn more about Cholesterol Levels here:https://brainly.com/question/37170376
#SPJ12
Match the following terms to their definitions. Match the words in the left column to the appropriate blanks in the sentences on the right. Make certain each sentence is complete before submitting your answer. Words can be used more than once. ResetHelp Messenger RNA Ribosomal RNA Synthetase enzymes Transfer RNA ATP 1. : Forms part of the subunits for the protein synthesizing organelle. 2. : A molecule that binds to a specific codon and specific amino acid simultaneously. 3. : Attaches the correct amino acid to its transfer RNA. 4. : Provides the energy needed for synthesis reactions. 5. : Produced in the nucleus, this molecule specifies the exact sequence of amino acids of the protein to be made. 6. : May be attached to the ER or scattered in the cytoplasm.
Answer:
1. Forms part of the subunits for the protein-synthesizing organelle. - Ribosomal RNA.
2. A molecule that binds to a specific codon and specific amino acid simultaneously. - Transfer RNA.
3. Attaches the correct amino acid to its transfer RNA. - Synthetase enzymes.
4. It provides the energy needed for synthesis reactions. - ATP
5. Produced in the nucleus, this molecule specifies the exact sequence of amino acids of the protein to be made. - Messenger RNA
6. May be attached to the ER or scattered in the cytoplasm. - Ribosomal RNA.
Important notes:
- Messenger RNA is also written as mRNA
- Transfer RNA is also written as tRNA
- About point number 6:
To be more accurate, it is the whole ribosome that can be attached to the ER or scattered in the cytoplasm. However, because the ribosome is made of proteins and Ribosomal RNA, then it is also true that Ribosomal RNA can be attached to the ER or scattered in the cytoplasm. Although "synthetase enzymes" could be another option for this point, it is not accurate to say that synthetase enzymes, in general, could be attached to the ER or scattered in the cytoplasm because there are other synthetase enzymes in other places besides the cytoplasm or the Endoplasmatic Reticulum (ER).
The definitions are:
Ribosomal RNA: Forms part of the subunits for the protein synthesizing organelle.Transfer RNA: A molecule that binds to a specific codon and specific amino acid simultaneously.Synthetase enzymes: Attaches the correct amino acid to its transfer RNA.ATP: Provides the energy needed for synthesis reactions.Messenger RNA: Produced in the nucleus, this molecule specifies the exact sequence of amino acids of the protein to be made.Ribosomal RNA: May be attached to the ER or scattered in the cytoplasm.How to match the termsRibosomal RNA (rRNA): Ribosomal RNA forms part of the subunits of ribosomes, which are the protein synthesizing organelles in cells. Ribosomes consist of a combination of rRNA and proteins and play a crucial role in protein synthesis.
Transfer RNA (tRNA): Transfer RNA is a molecule that binds to a specific codon (a sequence of three nucleotides) on messenger RNA (mRNA) and carries a specific amino acid.
Read more on RNA Synthetase here https://brainly.com/question/24885193
#SPJ6
The cross bridge cycle is a series of molecular events that occur after excitation of the sarcolemma. What is a cross bridge?
A cross bridge in biological terms refers to the connection formed between actin and myosin during muscle contraction. Once the muscle fiber sarcolemma is excited, it leads to the myosin heads linking with actin, causing muscle contraction. This process is known as the cross bridge cycle.
Explanation:A cross bridge refers to the connection formed between the myosin heads of the thick muscle fibers and actin sites of the thin muscle fibers during the process of muscle contraction. This process is called the cross bridge cycle.
When the sarcolemma, the cell membrane of a muscle fiber, is stimulated or excited, it triggers a chain reaction resulting in the myosin heads 'reaching out' and forming a link or 'bridge' with the actin. This pulling action of the myosin heads shortens the muscle fiber, resulting in muscle contraction. Following this, the myosin heads release, the fiber relaxes and the cross bridges are 'uncoupled' until the next excitation event.
