Answer:
"I will take three nitroglycerin tablets 5 minutes apart, and if I do not have any relief I will seek emergency care immediately."
Explanation:
sublingual nitroglycerin is prescribed to clients with stable or unstable angina to relieve chest pain symptoms.
The client is advised to take up to three tablets of sublingual nitroglycerin 5 minutes apart for relieve of chest pain and if there's no relieve to seek emergency medical care immediately.
P.S: it is advised to take few doses as necessary to relieve pain at the first sign of pain
Many mutations can be harmful. A mutation that causes a protein not to fold correctly or a specific protein not be produced can cause a cell's growth cycle to spin out of control causing cancer. However, some mutations can be beneficial. Give a specific example of a mutation that is beneficial, and a general explanation of how it is so.
Answer: Apolipoprotein Al-milano( Apo Aim)
Explanation: Apo Aim is a mutant version of the protein Apolipoprotein Al or Apo al, this mutant protein Apo Aim is more effective than Apo Al at removing cholesterol from cell and desolving arterial plaque and also functions as anti oxidants.
Investigators interested in studying the activation of apoptosis inject cytochrome c into the cytosol of two types of mammalian cells: cells that are normal and cells in which Bak and Bax have been inactivated by mutation.
How would these cells be predicted to respond?
Answer: Both cell types will undergo apoptosis
Explanation:
cytochrome C functions in the mitochondria and plays an important role in the synthesis of Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP). When a cell receives an apoptosis stimulus Cytochrome C is released from the mitochondria into the cystol to activate caspase cascade thereby committing the cell to the death process. Cytochrome C triggers programmed cell death through apoptosis. Cytochrome C release is caused by swelling of the mitochondrial matrix.
In sexual selection, individuals with certain inherited characteristics are more likely to obtain mates than other individuals. This often results in ____ _____, differences between the sexes in size, appearance and behavior
Answer:
Sexual dimorphism.
Explanation:
Sexual selection may be defined as the mode of natural selection in which the species choose its mate and prevent the other's individual mating. This provide better reproductive success in nature.
The sexual selection depends upon the attractive colors, size and behavior of other partner. The sexual selection results in sexual dimorphism as the male and female of the species can be easily distinguished. Their mating organ, behavior are different in opposite sexes.
Thus, the correct answer is sexual dimorphism.
Certain mutations in the regulator gene of the lac system in E. coli result in maximal synthesis of the lac proteins (β-galactosidase, etc.) even in the absence of the inducer (lactose). Provide an explanation for this observation.
Answer:
Certain mutations in the repressor gene or operator sequence make the operon constitutive.
Explanation:
Lac operon is not expressed in the absence of lactose sugar. The repressor gene codes for the repressor protein which in turn binds to the operator region. The operator region of lac operon serves as a binding site for the repressor protein. Binding of repressor to the operator region of lac operon does not allow the RNA polymerase to transcribe the genes and the expression of operon is prevented.
Certain mutations in the repressor gene or operator sequence make the operon transcriptionally active even in the absence of lactose. A mutation in the repressor gene that results in the synthesis of non-functional repressor protein or no repressor protein would make the operon constitute. Similarly, a mutation in the operator sequence that does not allow an otherwise functional repressor protein to bind it would also result in the expression of the operon in the absence of lactose.
In E. coli, mutations in the lacI gene can lead to a faulty repressor or the absence of repressor production, causing constitutive expression of lac operon genes, thus allowing the synthesis of lac proteins without the inducer lactose.
Certain mutations in the regulator gene of the lac operon can lead to the maximal synthesis of lac proteins in E. coli even without lactose, the usual inducer. The regulator gene, or lacI, normally produces an active repressor protein that binds to the operator region and prevents RNA polymerase from transcribing the lac operon genes when lactose is absent. When lactose is present, it is converted to allolactose, which binds to the repressor, altering its shape and preventing it from binding to the operator.
Mutations in the lacI gene can create a repressor protein that does not bind effectively to the operator, or none at all, leading to constitutive expression of the lac operon. Therefore, the usual regulatory control is lost, and the genes for lactose metabolism (eta-galactosidase, permease, and transacetylase) are expressed at high levels regardless of lactose presence.
Which of the following statements is a correct explanation for the observation that all offspring exhibit a phenotype for a particular trait that appears to be a blend of the two parental varieties?
