A 41-year-old pregnant woman and her husband are anxiously awaiting the results of various blood tests to evaluate the fetus for potential Down syndrome, neural tube defects, and spina bifida. Client education should include which information?

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

I'm confusion lol

Explanation:

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Related Questions

The nurse assesses the apical pulse while conducting a cardiovascular exam. The nurse notes the client has an irregular pulse. Which of the following chambers of the heart should be further assessed?
a. right atrium
b. right ventricle
c. left atrium
d. left ventricle

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is option A. right atrium.

Explanation:

The sinus node is located in the right atrium of the heart which is a bunch of specialized cells that present near the vena cava junction. The sinus node has the role of a cardiac pacemaker that generates an impulse on its own in between 60 to 100 impulses per minute.

If a patient has irregular pulse the right atrium should be assessed as left ventricle or the right ventricle or left atrium has no role of generating impulse.

Thus, the correct answer is option A. right atrium.

Question 1(Multiple Choice Worth 3 points) (01.01 LC) Krista used to enjoy ocean kayaking, but her family moved away from the beach. She is not sure that she wants to join any teams and she does not know if any other activities in her area interest her. What should Krista do? Join a team at school so she is not alone Review a map to learn about lakes and parks in her new neighborhood Research parks in her area to learn about new activities to try Exercise only when she visits her old neighborhood where she can go kayaking

Answers

Answer:

Research parks in her area to learn about new activities to try

Explanation:

Answer:

research parks in her area to learn about new activities to try!

Explanation:

ur welcome

The value of human life and the economic implications of the loss of functional individuals in a society as measured by public health is:
a. Burden of disease
b. Birth rate
c. Life expectancy
d. Disability adjusted life years

Answers

A. Burden of disease

A drug is designed to block fat absorption from the diet in order to promote weight loss. This drug also makes people nauseous if taken in the morning. If people lose weight while taking this drug, can you be sure it is due to reduced fat absorption?

Answers

Answer:

It is not possible to be sure that the weight loss was due to fat absorption.

Explanation:

Drugs that promote weight reduction are very dangerous to health as they can promote serious problems that will harm the health of the patient. These drugs also do not deliver what they promise, because they promise that weight loss will happen due to their ability to promote absorption of fat ingested while eating, however, these drugs make the patient nauseous, so the patient will consume little food due to to malaise and thus lose weight.

A person who wants to lose weight should do so with the help of exercise and medical advice and not with deceptive medications.

Final answer:

Weight loss from a drug designed to block fat absorption could be due to factors other than reduced fat absorption. These factors may include side effects like nausea leading to reduced food intake, or procedures that influence other metabolic processes, as seen with Dinitrophenol (DNP).

Explanation:

The weight loss resulting from the intake of a drug that blocks fat absorption could be due to multiple factors. While the primary purpose of the drug is to prevent fat absorption, the weight loss could also be influenced by the drug's side effect of causing nausea, which might discourage eating. In addition, the reference provided about Dinitrophenol (DNP) suggests that some weight loss drugs operate by impacting the body's metabolic rate, not fat absorption directly.

 

In the case of DNP, it dissipates the proton gradient in the mitochondria, disrupting ATP production and forcing the body to increase its metabolic rate resulting in weight loss. This particular drug does not block fat absorption, but it illustrates that weight loss drugs can work in different ways. Hence, it's crucial to not overlook other potential factors contributing to weight loss while on a fat-blocking drug.

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How does After 26 Depot serve its community? What are some other ways a restaurant could give back to its community?

Answers

Answer:

After 26 Depot is a community that provides job opportunities to the mentally disabled or cognitively impaired adults of age 26 in different restaurants in Missaukee, Wexford and Osceola.

Explanation:

An initiative by a handful of people to provide employment to the adult of age 26 with developmental and cognitive disabilities to overcome their weakness and depression. This community was opened in 2013, June. At present they employ 19 workers who work at different restaurants.

Their tasks include- serving water, washing dishes, greeting customers, cleaning and many more. This service gave the adults great confidence and public recognition too. They also educate them and groom them to work.  

