Answer:
mRNA: A-U-G-C-A-U-U-A
Explanation:
Given DNA template: T-A-C-G-C-T-A-A-T
Newly transcribed mRNA: A-U-G-C-A-U-U-A
Transcription is a process that uses DNA template strand to make RNA strands. The process occurs in nucleus. The nucleotide sequence of DNA template is always complimentary to its respective RNA sequence.
Here, thymine of DNA template strand pairs with adenine of newly formed RNA. Adenine of DNA template would pair with uracil of RNA. Guanine of DNA template pairs with cytosine.
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What percent of all the genes in E. coli are active all the time?
10%
20%
60%
80%
Answer:
60%
Explanation:
Know the special characteristics of epithelial cells.
Answer:
Functions of epithelial cells include secretion, selective absorption, protection, transcellular transport, and sensing. Epithelial layers contain no blood vessels, so they must receive nourishment via diffusion of substances from the underlying connective tissue, through the basement membrane
How do volcanoes function as a disruptive force? Check all that apply.
force people to flee their homes
cause massive earthquakes
pollute the air with volcanic smoke
provide fertile soil for plant growth
make airplanes fly around ash clouds
Answer:
A,C,E
Explanation:
Force people to flee their homes
Pollute the air with volcanic smoke
Make airplanes fly around ash clouds
Volcanoes disrupt life by forcing evacuations, polluting the air with smoke, and changing flight routes around ash clouds. They do not directly cause massive earthquakes or contribute to soil fertility as disruptive forces.
Explanation:Volcanoes function as a disruptive force in several ways. They can force people to flee their homes due to the imminent danger posed by eruptions. During significant volcanic activity, the release of tons of gases and dust into the atmosphere can pollute the air with volcanic smoke, which includes water vapor, carbon dioxide, sulfur dioxide, and other gases. This can result in environmental impacts such as haze-effect cooling and climate change. Additionally, volcanic ash clouds can be so extensive that they make airplanes fly around ash clouds for safety reasons, due to the abrasive and engine-clogging properties of volcanic ash.
While volcanoes can also cause massive earthquakes and provide fertile soil for plant growth, these are not examples of disruptive forces. The fertile soil is a beneficial aspect, and while earthquakes are often associated with volcanic activity, they are not a direct function of the volcano itself, but rather a result of the tectonic plate activity beneath it.
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Continuing in analyzing myprotein and otherprotein, you then decide to run a gel to observe the presence of otherprotein and myprotein Which gel would you run?
a. 2D gel so that we can identify these protein specifically
b. PAGE because it allows for native confirmation so you can observe if these two proteins interact
c. SDS PAGE because it can separate based on size
d. SDS PAGE, Western Blot to find the presence of the both proteins within the protein sample
Answer:
SDC page because it can separate based on size
Which one of the following diseases is caused by a virus?
A. Hepatitis B
B. Tuberculosis
C. Tetanus
D. Strep throat
Answer:
A. Hepatitis B
Explanation:
Hepatitis B is a disease caused by a virus.
Hepatitis B is passed from person to person from bodily fluids.
Tuberculosis, Tetanus, and Strep throat is caused by bacteria.
What does a hydrogen atom need to be in for hydrogen bonding to occur?
Answer:
Hydrogen Bonding. A hydrogen bond is a weak type of force that forms a special type of dipole-dipole attraction which occurs when a hydrogen atom bonded to a strongly electronegative atom exists in the vicinity of another electronegative atom with a lone pair of electrons
Explanation:
Answer: D. How can the proteins be used to increase the amount of oil produced by a plant?
Explanation:
The disease cystic fibrosis (CF) is caused by a mutation to the CFTR gene which affects the respiratory, endocrine, reproductive, and digestive systems. The most common cystic fibrosis allele is missing three bases compared to the normal allele, resulting in the loss of one amino acid in the CFTR protein. What kind of mutation caused the cystic fibrosis allele?
Answer: DF508 mutation. A Genetic, Hereditary, Autosomal and Recessive Mutation.
Explanation:
Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a recessive autosomal lethal disease, it is most common on Caucasoid populations. Its diagnosis is suggested by the clinical features of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, persistent pulmonary colonization (particularly with mucoid Pseudomonas strains), meconium ileus, pancreatic insufficiency with or familiarity history of the disease. The FC gene is large, with about 250 Kb of genomic DNA, 27 exons representing about 5% of genomic DNA; encodes a 6.5 kb transcribed mRNA. This mRNA is transcribed into a protein of 1480 amino acid called CFTR (Regulator Transmembrane Conductance Cystic Fibrosis). When a three-base pair deletion, adenosine-thymine-thymine (ATT) identified in the CFTR gene, exon 10, it results in the loss of a single amino acid phenylalanine at position 508 of the protein. This mutation is called DF508; “D” stands for deletion and “F” for phenylalanine amino acid.
