Answer:
Mutualistic
Explanation:
Mutualistic relationship may be defined as a type of biological interaction in which both the organism are benefited from each other. This shows a positive type of relationship between the organisms.
The bird cattle egret perch on cow's back and eats the prey that hurdles the cow, in returns the cow provide food to the cattle egret. Hence, they shows mutual type of interaction with each other.
Thus, the correct answer is option (C).
Which of the following is a characteristic of the sun’s radiation
A doctor is concerned that Martha has dysfunction involving the axons of her brain. Which neuroimaging technique would BEST be able to detect this problem?
A) positron emission tomography (PET)
B) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
C) computed tomography (CT) scan
D) diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)
Answer:
B. diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)
Which statement about anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa is true?
a. Approximately half of those with anorexia nervosa go on to develop bulimia nervosa, indicating that the two disorders may not be distinct but may represent phases of the same eating disorder.
b. The binge eating/purging type of bulimia nervosa is different from anorexia nervosa in that it involves both low weight and amenorrhea.
Answer:
a. Approximately half of those with anorexia nervosa go on to develop bulimia nervosa, indicating that the two disorders may not be distinct but may represent phases of the same eating disorder.
The correct statement is option (a), signifying that anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa might represent phases of the same eating disorder, as about half of those with anorexia nervosa develop bulimia nervosa.
Explanation:The statement about anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa that is true is option (a). Approximately half of those with anorexia nervosa go on to develop bulimia nervosa, indicating that the two disorders may not be distinct but may represent phases of the same eating disorder. This reflects a continuum in eating disorders where a person's condition can evolve from one disorder to another. Unlike bulimia nervosa, anorexia nervosa typically involves maintaining a body weight that's well below average through starvation and/or excessive exercise, often accompanied by a distorted body image. Meanwhile, bulimia nervosa involves repeated episodes of binge eating followed by purging, which can result in serious health complications like electrolyte imbalances, although individuals with bulimia may maintain a normal weight.
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A human cell containing 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is ___________.
Answer:
A human cell containing 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is a sperm.
A human cell containing 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is a male sex cell or sperm. Autosomes are the non-sex chromosomes, and humans have 22 pairs. The presence of a Y chromosome indicates the cell is male.
Explanation:A human cell that contains 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is classified as a sperm cell. This particular chromosome configuration represents the typical makeup of a male sex cell or gamete.
An autosome is any of the numbered chromosomes, as opposed to the sex chromosomes. Humans have 22 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes. The Y chromosome is one of two types of sex chromosomes.
The presence of the Y chromosome indicates male genetic sex. Therefore, a human cell with 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is a sperm cell that is specific to males.
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A horizontal line on the velocity vs. time graph indicates a constant, positive acceleration.
True or False
50 pts for it :D
The following statement is false, and it's 5 points not 50 :-)
Answer:
False.
Explanation:
Acceleration may be defined as the velocity of an object per unit time. The S.I. unit of acceleration is m/s^2. The acceleration can be positive, negative and zero.
The horizontal line on the velocity time graph represents that the object is moving with the constant velocity. This graph does not represent the acceleration. The straight line on graph represent represents the uniform acceleration.
Thus, the answer is false.
Which of the following statements is correct in describing the terms monohybrid cross and dihybrid cross?
A) A monohybrid cross is performed for one generation, whereas a dihybrid cross is performed for two generations.
B) A monohybrid cross results in a 9:3:3:1 ratio, whereas a dihybrid cross gives a 3:1 ratio.
C) A monohybrid cross involves a single parent, whereas a dihybrid cross involves two parents.
D) A dihybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for two characters that are being studied, and a monohybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for only one character being studied.
Answer:
D) A dihybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for two characters that are being studied, and a monohybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for only one character being studied.
Explanation:
When we do a monohybrid cross, we look at one characteristic at a time. When you do dihybrid cross, you are looking at characteristics.
Monohybrid cross example:
If black fur (B) is dominant over white fur (b) what is the probability of black fur in an offspring between two dogs heterozygous for the trait?