Learn more about cross bridge here:https://brainly.com/question/34609534
#SPJ12
The excitement of the sarcolemma triggers a crucial step in muscle contraction known as the cross-bridge cycle.
A cross bridge is fundamentally the transient connection that occurs between the myosin heads, which are located on the muscle's thick filaments, and the binding sites on actin, which makes up the muscle's thin filaments. The hydrolysis of ATP powers this interaction, which modifies the configuration of the myosin heads. The actin filaments slide over the myosin filaments as the cycle continues, shortening the sarcomere and leading to muscular contraction. The cross bridge goes through several stages during the cycle, including attachment, power stroke, and detachment. The intricate cross-bridge cycle demonstrates how muscle function is supported by a carefully choreographed molecular dance.
To know more about sarcolemma, here
brainly.com/question/31118956
#SPJ12
Tina and Russell Stovers want to start a family. However, Tina had her fallopian tubes tied and now is unable to get pregnant. The Stovers have opted for a procedure in which a woman's ova are removed from her ovaries, and a man's sperm are used to fertilize the ova in a laboratory. This method of fertilization is known as________.
Answer:
In Vitro fertilisation (IVF)
Explanation:
The technique being talked about in this case is known as “In Vitro Fertilization (IVF)”
In this technique, egg and sperm can be fertilized in external environment i.e outside female body. The fertilized ova is then placed in the uterus. The Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) enhances the production of egg. Thus, FSH is given to women to produce more number of eggs which are then collected and fertilized with sperm under regulated temperature and environmental condition.
Tina and Russell Stovers have opted for in vitro fertilization (IVF) to overcome their difficulty in getting pregnant.
Explanation:The method of fertilization that Tina and Russell Stovers have opted for is called in vitro fertilization (IVF). In IVF, a woman's eggs are retrieved from her ovaries and fertilized with a man's sperm in a laboratory. The fertilized embryos are then transferred to the woman's uterus for implantation and development.
Learn more about in vitro fertilization (IVF) here:https://brainly.com/question/5504838
#SPJ12
Curare, a poison extracted from South America shrub, blocks the binding of Each by muscle cells. What do you suppose would happen to your muscles, including the ones involved in breathing, if a toxic dose of curare entered your bloodstream?
Answer:
Curare if entered to the bloodstream can cause a lot of damages. Muscle paralysis could occur because of the blocking of acetylcholine (a neurotransmitter) and abnormal muscle's relaxation.
The respiratory muscles upon relaxation also cause respiratory paralysis that is extremely fatal and could cause death.
Curare is a poison that blocks acetylcholine release, causing loss of muscle activity, muscle relaxation, and eventual paralysis. If it enters the bloodstream, it could lead to a life-threatening situation as it could paralyze muscles involved in breathing, causing respiratory arrest.
Explanation:Curare is a toxin that functions by blocking the release of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that sends signals from neurons to muscle cells, inducing contraction. If a toxic dose of curare, such as that found in a South American shrub, entered your bloodstream, the resulting effect would most likely be a loss of muscle activity, progressing to muscle relaxation and then paralysis.
In muscle paralysis, your muscles would become incapable of contracting, which includes the muscles involved in breathing. As such a person could face serious consequences, including respiratory arrest, which can be life-threatening.
This is due to the role acetylcholine plays in the neuromuscular junction. When acetylcholine is prevented from binding with the muscle cells, the normal sequence of nerve signal transmission and muscle contraction is disrupted, leading to paralysis effect. Similarly, other neurotoxins such as Botulinum toxin (BONT) and Tetanus toxin have comparable effects but through slightly different mechanisms.
Learn more about neurotoxins here:https://brainly.com/question/13050036
#SPJ3
Which of the following is not a difference between the autonomic nervous system and the somatic nervous system?
a.The number and types of neurotransmitters.
b.The presence of ganglia.
c.The number of motor neurons.
d.The involvement of the spinal cord.
Answer: It is the involvement of the spinal cord.