Monica is extremely concerned about her weight, she is influenced by TV shows and magazines that portray women with supposedly good figures, and she has a flawed perception of most women's actual and ideal weight. These symptoms are a likely cause of which of the following disorders?
a) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
b) Anxiety disorder
c) Anorexia nervosa
d) Binge eating

Answers

Answer:

c) Anorexia nervosa

Explanation:

Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder that results from over-concern about body weight and can cause serious physical problems. The person looks in the mirror and, although extremely thin, sees himself as obese. Afraid of further fattening, he overdoes physical activity, fasting, vomiting, taking laxatives and diuretics. Monica feels extremely worried about her weight and has a wrong view of the ideal weight in herself and in other women, this shows that she may be suffering from anorexia nervosa.

​____ involves mixing sperm and egg cells together in a Petri dish, and then placing several fertilized eggs inside the mother’s uterus. The hope is that they will become implanted in the uterine wall and lead to pregnancy.

Answers

It’s called Vitro fertilization.

You are on a diet and eating less than 50 grams of carbohydrate per day. The claim made in the diet educational materials is that carbohydrate is the main culprit in being overweight, so it must be restricted. Which of the following will happen as a result of this low carbohydrate diet?

a. Ketones will be produced from partial protein metabolism to be used for energy.
b. Fat will be broken down and used as the exclusive fuel, with little or no fat loss and little health risk.
c. Proteins in muscles, heart, and other vital organs will be broken down into amino acids to make needed glucose, over time weakening the muscles and organs.
d. Fat will not be broken down or effected.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is option C.  

Explanation:

Low carbohydrate diets cause muscle loss that can lose the metabolism of an individual and can lead to more fat storage in the body. If an individual gets low carbs his body starts breaking fat but going below a specific limit of carbohydrate intake can cause hearing, organ and muscle weakening as the protein of these organs begins to breakdown to amino acids to provide much-needed glucose.

Carbohydrate has a sparring effect on the proteins that limit the muscle catabolism process which means it reduces the breakdown of protein into amino acid so low carbohydrate disease can cause the weakening of these muscles and organs.

Thus, the correct answer is option C.

Final answer:

On a low carbohydrate diet, initial energy is provided by stored glycogen. As this is depleted, fat is broken down for energy, causing ketone production. Prolonged carbohydrate restriction can lead to protein breakdown for gluconeogenesis, which can weaken muscles and organs.

Explanation:

If you are on a low carbohydrate diet consuming less than 50 grams of carbs per day, several physiological changes can occur in your body. Initially, your body will utilize stored glycogen for energy. After glycogen stores are depleted, your body will begin to break down fat for energy, leading to the production of ketones. These ketones can be used by your heart and other organs as an alternative energy source.

As the low carbohydrate state persists, fatty acids are increasingly relied upon for energy, leading to further ketone production. In the absence of sufficient carbohydrates, the body can also convert amino acids from proteins into glucose through a process called gluconeogenesis. Initially, this will protect muscle mass, but if prolonged, the body may begin breaking down organ and muscle tissue for amino acids to sustain glucose production, which can lead to muscle wasting.

Therefore, the most likely option from the ones provided is that proteins in muscles, heart, and other vital organs will be broken down into amino acids to make needed glucose, potentially weakening muscles and organs over time (option c).

The United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) defines ______ as secure access to an appropriately nutritious diet (i.e., protein, carbohydrate, fat, vitamins, minerals, and water), coupled with a sanitary environment and adequate health services and care to ensure a healthy and active life for all household members.

Answers

Answer:

Nutrition security

Explanation:

Nutrition security means a state in which all people enjoy in a timely and permanent way , of an economic, social and physical access to food. This term is a determinant of health which can lead to decisions to improve and maintain the health of populations.

For the nutrition security  can be given, it is necessary to have several things  called assessment,  policy and programming, and capacity building.

The nurse is explaining to a nursing student that allograft transplant clients need some form of immunosuppressant therapy. Which statement describes the pathophysiological reasoning behind this?
1. The treatment is indicated only if signs of transplant rejection are present.2. The treatment is a precaution; rejection in allografts seldom occurs.3. The treatment is designed to target chronic rejection, which does not occur for several weeks.4. Despite accurate tissue matching, allografts contain antigens that trigger the client's immune response.

Answers

Answer:

3. The treatment is designed to target chronic rejection

Answer:

4. Despite accurate tissue matching, allografts contain antigens that trigger the client's immune response.

Explanation: Same species transplant.