A) The genes for the trait are recessive in both of the parents.B) The genes for the trait are dominant in both of the parents.C) The genes are linked and do not separate during meiosis.D) Neither of the parental genes is dominate over the other.
Answer:
D) Neither of the parental genes is dominate over the other.
Explanation:
Since the trait on the offspring is a mixture from both parent, it means that neither of the alleles from both parents is completely dominant over the other. Instead, each of the alleles contributes equally to the trait of the offspring.
This effectively explains the fact that each trait exhibited by offspring is a blend of the traits from the two parents.
The correct option is D.
Some glucose produced by gluconeogenesis is stored in the body as glycogen. Order the steps of glycogen synthesis. Not all descriptions accurately describe glycogen synthesis; therefore
Answer:
The order of the steps of glycogen synthesis is:
Explanation:
1. The order the steps of glycogen synthesis is Pyrophosphatase converts PPi and water into two Pi
2. Glycogene synthase adds a glucose unit from UDP- glucose to glycogen, producing a larger glycogen molecule and UDP
3. Glycogen synthase removes a glucose unit from a glycogen molecule producing a smaller glycogen molecule and UDP
4. ADP- glucose pyrophosphorylase catalyzes the reaction of glucose 1 phosphate and ATP to ADP- glucose and PPi
5. UDP- glucose pyrophosphorylase catalyzes the reaction of glucose 1 phosphate and UTP to UDP- glucose and PPi
Centrifuge is usually used to separate the various components in a whole blood. One intends to separate the red blood cells from the plasma in a sample of whole blood in a centrifuge of radius 0.350 m. If the mass of the red blood cell is 3.00 X 10-16 kg and the necessary force to separate the red blood cell from the plasma is 4.12 X 10-11 N, what is the angular speed the centrifuge should be operated?
Answer:
1084.94 rad/s
Explanation:
The force exerted in any circular motion is given by
[tex]F = \frac{mv^2}{r}[/tex]
Where m is the mass of the mass of the body
v is the speed of the body and
r is the radius of the circular path
F is the centrifugal force
Substituting the given values in above equation, we get
[tex]4.12 * 10^{-11} = \frac{3 * 10^{-16}^ v^2}{0.350}\\v = \sqrt{\frac{4.12 * 10^{-11} * 0.350}{3 * 10^{-16}} } \\v = 379.73[/tex] m/s
For calculating angular velocity, "v" is to be divided by "r"
Angular velocity is equal to
[tex]\frac{379.73}{0.35} \\1084.94[/tex] rad/s
What organisms usually cause urinary tract infections (UTIs) in older men in conjunction with prostatic hypertrophy?
Answer: Escherichia coli bacteria cause urinary tract infection in older men
Explanation:
A urinary tracts infection is an infection around the urinary systems like bladder, kidneys and urethra. It is majorly caused by Escherichia coli bacteria in older men. It can be treated by medical professional when diagonised. This infection is common in men of 50 years upward.
Prostrate hypertrophy is an infection of the prostrate gland that cause enlargement of prostrate gland making urine difficult. The disease is age associated, it is found in older men of 50years upward. It is caused by bacteria.
The Hawaiian Islands are riding on the Pacific Plate as it moves northwest. They are being formed as the plate moves over a hot spot in the mantle. Where is the next volcano likely to form?
Answer:
I believe it would form at point D, because the volcanoes are already formed on the oldest islands so, if new ones are forming, it would lead me to believe that it would form towards the youngest mountains. I hope this helps.
Explanation:
The next volcano is likely to form at point D since it's the youngest island.
A volcano simply means a rupture in the crust of the Earth which allows hot lava, gases, and volcanic ash to escape below the surface.
Based on the diagram, the next volcano is likely to form at point D since it's the youngest island. Also, the volcanoes are already formed on the oldest islands. Therefore, the next volcano will form on the youngest island.
Read related link on:
https://brainly.com/question/12109135
How would being able to detect damaged members of a prey species be beneficial to individual prey?
Predators often target damaged or weaker individuals in a prey species, leading to higher survival rates for the fittest members. Batesian mimicry—where harmless species mimic the warning colors of harmful ones—is an example of how species evade predation.