What does EEG stands for?
Answer:
An EEG is formally known as an electroencephalogram, thus the letters on the name.
This is a diagnostic test whose main purpose is to record the electrical activity within the brain through a series of electrodes that are placed on the scalp surrounding the skull of a person. As neurons communicate with each other through electrical impulses, the EEG, with its capacity to sensor these impulses, records the intensity, duration, wavelength and type of the electrical message to diagnose whether this communication is normal, or if it is being affected. The EEG is one of the most efficient diagnostic tests for epilepsy, narcolepsy, and other affections in the brain.
16. Which type of plastid organelle contains a high amount of red/orange photopigments and is known to give fruits & flowers their bright coloration? a. Chloroplast c. Amyloplast b. Chromoplast d. Lypoplast
Answer: b. Chromoplast
Explanation:
Plastids only occur in plant-like protists and are organeles surrounded by a double membrane. There are many types of plastid in plant cells. Chromoplasts include pigments different than chlorophyll and are associated with vividly colored structures and is known to give fruits & flowers their bright coloration. Plastids contain their own DNA in a small ‘plastid genome’ containing genes for some chloroplast proteins.
33. What is the correct term used for the water entering a red blood cell due to being placed in a hypertonic solution and the cell subsequently bursts?
a. Hemolysis
b. Plasmolysis
c. Crenation
d. Diffusion
Answer: a. Hemolysis
Explanation:
Hemolysis can be defined as a rupture of the membranes of the red blood cells and the consequent release of hemoglobin. Hemolysis is the process in which the rupture of the red blood cells occurs and the consequent release in the environment, of hemoglobin and other substances. Hemolysis can occur in the human body or during the processing of blood. It is said that hemolysis is in vivo or in vitro when occurring in the body or outside the body, respectively.
In vivo hemolysis can cause serious health problems, such as hemolytic anemia, a disease characterized by the early destruction of red blood cells. Jaundice and splenomegaly are signs of this pathology, which may be hereditary or acquired. In cases of severe hemolysis, blood transfusions may be required.
Why is reducing caloric intake insufficient for a person to loose weight in a healthy way?
Answer:
The amount of calories intake on daily basis depend upon the the age and sex of the person, more younger and active person can consume more calories.
To loose weight by consuming low calorie diet can could reverse the whole dieting scene. Shortage of calorie intake could result in body storing fats, as a fear of starvation. It could also result in diet distress, just the metabolism becomes slow and body do not loose any weight, and frustration could lead you to over-eat. On the other hand, long term use of such low calories diet could result in fatigue, constipation, diarrhea etc. Gallstones are mostly observed in people using low calories diet.
This is because weight gain and weight loss are governed by many factors and mechanisms that are a balance between energy intake and expenditure. Even after reducing calorie intake weight may not be lost effectively if the metabolic rate of the body is lowered. Metabolic rate can be increased by exercising to burn excess calories.
Describe the common tissues found in the organs of the intestinal tract. (4 points) Describe the common tissues and structures found in accessory organs. (4 points) Describe these structures and their function in the pancreas: (6 points) Acinar cells that secrete enzymes or bicarbonate _____ Islet cells that secrete insulin or glucagon ____ Blood vessel ______ Describe these structures and their function in the small intestine: (6 points) Villi _____ Smooth muscle ______ Intestinal glands _______
Answer:
1)
Tissues in the intestinal tract made up of loose connective tissues
Mucosa: It playa a role in the secretion of lubricants that lubricate and protect the intestinal wall from digestive enzymes.
Submucosa: It contains nerves, blood vessels and elastic fibers with collagen. It maintains the shape of the intestine by stretching.
Serosa: During digestive movements, it secretes lubricating fluid and prevents from frictional damages.
2)
Accessory digestive organs have common specialized cells, ducts, and secrete digestive hormones to help in digestion.
3)
Acinar cells that secrete and transport enzymes or bicarbonate into the duodenum for the digestion of the food.
Islet cells that secrete insulin or glucagon that increase the glucose level in the blood.