Your grandmother is quite upset. She is 82 years old and has been having some serious vision problems. You have suggested quite a few times that she needs to see her doctor. She finally went and she was told that she has cataracts. She feels like she is the only one her age that does. What percentage of adults her age have cataracts?

Answers

Answer:

50%

Explanation:

Cataract is an eye injury that strikes and opacifies the lens (a lens behind the iris whose transparency allows light rays to pass through it and reach the retina to form the image), which compromises vision. The evolution is usually slow, and the disease can affect first one eye and only later the other. In short, cataract is an eye injury that makes the lens opaque and blurs the vision, as if there was a mist in front of the eyes. Although it can occur at any age, cataracts are very rare in young people and very common in older people. Cataract affects 50% of the population over 80 years of age.

Which statement about weight control is false? A. Exercise helps to control our weight by burning calories. B. To lose weight, we need to burn more calories than we consume each day. C. People burn calories at different rates depending on metabolism. D. Weight control is the only benefit of exercise.

Answers

Answer:The correct answer will be (D) The primary

the benefit of exercise is not weight control but it is to maintain a good and stable health condition without succumbing to any disease.

Explanation:

Regular exercise has shown to improve health conditions, decrease blood pressure and fat levels of the body, improve insulin sensitivity as well as promote cardiovascular fitness.

There is a direct relationship between regular exercising and chronic diseases. With regular exercises, chronic diseases can be avoided.

Explanation:

Researchers have found that men with a repressive coping style tend to have a particularly sharp rise in blood pressure and heart rate when they are stressed. This may lead to the development of psychophysiological disorders in which the cause was primarily:

Answers

Answer:

trying to be good

Explanation:

Men with a repressive coping style who experience chronic or excessive stress may have sharp increases in blood pressure and heart rate, leading to psychophysiological disorders primarily caused by stress.

Researchers have found that men with a repressive coping style are inclined to have a significant increase in blood pressure and heart rate when stressed. This stress response, often seen as the fight-or-flight reaction, is driven by the activation of the Hypothalamic-Pituitary-Adrenal (HPA) axis. Such rises in blood pressure and heart rate can contribute to the prevalence of psychophysiological disorders where the primary cause is excessive and chronic stress.

For instance, frequent exposure to stressors, such as job strain, natural disasters, or marital conflict, has been linked to cardiovascular issues. When individuals experience strong negative emotions in response to daily stressors and respond to stress with hostility, they're more likely to encounter adverse health outcomes, including hypertension and heart disease.

It is crucial to note that stress reactions that consistently exceed normal ranges or chronic stress can lead to wear and tear on the body, similar to overusing a machine, increasing the risk of health problems related to stress, such as heart attacks.

The two most common genetic causes of intellectual disabilities are _____. Down syndrome and fetal alcohol spectrum disorder Fetal alcohol spectrum disorder and Tay-Sachs disease Down syndrome and fragile X syndrome Prader-Willi syndrome and PKU

Answers

Answer:

Down syndrome and fragile X syndrome

Explanation:

The two most common genetic causes of intellectual disability are Down syndrome and fragile X syndrome.

Fragile X syndrome is an inherited condition that determines changes in intellectual development and behavior. Although considered to be the second most common cause of genetic disability - the first being Down syndrome - the disease is poorly known, as its findings are only around 30 years old. Unlike Down syndrome which is better known and widespread.

Answer:

Fragile X syndrome is an inherited condition that determines changes in intellectual development and behavior. Although considered to be the second most common cause of genetic disability - the first being Down syndrome -

down syndrome-

Explanation:

Will be marked brainlist


Where can you find a great bargain on bread?

1.supermarket
2. warehouse
3Co-op
4.Convenience stores
5.Specialty stores
6. thrift store
7. Farmer's markey

Answers

Answer:

number 1 the supermarket

Explanation:

Dr. Korir is a 68-year-old college professor. His health is deteriorating, but he wants to continue working at a high level. Based on Baltes's selective optimization with compensation model, which of the following should the professor do?-Ignore his health problems and do the best he can.-Retire, as he won't be able to fully master his job.-Stay on the job, but care less about performing well.

Answers

Answer:

All options are incorrect.