Explanation:Being able to detect damaged members of a prey species would be beneficial to individual prey as it would decrease loss through predation. Predators often target weaker or injured individuals as they are easier to catch. This could lead to an increase in survival rates of those who are healthy and fit.
For instance, some predators learn to avoid consuming particular prey due to their coloration. Other species have adapted to mimic this coloration to evade being consumed, even though they might not taste unpleasant or carry harmful toxins. This phenomenon is known as Batesian mimicry, where a benign species imitates the warning coloration of a dangerous one. As long as they share the same predators, this strategy serves to safeguard the harmless species. Many insect species mimic the coloration of wasps or bees, which are stinging, venomous insects, thereby discouraging predation.
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The reclamation of a sanitary landfill occurs _______. A. after the cells have been compacted B. before the clay liner is installed C. after the landfill is capped D. before the landfill is capped E. after the clay liner is installed
Answer: option D
Reclamation of sanitary landfills occurs before the land fills is capped.
Explanation:
Reclamation of sanitary landfills is a method use to expand the municipal solid wastes sanitary landfill capacity so as to avoid high cost of purchasing another land.
Sanitary landfills is an area of land where wastes is allow to decompose or degraded chemically, physically and biologically until it is safe.
This reclamation is done before the landfills is capped so as to avoid high cost of getting another land.
Dispersion patterns tend to be highly dependent on the spatial scale of the observer. For example, football players lined up on the scrimmage line are clumped at the scale of 100 yards but uniformly dispersed at the scale of a meter. An example of animals that are likely to be clumped at a large scale but uniformly distributed at a small scale is:____________
Answer:
Explanation: red squirrels, who actively defend territories
Ant nests in an abandoned field
Buffalo grazing on a prairie
Bluegills swimming in a northern lake
An individual is heterozygous for two linked genes, but whether its genotype is AB/ab or Ab/aB is not known. The individual is crossed with ab/ab, and among the progeny are: 62 AB/ab; 13 Ab/ab; 18 aB/ab; 51 ab/ab. These results imply that the genotype of the doubly heterozygous parent was AB/ab.
A) True
B) False
Answer: True
Explanation:
This is because the crossing with recessive allele (ab ab) gives the percentage proportion of heterozygous dominant allele as 62%AB and 51% ab.
This is test crossing . It is use to determine the genotype of heterozyote dominant alleles, where the phenotype can not be used to identify the genotypic proportion.
The recessive allele(ab ab) above are used to determine the proportion of inheritance of zygosity of the heterozygote allele
The results from the dihybrid cross showing higher numbers of parental genotype offspring compared to recombinant types indicate that the heterozygous parent's genotype was indeed AB/ab, making the statement true.
Explanation:The question revolves around genetic linkage and crossing over in a dihybrid cross involving two linked genes. If the genes are linked, progeny should exhibit a higher frequency of parental types (the combination of alleles the parent has) compared to nonparental types. However, if crossing over occurs during meiosis, recombinant or nonparental genotypes (Ab and aB) can also appear, albeit less frequently.
In this particular case, the largest number of offspring are either AB/ab or ab/ab, which are the parental types, followed by smaller numbers of the nonparental types, Ab/ab and aB/ab. The progeny numbers (62 AB/ab, 51 ab/ab, 13 Ab/ab, 18 aB/ab) suggest that the parent was AB/ab, consistent with the progeny ratios implying parental genotypes were more common than recombinant genotypes.
Based on these results, the statement 'These results imply that the genotype of the doubly heterozygous parent was AB/ab.' is True.
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Explain how twin studies were used to note the differences in the brain between people who have this diagnoses and the co-twins who do not. (What looks different about the brains of the twins where only one had the disease?
Answer:
The studies of monozygotic or identical twins are used to analyze the degree of genetic influence versus the environmental contribution on a specific pathology, this is because monozygotic twins share 100% of their genes, meanwhile the dizygotic twins share only the 50% of their genes, approximately.
The studies conducted on twins are a special type of epidemiological study because this relation allows the researchers to evaluate and compare the influence of genetic and environmental variables.
Explanation:
Researchers have conducted twin’s studies to discuss the “nature and nurture” question, it is well known that genetics are associated with the environmental factors to produce the human individualities.