Bb x Bb
B b
B BB Bb
b Bb bb
So the probability of black fur is 75%.
Dihybrid example:
If black fur (B) is dominant over white fur (b) and short hair (S) is dominant over long hair (s) what is the probability of white fur and long hair in an offspring between two dogs heterozygous for both traits?
BbSs x BbSs
BS bS Bs bs
BS BBSS BbSS BBSs BbSs
bS BbSS bbSS BbSs bbSs
Bs BBSs BbSs BBss Bbss
bs BbSs bbSs Bbss bbss
The answer would be 1:16 = 6.25%
Compact bone has ________, whereas spongy bone has __________. Select one: a. spaces that reduce the weight of bone; tightly packed matrix that is solid b. osteons; trabeculae c. trabeculae; osteons d. osteocytes; no osteocytes
Answer:
b. osteons; trabeculae
Explanation:
Compact bone has osteons, whereas spongy bone has trabeculae.
Compact bone is characterized by osteons which provide support and strength, while spongy bone is characterized by trabeculae that help resist stress and reduce weight of the bone.
Explanation:Compact bone has osteons, whereas spongy bone has trabeculae. Osteons, also known as Haversian systems, are the basic structural unit of the compact bone, tightly packed together enabling them to provide support and strength. On the other hand, trabeculae are thin, vertebral structures that make up spongy bone, named for their sponge-like appearance. Their structure helps the bone to resist stress and reduce weight.
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PLEASE HELP!!!
Why do prokaryotic cells usually reproduce more quickly than eukaryotic cells?
1. Eukaryotic cells are smaller than prokaryotic cells.
2. Eukaryotic cells are more structurally complex than prokaryotic cells.
3. Eukaryotic cells have more cell walls than prokaryotic cells.
4. Eukaryotic cells have less DNA than prokaryotic cells.
Correct answer will get a reward!
Answer:
3.
Explanation:
Eukaryotic cells are more structurally complex than prokaryotic cells.
Prokaryotic cells reproduce more quickly than eukaryotic cells due to their structural simplicity and smaller size. They lack complex organelles which makes their reproduction process, binary fission, faster and more straightforward than eukaryotic cell division.
Explanation:Prokaryotic cells usually reproduce more quickly than eukaryotic cells primarily due to their structural simplicity. This is best reflected in option 2: Eukaryotic cells are more structurally complex than prokaryotic cells. Because prokaryotic cells lack complex organelles such as a nucleus or mitochondria, their cellular processes, including reproduction, can take place more rapidly. Their reproduction method, known as binary fission, is faster and more straightforward than the cell division (mitosis) used by eukaryotic cells. The small size and simplicity of the prokaryotic cells means they require less time and energy to reproduce. So your answer to 'Why do prokaryotic cells usually reproduce more quickly than eukaryotic cells?' would be the structural simplicity and smaller size of prokaryotic cells.
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Which of the following events does NOT take place in the light reactions?
A) Transfer of electrons to the reaction center of photosystem I
B) Conversion of 3PG to G3P
C) Generation of NADPH from NADP+
D) Splitting of water, releasing an electron
E) Generation of ATP from ADP + Pi
Answer:
B) Conversion of 3PG to G3P
Explanation:
Conversion of 3PG (3 phosphoglycerate) or 3 phosphoglyceric acid is a reduction reaction step of the Calvin cycle, it does not take place during light reaction of the photosynthesis. The 3PG is converted into molecules of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P) using ATP and NADPH. Generation of NADPH from NADP+, Photolysis or splitting of splitting of water that releases an electron and synthesis of ATP from ADP + Pi occurs during light reactions.
Answer:Conversion of 3PG to G3P
Explanation:
Bone formation begins when ____________ secrete the initial semisolid organic form of bone matrix called ____________ . Calcification, or mineralization, then occurs when ____________ crystals deposit in the bone matrix. These crystals form when calcium and phosphate ions reach critical levels and precipitate out of solution and deposit in and around the ____________ fibers. The entire process of bone formation requires a number of substances, including ____________ (which enhances calcium absorption from the GI tract) and ____________ (which is required for collagen formation), as well as calcium and phosphorus for calcification.