Explanation:

The teacher wants to continue working, but his state of health is weakened, so he should not ignore their health problems, but seek to treat them with medical care so that their quality of life is good. The teacher does not want to retire, so he should keep working, but he should keep doing his work with the same level of quality. You may be wondering "how will the teacher do quality work without ignoring your health?" This is simple to answer, the teacher should choose a single branch of his profession and work only on it, ie the teacher should choose only to teach or research. This way your workload will be reduced, he will have time to take care of his health and will be able to keep his work with good quality.

Brain blood flow autoregulation ________.
A. is more sensitive to pH than to a decreased oxygen level.
B. causes constriction of cerebral blood vessels in response to a drop in systemic blood pressure.
C. is controlled by cardiac centers in the pons.
D. is triggered when abnormally high CO2 (carbon dioxide) levels persist.

Answers

Brain blood flow autoregulation is triggered when abnormally high CO2 levels persist, causing a change in blood pH and activating vasomotor responses to adjust blood flow.

The student's question pertains to brain blood flow autoregulation, which is a mechanism that helps maintain consistent cerebral blood flow despite changes in systemic blood pressure or other factors. The correct statement regarding this process is D. is triggered when abnormally high CO2 (carbon dioxide) levels persist. The autoregulatory mechanisms involve the local control of vasodilation and constriction in blood vessels, modulated by chemical signals such as carbon dioxide, oxygen, and hydrogen ions. The concentration of CO2 in blood is tightly regulated, as an increase in CO2 leads to increased hydrogen ions and a decrease in pH, which in turn triggers the vasomotor centers to adjust blood flow. Option A is incorrect because the sensitivity to pH and decreased oxygen levels are part of the chemoreceptor response, rather than the primary trigger for autoregulation. Option B is incorrect because autoregulation typically dilates cerebral vessels in response to a drop in systemic pressure to maintain blood flow. Option C is incorrect as the cardiac centers involved in blood flow regulation are located in the medulla oblongata, not the pons.

You are involved in a skateboarding incident. Your feet left the board, and you hit your head on the pavement. You were wearing a helmet, but you lost consciousness for about two minutes. When you came to, you began vomiting and were slurring your speech. Which facility should you visit to treat your injuries? A. Research center B. Emergency room C. General practice D. Clinic

Answers

Answer:

B

Explanation:

Patrick is a Vietnam War veteran who has been having a recurring nightmare of being on the frontline. Any sound that remotely resembles gunfire makes him anxious. Although he has been suffering for years with this problem, only recently did he decide to seek treatment. His psychologist asks Patrick to identify the thoughts and situations that evoke anxiety and rank them. His psychologist then begins to help him work through each situation by using relaxation techniques. This technique is called:

Answers

Answer: Systematic desensitization

Explanation:

A modified systemic desensitization procedure was employed in the treatment of the Vietnam war veteran with the reoccurring nightmare of the gruesome mine explosion.

After six session of the desensitization with the  additional self control procedure the anxiety was reoccurring.

This is a type of behavioral therapy that was based on the principle of classical conditioning.

Based on scientific research, what dietary supplement is effective in conjunction with vigorous training for increasing lean body mass in athletes performing repeated high-intensity, short-duration exercise bouts?

Answers

Answer:

Creatine.

Explanation:

The creatine is the perfect supplement for this type of exercise. It helps for faster muscle recovery, wich is so important for high intensity exercises. Also for lean bodies help to maintain your muscle size and strength.

Injured tissue releases chemicals which activate platelets in the blood. Activated platelet release chemicals to attract MORE platelets, eventually forming a blood clot. Which of the following is this an example?A. Negative feedbackB. Positive feedbackC. Neither

Answers

Answer:

B. Positive feedback

Explanation:

The positive feedback or positive feedback mechanism occurs in smaller quantities compared to the negative feedback mechanism. Positive feedback, unlike negative feedback, ensures increased stimulus that causes imbalance, reinforcing it. Thus, positive feedback is not always beneficial, triggering, in some cases, detrimental effects on the body.

Although less than negative, positive feedback also plays an important role in our bodies. An example of this occurs when platelet release chemicals are activated in an injured tissue to attract more platelets, eventually forming a blood clot.