Blood vessels provide oxygen and nutrients for tissue growth and maintenance.
4)
Villi help to absorb digested food.
Smooth muscle moves food through the digestive tract.
Intestinal glands help in digestion and absorption by releasing hormones.
Acinar cells are basic units of the exocrine pancreas, islets are clusters of cells, and blood vessels maintain pancreatic islets. Villi are projections of the small glandular intestine, whose contraction is due to smooth muscle.
The acinar cells represent the functional basic units of the exocrine pancreas. These cells (acinar cells) secrete digestive enzymes called zymogens, which activate when they reach the duodenum.Islets cells are groups of cells within the pancreas that perform specific functions.For example, islets of beta cells, are pancreatic islets involved in the production of insulin, a hormone required to control the level of glucose in the blood.These pancreatic islets are vascularized by many blood vessels, which are adapted in order to favor normal endocrine function.Intestinal microvilli are finger-like projections of the intestinal surface cells, which are capable of increasing the internal surface area, thereby increasing absorption.The smooth muscle tissue found in intestinal walls is responsible for the rhythmic involuntary contractions of the intestine.Intestinal glands are tubular glands localized in the small intestine between the villi, which are capable of secreting digestive enzymes and mucus.There are two classes of intestinal glands: crypts of Lieberkuhn and Brunner's glands.In conclusion, acinar cells are units of the exocrine pancreas, islets are clusters of cells, and blood vessels maintain pancreatic islets. Villi are projections of the small glandular intestine, whose contraction is due to smooth muscle.
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Identify the fluid filled space between the cornea and iris.
Answer: Why are Type A's more prone to heart attacks?
Explanation:
The fluid-filled space between the cornea and iris is called the anterior chamber. It is filled with a watery fluid called aqueous humor.
What is the function of the anterior chamber
The function of the anterior chamber is to provide a space for the passage of aqueous humor, a clear fluid that helps to maintain the shape, pressure of the eye and provides nutrients to the cornea and lens. It also helps regulate intraocular pressure, which is important for maintaining the overall health of the eye.
It is located between the cornea and the iris, and is filled with aqueous humor produced by the ciliary body. The anterior chamber also plays a role in the refractive power of the eye, contributing to focusing light onto the retina.
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Explain the differences between the thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus?
Answer:
The epithalamus, perithalamus, thalamus and hypothalamus have in common that they are all part of the brain region known as the diencephalon. This structure is extremely important as it will be responsible for the collection, interpretation, and relying of information from the midbrain and other systems towards the cerebral cortex, and other parts of the brain, and then will be responsible also for collecting the responses from the higher brain regions towards the appropriate places.
However, each of these structures is different and has a different purpose.
The eipthalamus, which would be the outermost structure of the diencephalon, is the first region where information is relayed by the midbrain and the lymbic system. This structure is responsible also for the secretion of melatoning, which controls the circadian rythm, present in its most important portion, the pineal gland. It also controls the secretion of certain hormones of the pituitary gland, but it is not its biggest role.
Then comes the thalamus. This structure is also really important as it is also a centre of collection of information, especially that relayed by the midbrain, towards the cortex. Without the thalamus, there would be no connection between the cerebral cortex, the midbrain, and other parts of the body. Another major role of the thalamus is to regulate all regarding the process of sleep, wakefulness and alertness in the body
Finally, we have the hypothalamus, and its importance its enormous. This small portion of the diencephalon is responsible for the whole process of homeostasis, which means, it regulates all the processes that will bring equilibrium to the body. It also works as a bridge between the nervous and endocrine systems, as the hypothalamus controls the secretion of hormonal messengers from the pituitary gland towards other glands.
These are only a few of the differences between these portions of the diencephalon, without mentioning the anatomical and physiological differences between them.
The thalamus acts as a relay between the cerebrum and the rest of the nervous system, while the hypothalamus regulates homeostasis and autonomic functions. The epithalamus contains the pineal gland and is involved in regulating sleep cycles and circadian rhythms.
Explanation:The thalamus is a relay between the cerebrum and the rest of the nervous system. It consists of several nuclei that can be categorized into three groups: anterior, medial, and lateral. The anterior nucleus relays information between the hypothalamus and the emotion and memory-producing limbic system. The medial nuclei relay information from the limbic system and basal ganglia to the cerebral cortex, facilitating memory creation and determining alertness. The lateral nuclei receive sensory information and relay it to the appropriate sensory cortex of the cerebrum.