Answer:
Bone formation begins when osteoblats secrete the initial semisolid organic form of bone matrix called osteoid. Calcification, or mineralization, then occurs when hydroxyapatite crystals deposit in the bone matrix. These crystals form when calcium and phosphate ions reach critical levels and precipitate out of solution and deposit in and around the collagen fibers. The entire process of bone formation requires a number of substances, including vitamin D (which enhances calcium absorption from the GI tract) and vitamin C (which is required for collagen formation), as well as calcium and phosphorus for calcification.
Bone formation is a process initiated by osteoblasts, which secrete an organic form of bone matrix called osteoid. This structure is then mineralized with the formation and deposit of hydroxyapatite crystals, which require the presence of collagen fibers. The process is aided by vitamins D and C, as well as the essential minerals calcium and phosphorus.
Explanation:Bone formation begins when osteoblasts secrete the initial semisolid organic form of bone matrix called osteoid. Calcification, or mineralization, then occurs when hydroxyapatite crystals deposit in the bone matrix. These crystals form when calcium and phosphate ions reach critical levels and precipitate out of solution and deposit in and around the collagen fibers.
The entire process of bone formation requires a number of substances, including vitamin D (which enhances calcium absorption from the GI tract) and vitamin C (which is required for collagen formation), as well as calcium and phosphorus for calcification. Once entrapped in the matrix, the osteoblasts become osteocytes, the cells of mature bone.
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Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by ________.
Answer: promoting the rapid resynthesis of ATP, by the action of creatine kinase.
Explanation:
Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is the main form of chemical energy, its hydrolysis remaining highly exergonic. The maintenance of cellular homeostasis mechanisms, that adjust the generation processes of ATP, responds to the energy demand.
Creatine phosphate (CrP) was discovered in 1927 in the muscle tissue. Free creatine (Cr) is generated from the breakage of (CrP) during muscle contraction. Since the PCr / CK (Creatine kinase) system has a high rate of ATP generation, it is particularly important in situations of high metabolic demand, such as high-intensity physical exercise, when the ATP utilization rate exceeds its generation capacity by other metabolic pathways.
Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by providing a quick source of energy during high-intensity, short-duration activities.
Explanation:Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by providing a quick source of energy during high-intensity, short-duration activities.
When the muscle requires energy, creatine phosphate transfers its phosphate group to ADP, converting it back into ATP, which can be used by the muscle for contraction.
This process allows the muscle to continue contracting even when the supply of ATP is depleted.
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The chemical factors that determine traits are called
Answer:
The chemical factors that determine traits are called genes.
Answer:
Genes
Explanation:
The chemical factors that determine traits are called genes.
Genes is something that you inherit from your family.
These might include, traits, looks, blood type, and much more.
A white blood cell engulfing a bacterium is an example of
Answer:
amoeba
Explanation:
it is unicellular organismy
A white blood cell engulfing a bacterium is an example of Phagocytosis. This process involves a type of white blood cell called a neutrophil, engulfing and subsequently destroying invading microorganisms, forming a critical part of our body's non-specific immunity.
Explanation:A white blood cell engulfing a bacterium is an example of Phagocytosis. Phagocytosis is a process in which large particles such as cells or microorganisms are ingested by a cell. For instance, when microorganisms invade the body, a type of white blood cell known as a neutrophil removes these invaders through this process.
The neutrophil surrounds and engulfs the microorganism which is ultimately destroyed by the neutrophil. This process was first observed in starfish in the 1880s by Nobel Prize-winning zoologist Ilya Metchnikoff and he established a connection to white blood cells in humans and other animals. This observation suggested that instead of spreading pathogens as previously believed, white blood cells or phagocytes provide a robust defense mechanism against a wide variety of microbes, hence forming a critical part of innate non-specific immunity.