To assist in nutrition screening in the community, the local senior center has developed a screen to help them identify individuals at high risk for malnutrition. Which of the following risk factors might be included?A) Eats alone most of the timeB) BMIC) Acute weight lossD) Appetite

Answers

Answer:

A) Eats alone most of the time

Explanation:

It has been confirmed that eating alone often is harmful to health. Eating alone can increase the risk of obesity in adult citizens, but it can also lead to malnutrition, as many people feel no stimulation to eat alone. For this reason, to help with nutritional screening in the community, the local senior center that has developed a screen to help them identify individuals at high risk for malnutrition should use the "eat alone most of the time" factor as a risk factor for malnutrition.

___________ counseling is any counseling relationship in which the counselor and the client belong to different cultural groups, may hold different assumptions about social reality, and may subscribe to different world views.

Answers

Answer:

Multicultural counseling is any counseling relationship in which the counselor and the client belong to different cultural groups, may hold different assumptions about social reality, and may subscribe to different world views.

Explanation:

Multicultural counseling succeeds when the counselor has the competence, awareness, sensibility, and capacity to understand and respect his clients' different values, backgrounds, experiences, lifestyles, ways to appreciate the world, and opinions with empathy.

A nurse cares for a client with megaloblastic anemia who had a total gastrectomy three years ago. What statement will the nurse include in the client’s teaching regarding the condition?

Answers

Answer:

"The condition is likely caused by a vitamin B12 deficiency."

Explanation:

Megaloblastic anemia is a condition caused by the reduction in the number of normal red blood cells that become large, immature and dysfunctional in the bone marrow. It occurs due to vitamin B12 and / or folic acid deficiency and the ingestion of drugs that impair DNA formation, such as some antibiotics and chemotherapy drugs.

This type of anemia is common in patients who have had the total gastrectomy procedure, since the stomach is the organ responsible for the absorption of vitamin B12. In case of withdrawal it is common that a deficiency develops in the body. The lack of vitamin B12 is related to hematological changes, especially anemia and neurological changes that can become severe. For this reason, replacement should be constant in these cases and only by injection, since digestive absorption of vitamin B12 is no longer possible.

An infant is born with a cleft palate. Which actions will promote oral intake until the defect can be repaired? Select all that apply.
1. Angle bottle up and toward cleft
2. Burping the infant often
3. Feeding in an upright position
4. Feeding slowly over 45 minutes or more
5. Using a specialty bottle or nipple

Answers

Answer:

2. Burping the infant often

3. Feeding in an upright position

5. Using a specialty bottle or nipple

Explanation:

Roof of the mouth is called palate. It forms between sixth and ninth weeks of pregnancy. In cleft palate the tissue forming the roof of the mouth does not completely join leading to a split or opening in the roof between the mouth and the nose. It is difficult to feed infants with cleft palate because they need to put more energy to create the suction to take in milk and the milk can also go into the nose area. Some methods to promote oral intake in an infant with cleft palate are:

Use a specialized cleft palate bottleFeed the baby in upright position so that the milk does not flow back into the noseBurp the baby often because he or she will take in more air while feeding.

Three-year-old Kevin was flying in a plane for the first time. As the plane descended for its landing, Kevin became very excited at all the toy houses and cars he saw, and he couldn’t wait for the plane to land so he could play with the toys. Kevin’s misinterpretation of the true size of the houses and cars the plane passed over shows that he is still not fully utilizing​
a. perceptual constancy.b. linear perspective.c. binocular depth cues.d. visual accommodation.

Answers

Answer:

a. perceptual constancy.

Explanation:

Perceptual constancy is the name that neuroscientists assign to the specific set of perceptive rules a child must acquire to make sense of the physical world around him. When you watch a person walk away, the projection of the person on your retina decreases. It has not decreased in size, we only know that it has moved away, this is called constancy of size. Other constants include the ability to recognize that the shapes of objects are the same, despite the different angles from which they can be viewed, called the shape constancy, and the ability to recognize that colors are constant, even as light or light change. shadow over them, called the color constancy. Taken together, constants fit into the broader concept, the concept of object constancy, which is the recognition that objects remain the same despite appearing to change in some ways. Constances develop from the first five weeks and are fully developed at approximately 4 years.