The hypothalamus is involved in regulating homeostasis and is situated inferior and slightly anterior to the thalamus. It is responsible for controlling the autonomic nervous system and the endocrine system through its regulation of the anterior pituitary gland. Some parts of the hypothalamus also play a role in memory and emotion as part of the limbic system.
The epithalamus is one of the regions of the diencephalon, along with the thalamus and hypothalamus. It contains the pineal gland, which is involved in the regulation of sleep cycles and circadian rhythms. While the thalamus and hypothalamus primarily have relay and regulatory functions, the epithalamus is more specialized in its role related to sleep and circadian rhythms.
Which is a difference between the synaptic cleft and the synapse?
Answer:
Synaptic cleft
Synaptic cleft may be defined as the space between two neuron and the gap between post synaptic and pre synaptic neuron. This is one of the component of synapse. The signals are transmitted in the form of chemical signal.
Synapse:
Synapse may be defined as the functional contact between two neurons and the gap between two consecutive neuron. This synapse consists of Presynaptic and postsynaptic membrane. The signals can be transmitted in form of electrical and chemical synapse.
Which of the following statements about the Bohr effect are true? This is the effect of pH on the binding of O2 to Hb. As blood travels from lung to tissue, there is a drop in pH, causing Hb to unload more oxygen than if there were no change in pH. As blood travels from lung to tissue, there is an increase in pH, causing Hb to unload more oxygen than if there were no change in pH. Myoglobin and Hb exhibit similar pH profiles.
Answer:
Option 1 and 2.
Explanation:
Bohr's effect explained the relationship between the binding affinity of oxygen with acidity and carbon dioxide content. Bohr effect was given by the scientist Christian Bohr.
The decrease in pH and increase in the amount of carbon dioxide reducing the binding affinity of oxygen. When the blood travels in tissue from the lungs, pH decreases and oxygen get unload from the hemoglobin as compared with the condition when there is no change in pH.
Thus, the correct answer is option (1)and (2).
The Bohr effect refers to the influence of pH on the interaction between oxygen and hemoglobin. A drop in pH (more acidic conditions) enhances the dissociation of oxygen from hemoglobin while an increase in pH (more basic conditions) inhibits this dissociation.
Explanation:The Bohr effect describes the influence of pH on the binding of O2 to Hemoglobin (Hb). As the blood travels from the lung to the tissues, the pH drops due to the increase in carbon dioxide and byproducts of cell metabolism like lactic acid, carbonic acid, and carbon dioxide which makes the blood more acidic. This drop in pH promotes oxygen dissociation from Hb. Conversely, a higher, or more basic, pH inhibits oxygen dissociation from Hb. This is because there are fewer hydrogen ions available to contribute to the breakdown of bicarbonate ions, leading to less carbon dioxide.
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You are a graduate student at the University of Iowa and working as a teaching assistant for a freshman introductory biology course. Two of your students have come to you with a ques- tion about the sequence of an mRNA transcribed from a gene. The original DNA sequence from which the mRNA was transcribed reads: TGACGATCGTA. The students were asked to provide the sequence of bases in the mRNA and came up with the following mRNA sequence: ACTGCTAGCAT. They are confused because their answer does not match the answer in the book. Briefly explain the very common mistake they made and what the correct sequence is.
Answer: The corret DNA sequence is ACUGCUAGCAU.
Explanation: The common mistake that they make is, they forget to replace thymine with uracil as a base pair of Adenine. During DNA transcription Thymine is replaced by Uracil in production of messenger RNA. Uracil is a de-mythylated form of thymine and requires less energy to produce.
The students made an error in understanding the base-pairing rules during transcription. The correct mRNA sequence from the DNA sequence TGACGATCGTA should be ACUGCUAGCAU. Before the mRNA can be used for protein synthesis in translation, it needs to undergo additional processes like capping, tailing and splicing.
Explanation:The common mistake made by the students in determining the mRNA sequence from the given DNA sequence is not understanding the base pairing rules of transcription. During transcription, Adenine (A) pairs with Uracil (U), Thymine (T) pairs with Adenine (A), Cytosine (C) pairs with Guanine (G) and Guanine (G) pairs with Cytosine (C). Therefore, the correct mRNA sequence that is transcribed from the given DNA sequence (TGACGATCGTA) would be ACUGCUAGCAU, not ACTGCTAGCAT. However, remember that in reality, this process requires more steps (such as addition of cap and tail, splicing) before the mRNA is fully mature and ready for translation (the process where mRNA is used to make a protein).