However, the twin studies are a perfect model to evaluate the shared genetic and environmental factors for the trait of interest; in addition, it can help to estimate the proportion of variance in a particular genetic variation versus the amount of influence of shared or unshared environment. It also can reduce the amount of genetic and/or environmental variability in a genetic study.
Sahu, M., & Prasuna, J. G. (2016). Twin studies: A unique epidemiological tool. Indian journal of community medicine: official publication of Indian Association of Preventive & Social Medicine, 41(3), 177.
Before Muller's discovery that radiation induces mutation, scientists had to work on mutations that were found solely by phenotype differences in natural populations. Which of the features of Drosophila made it a fortuitous choice for Morgan and his colleagues?
A) having a long life cycle
B) especially high rate of mutation
C) large number of easily visible phenotypes
D) well-known biochemical pathways
E) the number of genes with only two alleles
Answer:
C) Large number of easily visible phenotypes
Explanation:
Drosophilia have large number of phenotypes, for instance have a look on different phenotypes for eye colour :
brown cinnabar garnet-2 purple rose rosy scarlet sepia vermilion white white-apricot white-eosinAn experiment is designed to determine if wheat grows better when it is planted alone or with clover. The design calls for 3 pans of each treatment. Pans A, B, and C contain only wheat. Pans D, E, and F contain clover and wheat planted in alternating rows. Each pan contains a total of 100 seeds. All treatments contain the same type of soil, are planted in the same size pan, are exposed to the same amount of sunlight, and are maintained at the same temperature throughout the course of the experiment. Use the passage in red to complete the following statement: The treatments planted with only wheat are the A. sample sizeB. The controlC. environmental variableD. null hypothesis
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Usually in scientific experiments, at least one parameter is checked; here, the growth rate of wheat in two different conditions is being evaluated.
Hence, growth rate of wheat alone in pans A, B and C becomes the standard or referential control against which the experimental control (Wheat + clover) in pans D, E and F is evaluated, since both treatments are exposed to the same external conditions.
I hope this helps
If natural selection over the time period of Eukaryote evolution has favored a DNA architecture in Eukaryotes that keeps genes turned off except when needed, this structure would be _____.
Answer:
If natural selection over the time period of Eukaryote evolution has favored a DNA architecture in Eukaryotes that keeps genes turned off except when needed, this structure would be nucleosomes.
Explanation:
The nucleosome is the fundamental unit of "packaging" of eukaryotic DNA. This structure contains chromatin, which is a fundamental substance of the cell nucleus and consists of the combination of DNA with proteins. In eukaryotic cells the structure of chromatin is the organization in which DNA is presented in the cell nucleus, and is responsible for masking (protecting) certain sequences, while allowing free access to identical ones. Local chromatin has effects on gene expression, forming special structures that actively bring amplifiers closer to promoters. The active or open chromatin may contain regulatory sequences, promoters, transcribed sequences and regions bound to insulating chromatin proteins. Heterochromatin is a chromatin that is usually located in the vicinity of the nuclear envelope, here genes that are not normally expressed are located, although there are portions of DNA in the constitutive heterochromatin that are transcribed.
Match each product of pyruvate metabolism with the condition under which it is produced.
Answer: The products of pyruvate metabolism are lactate, ethanol and acetyl CoA
Explanation:
Lactate: Lactate is produced by anaerobic fermentation that takes place in the skeletal muscles in humans.
Ethanol: Ethanol is produced through fermentation process yeast and bacteria.
Acetyl CoA: Aerobic Oxidation of pyruvate give rise to acetyl CoA is which the starting molecule in the citric acid cycle.
Answer:
Pyruvate under aerobic condition is converted to acetyl CoA by pyruvate dehydrogenase which enters the TCA cycle for complete oxidation or used for fatty acids synthesis.
Under anaerobic condition pyruvate can be converted to lactate by lactate dehydrogenase, It can also be converted into the amino acid alanine by the enzyme alanine transaminase .
Pyruvate may be channeled back to glucose through gluconeogenesis by converting pyruvate to oxaloacetate which is also a precursor for malete and aspartate shuttle.
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) work together in maintaining osmoregulatory homeostasis through which of the following ways? mastering biology
Answer:
The correct answer will be- ADH alters the reabsorption of water and RAAS leads to the reabsorption of sodium ions.
Explanation:
To maintain the osmolarity of the blood in the human body, the body activates the RAAS pathway and the production of ADH.