How do nervous and endocrine systems work together?
1. : The size and shape of a pea; produces hormones that stimulate other endocrine glands.
2. : Is part of the sympathetic nervous system.
3. : Produces hormones that regulate glucose levels in the body.
4. : Primary regulators of blood calcium levels.
5. : Produces the body's major metabolic hormones.

Answers

Answer:

5. : Produces the body's major metabolic hormones.

Explanation:

The endocrine system is made up of several glands. The main ones are pituitary, thyroid, adrenal, pancreas, ovaries and testes. They secrete the body's main hormones, which are carried by the blood throughout the body, under the command of the nervous system, and act on specific cells. This, in turn, is formed by the central nervous system (CNS), the peripheral nervous system (PNS) and the autonomic nervous system (ANS). The basic units are nerve cells, which transmit electrical impulses accurately and quickly.

Thus, we can state that the production of the body's major metabolic hormones represents the way the nervous and endocrine systems work together.

Archie believes that people who think they are hypnotized are not actually hypnotized at all. In fact, they are simply acting out everything that they are being told to do by the hypnotist. Archie's way of thinking is similar to which of the following theories?

a) Theory of hypnotic confusion
b) Freudian theory of hypnosis
c) Dissociative theory of hypnosis
d) Social-cognitive theory of hypnosis

Answers

Final answer:

Archie's belief aligns with the Social-cognitive theory of hypnosis. This perspective suggests that hypnosis is not a unique state of consciousness, but rather a form of socially constructed role-playing.

Explanation:

Archie's way of thinking is aligned with the Social-cognitive theory of hypnosis. This theory hypothesizes that people are not actually in a trance when they're hypnotized but are rather playing the role expected of them in the situation. They behave as they believe a 'hypnotized' person would act, which is shaped by social and cultural norms.

In the social-cognitive perspective, hypnosis doesn't involve any special altered state of consciousness. Instead, it's considered a cooperative social interaction just like Archie's belief. This is why Archie's belief is parallel to the social-cognitive theory of hypnosis.

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Final answer:

Archie's way of thinking is similar to the social-cognitive theory of hypnosis, which suggests that people who appear to be hypnotized are simply acting out the suggestions given to them.

Explanation:

Archie's way of thinking is similar to the social-cognitive theory of hypnosis. According to this theory, people who appear to be hypnotized are not in a trance-like state, but rather they are actively engaging in certain behaviors because they believe they are expected to do so by the hypnotist. In other words, they are acting out the suggestions given to them.

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During a one-on-one interaction with a client with paranoid-type schizophrenia, the client says to the nurse, "I’ve figured out how foreign agents have infiltrated the news media. They want to shut me up before I spill the beans." How should the nurse describe this statement when documenting this client’s response?

Answers

Answer:

Delusions of persecution

Explanation:

Delusions of persecution is a set of delusional conditions in which the affected person believes he is always being persecuted.

It is very common in cases of paranoid schizophrenia. There are two central elements that are considered fundamental to characterize the persecution craze. The first of these is when the individual thinks the damage is occurring or will occur. The second is when the individual thinks that the perceived and identified persecutor intends to harm him of any kind, whether physical, mental or moral.

This psychological disorder can be observed in the patient exposed in the question, who believes that undercover agents want to shut him up because he has discovered something about them.

tress surrounds us on a daily basis. Which of the following statements BEST describes ways to reduce or handle stress? A. Handling stress effectively involves ignoring stressors and remaining silent about stressful issues. B. Handling stress effectively involves recognizing what your stressors are, developing healthy behaviors to minimize stress, and adopting positive coping skills. C. Handling stress effectively involves recognizing what stressors are and visiting a psychologist weekly to discuss stressful issues. D. Handling stress effectivley involves doing whatever it takes to erase the stressful issue from your mind.

Answers

Answer:

B

Explanation:

A. its never good to ignore what your stressed about

C. If your seriously to the point where it effects you mental or physical health then maybe think about this but if you know your stressed about something then just take time of to come up with a better plan that will allow you to get what you need done but not burn out.

D. trying to forget what your stressed about never works because you will stress even more when it get worse or harder. By forgetting it your not helping the problem your just going to become stressed again

i chose B because i have GCSE coming up and i am also stress and B seemed like the best option for me to    

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