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A muscle that draws ribs together
a. Internal intercostals
b. Pectoralis major
Which kind of psychology seeks to identify and promote those qualities that lead to happy, fulfilled, and contented lives?
a.self-psychology
b.positive psychology
c.eustress psychology
d.psychology of joy
Answer:
B - Positive psychology
Explanation:
By definition, positive psychology is the study of a healthy mind and it is a applied to achieve peak operational functioning of the mind. It does this by identifying and promoting qualities that lead to happy, fulfilled and contented lives. Positive psychology is based on nurturing what is best withing oneself, thereby improving both individuals and communities.
Chimpanzee attacks on members of other groups can be extremely brutal and result in severe injury or death. never result in injury. are definitely motivated by territoriality. are so rare that only one or two have been observed. always occur in the form of displays and nothing more.
Answer:
severe injury or death
In a certain group of African people, 4% are born with sickle-cell disease (homozygous recessive). In this case, only homozygous recessive individuals have sickle-cell disease. Heterozygous individuals not only don't have sickle-cell disease, they are resistant to malaria. If this group is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what percentage of the population is heterozygous and resistant to malaria?
Final answer:
To determine the percentage of people heterozygous for sickle-cell allele and resistant to malaria, we use the Hardy-Weinberg principle. With 4% being homozygous recessive, we found out that p = 0.8 and q = 0.2 and calculated the heterozygous population (2pq) being 32%.
Explanation:
To calculate the percentage of the population that is heterozygous for the sickle-cell allele and resistant to malaria, we can use the Hardy-Weinberg principle. This principle states that the frequency of the homozygous recessive genotype (ss) is equal to q2. Given that 4% of the population is homozygous recessive (ss) for sickle-cell disease, we can say that q2 = 0.04, which means q = sqrt(0.04) or q = 0.2. The frequency of the dominant allele (S) is represented as p, and since p + q = 1, we can find p by subtracting q from 1: p = 1 - 0.2 = 0.8.
The frequency of the heterozygous genotype (Ss), which provides resistance to malaria, is 2pq. Therefore, the percentage of the population that is heterozygous and malaria-resistant is 2 * 0.8 * 0.2 = 0.32 or 32%.
Tay-Sachs is an autosomal recessive disease. A couple (Jack and Jill) is worried about having a child who has Tay-Sachs, because Jack had a brother with the deadly disease. Since they wanted to have children, they sought the advice of a genetic counselor. During the course of the interview the counselor determined that Jack’s parents were not affected with Tay-Sachs, yet his brother had it. What is immediately known about the genotypes of Jack’s parents? Is the genotype of Jack immediately known? Under what circumstances could Jack and Jill have a child with Tay-Sachs? Assume that neither Jack nor Jill has Tay-Sachs.
Answer:
Jack parents' genotype = Both Heterozygous dominant (carrier)
Jack's genotype = could be homozygous dominant or heterozygous dominant
Jack and Jill can have a child with Tay-Sachs if both of them are heterozygous dominant for the disease.
Explanation:
Since Jack's brother died of the disease, his parents should be heterozygous dominant for the disease. Both the parents served as the carrier (Aa x Aa, assuming that allele "a" is responsible for Tay-Sachs disease) and had one affected child (Jack's bother= "aa").
Since Jack is not affected by the disease, he could be homozygous dominant (AA) or heterozygous dominant (Aa). But, his exact genotype could not be determined by the given information.
Child of Jack and Jill could be affected with the disease only if both of them are heterozygous dominant (Jack: Aa and Jill: Aa) and serve as the carrier for the disease.
Jack's parents are carriers of the Tay-Sachs gene, and Jack has a 50% chance of being a carrier as well. For Jack and Jill to have a child with Tay-Sachs, both of them would need to be carriers and pass on the faulty copies of the gene.
Explanation:The fact that Jack's parents are unaffected but his brother has Tay-Sachs indicates that they are both carriers of the Tay-Sachs gene. This means that they each have one normal copy of the gene and one faulty copy, which they passed on to Jack's brother. Jack himself has a 50% chance of being a carrier like his parents. In order for Jack and Jill to have a child with Tay-Sachs, both of them would need to be carriers and pass on their faulty copies of the gene, resulting in the child inheriting two faulty copies and developing the disease.