RAAS pathway gets activated when the receptors sense low blood pressure in the body. This activates the production of renin from the juxtaglomerular cells of the body which converts the angiotensin to angiotensin I and later angiotensin II.
This allows the reabsorption of sodium ions in the blood through proximal and distal tubules in the nephron. This activates the synthesis of aldosterone which increase the permeability to sodium ions.
The Antidiuretic hormone helps regulate the low blood pressure by adding aquaporins to the distal tubule membrane which help absorb the water.
Thus, ADH alters the reabsorption of water and RAAS leads to the reabsorption of sodium ions is the correct
Suppose a woman with a continuous hairline and short fingers and a man with a widow’s peak and long fingers have three children. One child has short fingers and a widow’s peak, one has long fingers and a widow’s peak, and one has long fingers and a continuous hairline. What are the genotypes of the parents
Answer:
The women has a genotype of hhff and the man has a genotype of HhFf
Explanation:
From the results of the children we can see that widows peak and long fingers are dominant because it has the majority in the family. The question is are the parents homozygous dominant. The are not. They are heterozygous because if they were homozygous they wouldn’t be able to have any recessive genes transfer to the children
Furosemide is a loop diuretic drug that inhibits the pump responsible for active reabsorption of Na and Cl in the nephron loop. Which of the following is one of the common side effects of furosemide?
a. hypernatermia due to increased Na resorbtion
b. hypertension
c. excessive water resorption in the kidneys
d. uncreased natriuresis (Na loss)
Answer:
The correct answer is d unceased natriuresis.
Explanation:
Furosemide is used as drug for the treatment of diuresis. Furosemide helps to inhibit the protein pump that helps in the active reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions in the loop of henle of nephron.
This ultimately result in the loss of excess sodium ions from the body which leads to natriuresis.
Bread production involves the production of carbon dioxide bubbles to make the bread dough rise. These carbon dioxide bubbles occur as a result of yeast cells undergoing ___.
A. alcoholic fermentation
B. cellular respiration
C. anaerobic respiration
D. lactic acid fermentation
Answer:
The correct answer will be- Alcoholic fermentation.
Explanation:
Alcoholic fermentation is one of the complex set of anaerobic reactions which takes place in certain micro-organisms.
The process of alcoholic fermentation converts the glucose into ethanol which is performed in two steps.
Glycolysis converts the glucose to the form two molecules of pyruvic acid and two molecules of ATP. The pyruvic acid is then converted to ethanol and two molecules of carbon dioxide. The formation of carbon dioxide allows the dough to rise and thus the selected option is the correct answer.
Place the organizational levels of the ecosystem in order from most basic to most complex (base to entire system). The simplest will be on the left and the most complex on the right. Organism, Community, Population, Ecosystem Organism, Population, Ecosystem, Community Ecosystem, Community, Population, Organism Organism, Population, Community, Ecosystem
Answer: The organizational levels of the ecosystem from the basic on the left to complex;
Organism, population, community, ecosystem.
Explanation:
Organizational levels of the ecosystem show the order of level from basic to complex. It start from;
1. Organism refers to singular specie.
2. population is the total number of species occupying a geological area.
3. Community refers to group of populations of different species interacting and living together in an area.
4. Ecosystem is a community of different living species interacting with their abiotic environment.
Pepsin is an antibacterial agent that kills some bacteria. Protease breaks down lipids into fatty acids and glycerol. Lipase breaks down proteins in the small intestine. Mucus protects the stomach lining from digestive secretions.a) trueb) false
Answer:
False,False,False,True
Explanation:
Pepsin is an antibacterial agent that kills some bacteria False.
Protease breaks down lipids into fatty acid and glycerol False.
Lipase breaks down proteins in the small intestine False.
Mucus protects the stomach from digestive secretion True.
In order to determine if individuals from separate populations are indeed distinct species, Drosophila biologists often test to see if individuals from different populations will mate with each other. This is an application of the ________ species concept.
Answer:
Biological species contest.
Explanation:
Different species concept are introduced to describe the exact definition and classification of species. Some species concept are biological species contest, morphological species concept and ecological species contest.
According to biological species contest, the group of individual that can breed among themselves and not with the other group. Here, the Drosophila species has been classified by the biologist depending on their mating ability to their group of individual only.