Explanation: Whether message via the nerve impulse is voluntary(somatic nervous system) or involuntary (autonomous nervous system) it has to pass through the spinal cord to the brain. Basic function of the spinal cord is to receive sensory information from body parts to the brain and from the brain to the body.
The difference between the autonomic and somatic nervous systems that is not valid is d) 'The involvement of the spinal cord', as both systems involve the spinal cord.
The question pertains to the differences between the autonomic nervous system and the somatic nervous system. Among the options provided, the one that is not a difference between the two systems is 'd. The involvement of the spinal cord'. This is because both the autonomic and somatic nervous systems involve the spinal cord as part of their pathways. Specifically, the somatic nervous system consists of a single motor neuron path that extends from the central nervous system to skeletal muscles and releases acetylcholine. In contrast, the autonomic nervous system, which includes the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions, consists of a two-neuron pathway from the CNS to peripheral ganglia and then to the target organs, such as smooth muscles, cardiac muscles, or glands. The primary neurotransmitter for the parasympathetic system is acetylcholine, while in the sympathetic system, the postganglionic neurons release norepinephrine.
The gland in the chest where lymphocytes develop
Answer:
Thymus gland
Explanation:
The thymus gland in the chest is where lymphocytes develop.
Which of the following statements is FALSE? Individuals produced by asexual reproduction are clones of the parent. Mitosis is the basis of asexual reproduction in many eukaryotes. Mitosis occurs in somatic cells whereas meiosis occurs in germ cells. Individuals produced by asexual reproduction are haploid because fertilization does not occur to restore the diploid chromosome number. None of the answer options is false
Answer:
Individuals produced by asexual reproduction are haploid because fertilization does not occur to restore the diploid chromosome number.
Explanation:
In humans, somatic cells are diploid cells, containing two sets of chromosomes (2n). These cells can be found in the skin, blood and muscle cells. The number of chromosomes (n) differs in different organisms, and in humans, the complete set (2n) comprises 46 chromosomes.
Haploid cells are found in gametes or germ cells, and contain only one set of chromosomes (n). An example of haploid cells is the cells found in sperm and eggs.
With this, we can conclude that the individuals produced by asexual reproduction are not haploid because fertilization occurs to restore the number of diploid chromosomes.
The false statement is that individuals produced by asexual reproduction are haploid due to the absence of fertilization; in reality, they are clones of the parent and maintain the same ploidy level, typically diploid, through mitosis.
Explanation:The statement that is FALSE among the options provided is: Individuals produced by asexual reproduction are haploid because fertilization does not occur to restore the diploid chromosome number. This is incorrect because individuals produced by asexual reproduction are actually clones of the parent and are typically diploid if the parent is diploid. This mode of reproduction does not involve the reduction of chromosome number that occurs during meiosis. Instead, it involves mitosis, a process where a eukaryotic cell divides to produce two genetically identical daughter cells, each with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell.
In asexual reproduction, a single parent passes a complete copy of its genetic information to its offspring, thereby producing clones. This is different from sexual reproduction, where meiosis reduces the chromosome number by half to produce haploid gametes, and fertilization restores the diploid number when two gametes from different parents fuse.
Learn more about Asexual Reproduction here:https://brainly.com/question/4100787
#SPJ6
A second nerve impulse cannot be generated until ________. A. the Na ions have been pumped back into the cell B. the membrane potential has been reestablished C. proteins have been resynthesized D. all sodium gates are closed
Answer:
(B). the membrane potential has been reestablished
Explanation:
Nerve impulse can be defined as a signal that transmits along the nerve fibers. The neurons are said to be in resting phase when there is no nerve impulse.
When a stimulus is applied to resting membrane, sodium ions freely pass inside the cell and membrane is now said to be in depolarized phase. Due to this, a difference in electrical potential is generated across the membrane, known as nerve impulse or action potential.
When the action potential is over (after transmitting the nerve impulse through neuron) the cell membrane potential returns back by repolarizing the membrane.