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Suppose two parents, a father with the genotype AaBbCcDdee and a mother with the genotype aabbCcDDEe, wanted to have children. Assume each locus follows Mendelian inheritance patterns for dominance. What proportion of the off spring will have each of the following characteristics? Round your answers to two decimal places.
The fork line method is used to get genotypic and phenotypic proportions. In this case, 0.03 of the progeny have the father's genotype, 0.03 have the mother's genotype, 0.09 looks like the father, 0.09 looks like the mother, and 0.81 are different from both parents.
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Available data:
Five diallelic genes Mendelian inheritance patterns for dominancefather ⇒ AaBbCcDdeemother ⇒ aabbCcDDEeCross: Mother x Father
Parentals) aabbCcDDEe x AaBbCcDdee
To avoid making a Punnett square -which whould be very complex-, we will perform crosses separately for each gene, and then multiply their proportions. This is the fork line method, and is useful to get the proportions of the desired genotypes and phenotypes among the progeny.
Gene A:
Parentals) aa x Aa
Gametes) a a A a
F1) 1/2 = 50% Aa
1/2 = 50% aa
Gene B:
Parentals) bb x Bb
Gametes) b b B b
F1) 1/2 = 50% Bb
1/2 = 50% bb
Gene C:
Parentals) Cc x Cc
Gametes) C c C c
F1) 1/4 = 25% CC
1/2 = 50% Cc
1/4 = 25% cc
Gene D:
Parentals) DD x Dd
Gametes) D D D d
F1) 1/2 = 50% DD
1/2 = 50% Dd
Gene E:
Parentals) Ee x ee
Gametes) E e e e
F1) 1/2 = 50% Ee
1/2 = 50% ee
F1) Genotypes
a. Same genotype as the father ⇒ AaBbCcDdee
1/2 Aa x 1/2 Bb x 1/2 Cc x 1/2 Dd x 1/2 ee = 1/32 = 0.03 AaBbCcDdee
[tex]1/2 Aa x 1/2 Bb x 1/2 Cc x 1/2 Dd x 1/2 ee = 1/32 = 0.03 AaBbCcDdee[/tex]
b. same genotype as the mother ⇒ aabbCcDDEe
1/2 aa x 1/2 bb x 1/2 Cc x 1/2 DD x 1/2 Ee = 1/32 = 0.03 aabbCcDDEe
[tex]1/2 aa x 1/2 bb x 1/2 Cc x 1/2 DD x 1/2 Ee = 1/32 = 0.03 aabbCcDDEe[/tex]
Phenotypes
c. phenotypically resemble the father ⇒ A-B-C-D-ee
1/2 A-x 1/2 B- x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 3/32 = 0.09 A-B-C-D-ee
[tex]1/2 A-x 1/2 B- x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 3/32 = 0.09 A-B-C-D-ee[/tex]
d. phenotypically resemble the mother ⇒ aabbC-D-E-
1/2 aa x 1/2 bb x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 D- = 3/32 = 0.09 aabbC-D-E-
[tex]1/2 aa x 1/2 bb x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 D- = 3/32 = 0.09 aabbC-D-E-[/tex]
e. phenotypically resemble neither parent 26/32 = 0.81
1/2 A- x 1/2 B- x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 E- = 3/32 A-B-C-D-E-[tex]1/2 A- x 1/2 B- x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 E- = 3/32 A-B-C-D-E-[/tex]
1/2 A- x 1/2 B- x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 E- = 1/32 A-B-ccD-E-[tex]1/2 A- x 1/2 B- x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 E- = 1/32 A-B-ccD-E-[/tex]
1/2 A- x 1/2 B- x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 1/32 A-B-ccD-ee[tex]1/2 A- x 1/2 B- x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 1/32 A-B-ccD-ee[/tex]
1/2 A- x 1/2 bb x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 E- = 3/32 A-bbC-D-E-[tex]1/2 A- x 1/2 bb x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 E- = 3/32 A-bbC-D-E-[/tex]
1/2 A- x 1/2 bb x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 E- = 1/32 A-bbccD-E-[tex]1/2 A- x 1/2 bb x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 E- = 1/32 A-bbccD-E-[/tex]
1/2 A- x 1/2 bb x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 3/32 A-bbC-D-ee[tex]1/2 A- x 1/2 bb x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 3/32 A-bbC-D-ee[/tex]
1/2 A- x 1/2 bb x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 1/32 A-bbccD-ee[tex]1/2 A- x 1/2 bb x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 1/32 A-bbccD-ee[/tex]
1/2 aa x 1/2 B- x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 E- = 3/32 aaB-C-D-E-[tex]1/2 aa x 1/2 B- x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 E- = 3/32 aaB-C-D-E-[/tex]
1/2 aa x 1/2 B- x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 3/32 aaB-C-D-ee[tex]1/2 aa x 1/2 B- x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 3/32 aaB-C-D-ee[/tex]
1/2 aa x 1/2 B- x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 E- = 1/32 aaB-ccD-E-[tex]1/2 aa x 1/2 B- x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 E- = 1/32 aaB-ccD-E-[/tex]
1/2 aa x 1/2 B- x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 1/32 aaB-ccD-ee[tex]1/2 aa x 1/2 B- x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 1/32 aaB-ccD-ee[/tex]