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Who experimented with rats to demonstrate that organisms can learn even if they do not receive immediate reinforcement?
Answer:
Edward Tolman
Explanation:
Tolman's experiment on rats showed that reinforcement is not a necessary tool for learning. In his experiment, he set up a maze for 3 groups of rats where the rats had to figure its way out of it. One group was given a reward immediately, the other was not given one, the last group was given an award after a few trials.
The experiment showed that although the rats who were not given food immediately took a longer time to finish the maze initially, they were able to get out of the maze. When they were finally given food at the end, they were able to get out of the maze even faster than the rats that were given food immediately.
This shows that information processing is an active process triggered by more than reinforcement. It depends on attitude, the conditions they are given, and beliefs.
You place a marine critter in a solution with an unknown concentration. In two hours, you examine the critter and notice that all its cells are shriveling. What is the tonicity of the tissue fluids inside of cells of the critter?
Answer:
Hypertonic
Explanation:
The cells of the critter are shriveling indicating that there is a high solute concentration in its cells. Hypertonicity causes the cells to shrink because water is leaving the cells to the external solution which one can deduce is also hypertonic.
Eras are divided into periods, which can be further divided into _____
it can be further divided into epoch
Answer:
The answer we seek is "epochs."
Explanation:
Hello!
Let's solve this!
The ages are stages in which it is divided chronologically into geology.
These ages are divided into periods.
For their part, periods are divided into epochs.
For example:
Era: Cenozoic
Period: Paleogene
epoch: eocene
Therefore we conclude that the answer we seek is "epochs."
Which of the following might be an investigation of microclimate?A) the effect of ambient temperature on the onset of caribou migrationB) the seasonal population fluctuation of nurse sharks in coral reef communitiesC) competitive interactions among various species of songbirds during spring migrationD) how sunlight intensity affects plant community composition in the zone where a forest transitions into a meadow
Answer:
D) how sunlight intensity affects plant community composition in the zone where a forest transitions into a meadow
Explanation:
Microclimate is the climate only in a small area within a bigger area. Or the climate of a specific section that is different from its surrounding areas.
The example above, is considered a study on microcliimate because the study is limited to only the "zone" where a forest transitions into a meadow and it does not consider the climate of the surroundings of that zone.
The other options are more broad, but the last one is more specific in terms of the location.
The investigation of microclimate relating to how sunlight intensity affects plant community composition in a forest-to-meadow transition zone aligns with the study of microclimates and their impact on local ecosystems.
Explanation:In the context of microclimate investigations, which are smaller localized climates within larger ones, the most appropriate answer would be D) how sunlight intensity affects plant community composition in the zone where a forest transitions into a meadow. This investigation directly looks at the impact of an abiotic factor, sunlight intensity, on the biotic community composition at a specific location with unique microclimate conditions. It aligns with the concept of biogeography, which studies the geographic distribution of living things in relation to abiotic factors, like temperature and sunlight.
Microclimate studies often examine precise conditions and their effects on the local flora and fauna. In this scenario, the transition zone between forest and meadow creates a unique microclimate where sunlight intensity varies and can significantly affect which plants can thrive, thereby influencing the local ecosystem. Understanding such dynamics can help ecologists grasp the interplay of abiotic and biotic factors, which is crucial when considering the changes in species distribution and interactions due to macro-environment shifts, such as climate change.
Which of the following is a characteristic of the lens?
a. The lens focuses light on the retina.
b.The lens of the human eye has a concave shape.
c. The lens is vascularized.
d. In a healthy eye, the lens will be opaque.
Answer: A. the lens focuses light on the retina
The lens is composed of transparent, flexible tissue and is located directly behind the iris and the pupil. it is the secondary part of the eye after the cornea. by changing it's shape the lens changes the focal distance of the eye and focuses the light that passes through it and into the retina in order to create clear images of objects. it also works together with the cornea to refract, or bend light.
good luck and a great day to you.