Once the membrane potential is completely returned to its resting potential (when membrane potential is reestablished), the neurons become ready for second or next nerve stimulus.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
A second nerve impulse cannot be generated until the membrane potential has been re-established. Therefore option B is correct.
After a nerve impulse, the membrane potential of a neuron undergoes changes due to the movement of ions across the cell membrane.
During an action potential, the membrane depolarizes as sodium ions (Na+) rush into the cell, followed by repolarization as potassium ions (K+) move out of the cell.
Following the repolarization phase, the cell membrane needs to be restored to its resting state in order for another nerve impulse to be generated.
This process is called reestablishing the membrane potential. It involves the following steps: Sodium-Potassium Pump, Ion Channels, and Resting Membrane Potential.
Once the membrane potential is re-established, the neuron is ready to generate another action potential and transmit a new nerve impulse.
This process ensures that nerve impulses are transmitted in a coordinated and regulated manner.
Know more about nerve impulses:
https://brainly.com/question/13126722
#SPJ6
1. A couple of mice with brown fur and black eyes had litter with the following distribution of traits: 9 with brown fur and black eyes, 3 with brown fur and red eyes, 3 with grey fur and black eyes, and one with grey fur and red eyes. Propose an explanation.
Answer:
The genotype of the couple of mice is heterozygous.
Explanation:
First, we going to classify each trait as dominant or recessive allele:
Brown fur: It’s a dominant allele because 12 of 16 mice have brown fur, therefore 75% of the litter have this trait.
Black eyes: It’s a dominant allele because 12 of 16 mice have black eyes, therefore 75% of the litter have this attribute.
Grey fur: It’s a recessive allele because only 4 of 16 mice have this trait, so 25% of the litter have grey fur.
Red eyes: It’s a recessive allele because 4 of 16 mice have red eyes, so 25% of the litter show this trait.
Second, we going to name each phenotype with a letter and use a capital letter for dominant allele or a small letter for recessive allele.
For the color of the fur, let’s use letter “F”:
F: Brown fur
f: Grey fur
For the color of the eyes, let’s use letter “E”:
E: Black eyes
e: Red eyes
The genotype of each phenotype is conformed by two letters that indicates, the recessive allele is showed in the phenotype only when both letters in the genotype are small letter.
For example, for fur, there are three combinations:
FF: Brown fur (two dominant alleles)
Ff: Brown fur (A dominant allele and a recessive allele)
ff: Grey fur (Two recessive alleles)
For eyes, there are also three combinations:
EE: Black eyes (two dominant alleles) (
Ee: Black eyes (A dominant allele and a recessive allele)
ee: Red eyes (Two recessive alleles)
When both allele of the genotype are dominant or recessive, it is heterozygous, if there are a dominant allele and a recessive one, it is a homozygous.
Since there are 7 mice that show recessive phenotype, that means the genotype of the couple of mice are heterozygous. Although, both mice show a dominant phenotype, the genotype have a dominant allele and a recessive allele.
The genotype for the couple of mice is:
FfEe x FfEe
So, when we apply the Mendel's third law, we got the results showed in the chart.
Choose the false statement concerning the effects of epinephrine-cAMP signaling on various cell types.
stronger smooth muscle contraction.
liver cell glycogen breakdown to glucose.
increase in intestinal epithelial cell fluid secretion.
stronger heart muscle contraction.
inhibition of platelet activation during blood clotting.
Answer:
Inhibition of platelet activation during blood clotting.
Explanation:
Epinephrine serves as one of the weak agonists for platelets. Binding of epinephrine to alpha-adrenergic receptors serves to stimulate the activation of platelets. It does not inhibit the platelet activation during clot formation. Being a weak agonist, epinephrine can stimulate the platelet activation directly but depends on strong agonists such as thrombin to initiate the process.
In fruit flies, gray bodies (G) are dominant over black bodies (g), and red eyes (R) are dominant over orange eyes (r). Each individual possesses two alleles for each trait. If a fly that is homozygous dominant for both traits is crossed with a fly that is homozygous recessive for both traits, what is the predicted genotype of the offspring?