Thus, the answer is biological species contest.
It is very rare to observe adaptive genetic differences between human populations (as was demonstrated in this paper). Why might this be the case? Brainstorm as many reasons as you can think of.
Genetic human adaptations are specific according to the environments which make it rare.
Explanation:
The variations in humans that increases the selection process in a particular environment is considered as Adaptations. There are various biological adaptations that depend on the time length. The type of adaptation depends on the presence of ‘stressor’ in environment. In genetic adaptation, the stressor remains constant and can last for generations.
The example of such adaptation is the – sickle allele cell in the population of human. It might be kept in mind that genetic adaptation is specific environment dependent. In this case a specific gene can be advantageous and detrimental too in different environments. This make its variations very rare.
The 150-million-year-old Archaeopteryx fossil has birdlike features such as feathered wings, but it also has characteristics that we associate with living reptiles. Which of the following are considered reptilian characteristics of Archaeopteryx?a. teeth in the jawsb. claws on the ends of each digit in the "hands"c. long, bony tail
Answer:
-teeth in the jaws
-claws on the ends of each digit in the "hands"
-long, bony tail
Explanation:
Most of the reptiles have teeth on the jaw bone or broad teeth that make up their jaw.
A claw can be described as a curved appendage which can either be found at the end of fingers. This feature is common in reptiles.
The animals present in the reptiles group have known to possess tails. Usually, the tails are long in size
Hence, all these characteristics can be considered as reptilian characteristics.
While you are at the store you see a young child climb onto a motorcycle arcade game and the child eagerly begins to press the acceleration and attempts to steer the motorcycle. At first the child thinks they are in control but as the seconds pass and they realize that they are just watching the game demo. Which brain region helped the child detect the discrepancy between what they were doing and what the motorcycle on the screen was doing
Answer:
Inferior Parietal Cortex.
Explanation:
Inferior parietal cortex lies horizontally on intraparietal sulcus and lower part on the central sulcus. Inferior parietal lobule is also known as Geschwind’s territory.
This area of brain is mainly involved in the perception of emotion in the facial stimuli and the sensory information interpretation. Inferior Parietal Cortex is involved in the body image, language, mathematical operation and information sensing. This area of brain is also involved to distinguish between the discrepancy.
Thus, the correct answer is inferior parietal cortex.
Relate restriction enzymes to recombinant DNA
Answer:
Read the explanation section.
Explanation:
Restriction enzymes basically used in genetic engineering. Particularly in recombinant DNA technology. Restriction enzymes have two properties, which are very much useful in recombinant DNA technology.
First, they cut DNA into fragments or small pieces. This cutting is done to make the size of the DNA into a suitable one for cloning purposes.
Second, many restriction enzymes make staggered cuts that create single-stranded glutinous ends. These ends are favorable to the formation of recombinant DNA.
Restriction enzymes are used to cut DNA at specific recognition sites, allowing fragments of DNA to be spliced into another DNA molecule to create recombinant DNA. DNA ligase is used to join the cut DNA fragments together and create the final recombinant DNA molecule.
Explanation:Restriction enzymes, also known as restriction endonucleases, play a crucial role in the field of recombinant DNA technology. They are naturally occurring bacterial enzymes that cut DNA at specific recognition sites, which are usually palindromic sequences. These enzymes create fragments of DNA that can be spliced into another DNA molecule to form recombinant DNA. DNA ligase, on the other hand, is an enzyme that joins the cut DNA fragments together to create the recombinant DNA molecule.
Dna damage signaling processes are essential for regulating the ________ transition within the cell cycle.
Answer:
DNA damage signaling processes are essential foe regulating the G0 transition within the cell cycle.
Explanation:
Cell cycle is a process which prepares a cell for division.Cell cycle has various phases G0 phase,G1 phase,S phase,G2 phase and M phase.Each phase is specialized for its particular function.
Every phases of a cell cycle is under tight regulation of various proteins and this regulation is very much important to maintain the normal level of principle constituents of a cell.
DNA damage is detected by G1 cyclin CDK protein which transit the cell containing the damaged DNA into the G0 phase or quiescent phase for repair and if the damage cannot be repaired then the cell containing damaged DNA is targeted for destruction by ubiquitin pathway.