1/2 aa x 1/2 bb x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 E- =1/32 aabbccD-E-[tex]1/2 aa x 1/2 bb x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 E- =1/32 aabbccD-E-[/tex]
1/2 aa x 1/2 bb x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 3/32 aabbC-D-ee[tex]1/2 aa x 1/2 bb x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 3/32 aabbC-D-ee[/tex]
1/2 aa x 1/2 bb x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 1/32 aabbccD-ee[tex]1/2 aa x 1/2 bb x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 1/32 aabbccD-ee[/tex]
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Name the 4 main classes of ATP-powered pumps.
Answer: P-class pumps, V-class proton pumps, F-class proton pumps, and ABC superfamily.
Explanation:
The P-class pump can be found at the Plasma membrane of all eukaryotic cells (Ca2+ pump), and Sarcoplasmic reticulum membrane in muscle cells. All P-class ion pumps possess 2 identical catalytic subunits that contain an ATP-binding site. V-class proton pumps can be found at endosomal and lysosomal membranes in animal cells, in the plasma membrane of osteoclasts and some kidney tubule cells. F-class proton pumps can be found at the inner mitochondrial membrane and bacterial plasma membrane. ABC superfamily can be found in bacterial plasma membranes (amino acid, sugar, and peptide transporters), and mammalian plasma membranes.
What substance is found in synaptic vesicles of the axon terminal
Answer:
I believe synaptic vesicles contain neurotransmitters.
Explanation:
In the far end of a neuron, there is the branch like ending with called the axon terminals. This is where neurons communicate with other neurons through a space called a synaptic cleft with the aid of neurotramitters. To better understand the significance of the synaptic vesicles, I have explained the functioning of the terminal before with an attached picture.
Further Explanation:When a neuron receives a signal/stimulus from the external environment via the dendrites, it converts this signal into a nerve impulse in the cell body. The impulse. The impulse then travels along the myelinated axon to reach the end of the neuron called the axon terminal which links up with the next organ or neuron. When the impulse reaches the membrane of the axon terminal, it stimulates the opening of voltage gated calcium ion channels. This causes an influx of calcium ions inside the membrane of the cell and that stimulates synaptic vesicles containing chemicals called neurotransmitters to move towards the membrane of the axon terminal. When they reach the membrane, they fuse with it and rapture releasing neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft. The neurotransmitters bind to ligand gated ion channels on the second neuron or the second cell causing a response in it. The voltage gated channels close and the synaptic vesicels that were not opened up continue holding the remaining neurotransmitters.
The substance found in synaptic vesicles of the axon terminal is called a neurotransmitter.
What is an neurotransmitter?Neurotransmitters are chemicals that help neurons talk to each other. These small substances are kept in tiny containers called synaptic vesicles. These containers release the substances into a small space between two neurons called the synaptic cleft.
When an electrical signal reaches the end of a nerve cell, it causes the release of chemicals that help transmit messages to other nerve cells. The chemicals called neurotransmitters move through a small gap and attach to receptors on the receiving neuron. This causes an electrical reaction in the receiving neuron.
Neurotransmitters are important for lots of things in our body like moving, feeling things, emotions, and thinking. Problems with how brain cells communicate can cause different brain illnesses like Parkinson's, Alzheimer's, and depression.
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Read this excerpt from a persuasive essay about animal testing. Which two sentences form a hook to draw the reader’s attention? Somewhere in a claustrophobic laboratory a dog is forced to breathe tobacco smoke. In another lab in another part of the country, a rat is squeezed into a narrow glass tube and forced to breathe in tobacco smoke. Scenes from a horror novel? No, all of this is real. Modern technology has advanced to new heights. Yet scientists continue to perform cruel and painful experiments on innocent animals all in the name of progress. Moreover, most of these experiments on animals have ended up being worthless—scientists don’t even have a good reason to continue with them. We must put an end to it before more animals are harmed.It is time we show humanity to our fellow creatures.