Answer:
The predicted genotype of the offspring is GgRr.
Explanation:
The gray body is dominant over black body. The genotype of gray body is GG and the genotype of black body is gg. Red eyes are dominant over orange eyes. The genotype for red eye is RR whereas the genotype of orange eye is rr.
GGRR is crossed with ggrr, the offspring produced by this cross is GgRr with gray body and red eyes.
GGRR × ggrr
GgRr.
In a cross between a homozygous dominant fruit fly and a homozygous recessive fruit fly, all offspring will have the heterozygous genotype GgRr. For X-linked traits, such as eye color in fruit flies, offspring ratios differ and are specific to whether the male or female expresses the recessive trait. These genetic principles also apply to human genetics.
Predicted Genotype of Offspring in a Fruit Fly Cross When a fruit fly that is homozygous dominant for both gray body and red eye traits (GGRR) is crossed with a fly that is homozygous recessive for both traits (ggrr), all the offspring will inherit one dominant and one recessive allele for each trait. Therefore, the predicted genotype of the offspring will be heterozygous for both traits (GgRr). This outcome is due to simple Mendelian inheritance, where each parent contributes one allele for each trait to their offspring. In the case of X-linked eye color traits, when a white-eyed male (XwY) is crossed with a female that is heterozygous for red eye color (XWXw), the offspring's eye color ratios can be predicted. The male offspring will have either red (XWY) or white (XwY) eyes, depending on whether they inherit the X chromosome carrying the dominant or recessive allele. The female offspring will all have red eyes since they will get the dominant XW allele from the mother and can only inherit the Y chromosome from the father. These principles are not only applicable in studying fruit fly genetics but also have implications in understanding human genetics, especially for X-linked conditions such as color blindness, hemophilia, and muscular dystrophy.
The correct sequence of sound waves in the ear is ________.
Select one:
a. stapes > eardrum > malleus > oval window
b. auditory tube > incus > malleus > stapes > eardrum
c. eardrum > stapes > incus > malleus > inner ear
d. malleus > incus > stapes > oval window
The correct sequence of sound waves in the ear is 'malleus > incus > stapes > oval window'. This sequence represents the path of sound through the middle ear, from the eardrum, through three tiny bones, to the inner ear.
Explanation:The correct sequence of sound waves in the ear corresponds to option d. malleus > incus > stapes > oval window. This sequence represents how sound travels through the middle ear. Initially, sound waves strike the eardrum causing it to vibrate. These vibrations are amplified and transferred by three tiny bones in the middle ear: the malleus (hammer), incus (anvil), and stapes (stirrup), in that order. The stapes then pushes on the oval window, transmitting the sound waves into the inner ear.
Learn more about sound waves sequence in the ear here:https://brainly.com/question/7547770
#SPJ3
The correct order of sound waves traveling through the ear is eardrum, malleus, incus, stapes, and then the oval window. This chain of ossicles amplifies the sound vibrations from the eardrum to the inner ear.
The correct sequence of sound waves in the ear is eardrum > malleus > incus > stapes > oval window. This process reflects how sound waves travel through the ear to be converted into a form the brain can understand. When sound waves enter the ear, they first strike the tympanic membrane, or eardrum, causing it to vibrate. These vibrations are then transmitted through the three ossicles of the middle ear. The malleus (hammer) is connected to the eardrum and begins this chain by vibrating the incus (anvil), which then vibrates the stapes (stirrup). The stapes is in contact with the oval window, the membrane that marks the entrance to the inner ear, and it sends vibrations into the cochlea, a fluid-filled structure that ultimately transduces them into neural signals.
How does water get from the atmosphere into the groundwater system? a. Water from the ocean is sucked up into the groundwater system due to a pressure difference. b. Precipitation falls into rivers and then flows downriver into the groundwater system. c. Plants secrete water into the groundwater system in a process called evapotranspiration. d. Precipitation falls on the ground and infiltrates the ground surface to the groundwater system.