The first two sentences of the given essay extract function as the hook, drawing readers into the contentious issue of animal testing via vivid and emotionally charged descriptions of laboratory practices.
Explanation:The first two sentences of this excerpt form the hook that is designed to draw the reader's attention. These sentences are: 'Somewhere in a claustrophobic laboratory a dog is forced to breathe tobacco smoke. In another lab in another part of the country, a rat is squeezed into a narrow glass tube and forced to breathe tobacco smoke.' A hook in an essay is the first one or two sentences that are intended to capture the attention of a reader and engage them in the topic. In this essay, the hook introduces the contentious issue of animal testing by painting a vivid, disturbing picture of what animals may undergo in the process.
By using the technique of vivid description and somewhat shocking imagery, the writer effectively brings the issue of animal testing to life for the reader. This hook catches the reader's attention and makes them want to read further to find out more about the situation, the ethical considerations, and what might be done to change it.
It is crucial to note that a strong hook not only draws in the reader but also sets the tone of the essay and introduces the main topic in a compelling and engaging way. The mentioned sentences accomplish all of these tasks effectively, setting the stage for a persuasive argument against animal testing.
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What does the sympathetic nervous system do
Explain a graded potential.
Explanation:
Neurons communicate by changes in electrical properties of the plasma membrane that move from one cell to another. The architecture of the neuron aids the spread of these electrical signals called nerve impulses. A potential difference exists across every cell’s plasma membrane. The side of the membrane exposed to the cytoplasm is the negative pole, and the side exposed to the extracellular fluid is the positive pole. This potential difference is called the membrane potential.
If the plasma membrane is depolarized (moved toward a polarity above that of the resting potential) slightly, an oscilloscope will show a small upward deflection of the line that soon decays back to the resting membrane potential. These small changes in membrane potential are called graded potentials because their amplitudes depend on the strength of the stimulus. Graded potentials can be either depolarizing or hyperpolarizing and can add together to amplify or reduce their effects. The ability of graded potentials to combine is called summation. The level of depolarization needed to produce an action potential is called the threshold.
The male panda bear has 25 chromosomes in each sperm cell. How many chromosomes would be in the fertilized panda zygote?
Answer:
50 chromosomes
Explanation:
From the right atrium through the tricuspid valve to the __(1)__ through the __(2)__ valve to the pulmonary trunk to the right and left __(3)__ to the capillary beds of the __(4)__ to the __(5)__ to the __(6)__ of the heart through the __(7)__ valve, to the __(8)__ through the __(9)__ semilunar valve, to the __(10)__, to the systemic arteries, to the __(11)__ of the body tissues, to the systemic veins, to the __(12)__ and __(13)__, which enter the right atrium of the heart.
Answer:
Circulatory system
Explanation:
From the right atrium through the tricuspid valve to the right ventricle through the pulmonary sigmoid valve to the pulmonary trunk to the right and left lungs to the capillary beds of the pulmonary veins to the left atrium to the left ventricle of the heart through the mitral valve, to the aorta through the aortic semilunar valve, to the whole body, to the systemic arteries, to the capillaries of the body tissues, to the systemic veins, to the superior cava vein and inferior cava vein, which enter the right atrium of the heart.
The statement describes the journey of blood through the cardiovascular system. It involves the right ventricle, pulmonary valve, pulmonary arteries, lungs, pulmonary veins, left atrium, mitral valve, left ventricle, aortic valve, aorta, capillary beds of the body, superior and inferior vena cava.
Explanation:The blood flow pathway you're describing is basically the journey of blood throughout the cardiovascular system, including its passage through the heart. The blanks in your statement can be filled in the following way: From the right atrium through the tricuspid valve to the (1) right ventricle through the (2) pulmonary valve to the pulmonary trunk to the right and left (3) pulmonary arteries to the capillary beds of the (4) lungs to the (5) pulmonary veins to the (6) left atrium of the heart through the (7) mitral valve, to the (8) left ventricle through the (9) aortic semilunar valve, to the (10) aorta, to the systemic arteries, to the (11) capillary beds of the body tissues, to the systemic veins, to the (12) superior and (13) inferior vena cava, which enter the right atrium of the heart.
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