Answer:
d. Precipitation falls on the ground and infiltrates the ground surface to the groundwater system.
Explanation:
Water gets from the atmosphere into the groundwater system because precipitation falls on the ground and infiltrates the ground surface to the groundwater system.
d. Precipitation falls on the ground and infiltrates the ground surface to the groundwater system.
Can precipitation infiltrate into groundwater?Groundwater flows underground
Some of the precipitation that falls onto the land infiltrates into the ground to become groundwater. If the water meets the water table (below which the soil is saturated), it can move both vertically and horizontally.
What happens when precipitation falls to the ground?
Precipitation comes as rain, snow, sleet, ice pellets, dew, hail, and other types, but we will call it all "rain" from here on. When too much rain falls onto the ground to conveniently infiltrate the soil, part of it "runs off". Gravity pulls it directly downhill.
Learn more about groundwater here: https://brainly.com/question/9617
#SPJ2
Explain what happens when a person exhales. What forces air out of the lungs? ResetHelp When you exhale, you reverse the process of inhalation. The chest cavity muscles relax, which decreases the lung volume, increasing the pressure within the lungs and forcing the air tense up the lungs.
Which of the following is not a problem in ground water pollution? A. gasoline from underground tanks seeps into rock and soil B. sewage pollutes water in wells C. industrial wastes contaminate water in wells D. plant nutrients cause algal blooms
Answer:
D. plant nutrients cause algal blooms
Explanation:
Plant nutrients causing algal blooms does not lead to ground water pollution.
Ground water is water in the subsurface of the earth which occupies pore spaces and fractures within the soils and rocks.
Ground water pollution is the contamination of ground water by pollutants. When gasoline from underground seeps and transmits using pore spaces within the rock, they can get into an aquifer thereby contaminating the water there. Also, when sewage disposal units are located up slope, a pressure gradient allows sewage to move within the pore spaces thereby contaminating ground water. Industrial wastes can also contaminate wells when they are not properly discharged.
Algal bloom as a result of plant nutrients leads to eutrophication.
Characteristics of the mature sperm include the ________. A. presence of two X chromosomes in approximately half the sperm B. absence of coiled mitochondria C. presence of Y chromosomes in approximately half the sperm D. absence of an acrosome
Answer:
Presence of Y chromosomes in approximately half the sperm.
Explanation:
Mature sperm cell consists of the following parts :
A head
A neck
A middle piece and
A tail.
Plasma membrane surrounds the complete body of sperm cell. Sperm head contains very little cytoplasm, an elongated haploid nucleus, the anterior portion of which is covered by a cap like structure called acrosome. The acrosome contains enzyme which help in the process of fertilization with ovum. Acrosome is derived from golgi apparatus. There is a short neck region which contains both the proximal and distal centriole. Proximal centriole plays an vital role in the first cleavage of zygote formed. Distal centriole gives rise to the the axial filament present in the long tail of sperm cell. The middle piece contains the mitochondria which are arranged spirally and produce energy for the movement of tail. The tail contains the central axial filament, small amount of cytoplasm and is surrounded by cell membrane as external sheath. The sperms cell swims at the rate of 1.5 to 3 mm per minute and reach the fertilization site within 30 minutes.
Match the following bacterial cell components to their major functions:
A. motility
B. determine cell shape; support and protect plasma membrane.
C. conjugation (exchange of plasmid DNA between cells)
D. cell attachment
E. protein synthesis
F. genetic material (DNA) storage
selectABCDEF 1. cell wall
selectABCDEF 2. nucleoid
selectABCDEF 3. ribosomes
selectABCDEF 4. fimbriae
selectABCDEF 5. pilus
selectABCDEF 6. flagella
Answer:
The correct options are cell wall- B, nucleoid- F, ribosome- E, fimbriae- D, pilus- C and flagella- A.
Explanation:
1. Bacterial cell wall- is an outer layer which is made of peptidoglycan or murein which provides structural support to the bacteria present outside the plasma membrane.
2. Nucleoid- an irregularly shaped region without nuclear membrane which contains the genophore or genetic material of bacteria.
3. Ribosome- are the organelle which is involved in the process of translation that is the synthesis of protein.
4. Fimbriae- thin and short appendage of the cell which helps in the attachment of the cell thus also called "attachment pilus".
5. Pilus- hairlike appendages which are involved in the horizontal transfer of genes through conjugation so also known as "conjugation pilus".
6. Flagella- hair-like appendage made up of microtubules which helps in locomotion of organisms.
Thus, the selected option is the correct answer.
In genetic engineering, the structures called “sticky ends” result from what process? the results of mRNA after post-transcriptional modification the results of DNA following the work of helicase the changes produced by an inversion mutation the uneven cutting by most restriction enzymes
Answer:
Option). the uneven cutting by most restriction enzymes
Explanation:
Sticky ends can be defined as over-hanged DNA fragments of unequal length, having a terminal portion with unpaired nucleotides. These fragments are formed by a staggered cut on DNA molecules wit the help of restriction endonuclease enzymes.
These ends have complementary nucleotide bases that allow complementary base pairing between bases, and thus, known as sticky ends.
Thus, the correct answer is 'last option.'
True or False: A person may be considered overweight but not obese.
Answer:
The answer to the question: A person may be considered overweight but not obese, is, true.
Explanation:
The diagnosis of obesity, vs overweight depends entirely on the BMI, the body mass index. This measure depends on the relation between a person´s weight, height and age, and it establishes the amount of body fat the person has. If the ratio found is between 25 and 29.9, in the BMI, then the person is considered overweight, but not obese. However, if the person´s BMI is 30, or above, then the person is declared obese. This is why the answer is true.
It was found that a reversible inhibitor and a substrate bind an enzyme, but at different sites. The inhibitor was quite potent at reducing enzyme activity, but an analysis indicated it could not actually bind the enzyme unless the substrate was bound first. These results led to what conclusion?
Answer:
Uncompetitive inhibitor
Explanation:
There are two types of inhibitors: reversible (can detach enzyme) and irreversible (can’t detach enzyme).
Exist three types of reversible inhibitors: competitive inhibitors( inhibitor binds free enzyme, usually has the same shape as the substrate, and substrate cant binds enzyme), non-competitive inhibitors ( inhibitors bind the enzyme at a different site of substrate and change the enzyme conformation ) and uncompetitive inhibitor ( inhibitors bind the complex enzyme-substrate).
In this case, is an uncompetitive inhibitor, because we know that inhibitor is reversible, and the substrate must be bind with the enzyme so the uncompetitive inhibitor bind to the complex and stop the enzymatic activity. If the enzyme and the substrate are not together, the inhbitor can´t bind the enzyme.
The described scenario suggests that this is a case of allosteric inhibition, where the inhibitor binds at a different location from the active site and induces a conformational change in the enzyme that reduces its affinity for the substrate, thereby reducing enzyme activity.
Explanation:The scenario described fits the profile of an allosteric inhibition. An allosteric inhibitor is one that binds to an enzyme at a location other than the active site (hence, a different site from where the substrate binds). This inhibitor alters the enzyme's conformation (or shape), reducing the enzyme's affinity for its substrate, thus making the enzyme less efficient at binding with the substrate. In this case, the inhibitor doesn't bind unless the substrate is already bound, which strengthens the conclusion that this is allosteric inhibition.
With allosteric inhibition, the inhibitor doesn't compete for the active site (as in competitive inhibition) but instead changes the enzyme's structure, specifically the active sites on the enzyme's subunits, resulting in reduced efficiency in substrate binding. This is why despite binding at a different site, the inhibitor effectively reduces the enzyme's activity.
Moreover, it should be kept in mind that allosteric inhibition isn't the only way allosteric regulation can happen; there are also allosteric activators. While inhibitors decrease the enzyme's affinity for its substrate, activators increase it.
Learn more about allosteric inhibition here:https://brainly.com/question/33843913
#SPJ12