The main characteristic of the lens is to focus light onto the retina. The lens is not concave nor vascularized, and a healthy lens is clear and transparent, not opaque.
Explanation:The correct answer is 'a. The lens focuses light on the retina'. This is a main characteristic of the lens in both human and mammalian eyes. Its function is to focus light onto the retina, which essentially helps create a clear image. In option b, it's stated that the lens of the human eye has a concave shape. However, the lens is not concave, it's actually more convex in its shape. Option c suggests that the lens is vascularized, meaning it has blood vessels. This is incorrect as the lens is avascular, meaning it doesn't contain any blood vessels. Lastly, option d suggests that in a healthy eye, the lens is opaque. This is also incorrect because a healthy lens is typically clear and transparent, allowing light to pass through.
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The health care provider prescribes daily fasting blood glucose levels for a client with diabetes mellitus. The goal of treatment is that the client will have glucose levels within which range?
Answer: 70 to 105 mg/dL of blood glucose
Explanation:
The healthcare provider is asking the patient of diabetes to check the glucose level daily when the patient has not eaten anything.
The patients is suffering from diabetes mellitus and the normal blood glucose level should be in between 70 to 105 mg/dL under fasting conditions.
Below and above this level the blood glucose level will be abnormal and leads to diabetes.
The reaction catalyzed by reverse transcriptase is
A) DNA → mRNA.
B) mRNA → cDNA.
C) mRNA → protein.
D) DNA → DNA.
E) tRNA → mRNA.
Answer:
mRNA → cDNA
Explanation:
Reverse transcriptase enzyme is generally used by the retrovirus for their genome replication. This enzyme was discovered by Howard tenim.
Reverse transcriptase enzyme generates the complementary DNA from the mRNA template by the process of reverse transcription. The presence of RNase H, RNA-dependent DNA polymerase and DNA-dependent DNA polymerase activity enable the enzyme to convert the mRNA into DNA.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
Answer:
(B) mRNA → cDNA.
Explanation:
Reverse transcriptase can be defined as an enzyme, which makes cDNA (complementary DNA) by using mRNA as a template. These enzymes are also known as RNA dependent DNA synthase as they make DNA by using information present in RNA.
These enzymes are used by eukaryotes (as telomerase) to replicate chromosome ends or telomeres, by retrotransposon, and by some viruses, such as retroviruses to replicate their genetic material.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
During translation, the code for genetic information changes from---
A. Proteins to Amino Acids
B. Amino acids to Codons
C. Codons to Amino Acids
D.Codons to Nucleic acids
Answer:
Codons to Amino Acids.
Explanation:
Translation may be defined as the process of protein production from the RNA strand. The RNA strand is produced from the template DNA by the process of transcription.
During translation, the ribosomes assemble over the mRNA and tRNA attches to the start codon. The ribososme move along the mRNA and forms the chain of amino acids. The encounter of tRNA with stop codon result in the termination of translation.
Thus, the correct answer is option (c).
Answer: c
Explanation: a p e x
Match each description or example with the type of evidence it provides to support the idea that living organisms evolve. 1. The skeletons of mammals that existed 150 million years ago are different from the skeletons of mammals that exist today. 2. The front limbs of humans, bats, birds, and whales all have a similar bone structure. 3. All vertebrates contain the protein hemoglobin, but the structure of the hemoglobin molecule varies from one species to the next.
The skeletons of mammals that existed 150 million years ago are different from the skeletons of mammals that exist today, showing anatomical evidence of evolution. The similar bone structure in the front limbs of humans, bats, birds, and whales suggests a common ancestor and provides homologous structures as evidence of evolution. The variation in the structure of the hemoglobin molecule among different vertebrate species provides molecular evidence of evolution.
Explanation:The first example provides anatomical evidence of evolution. The difference in skeleton structure between mammals that existed 150 million years ago and mammals today suggests that living organisms have evolved over time.
The second example provides homologous structures as evidence of evolution. The similar bone structure in the front limbs of humans, bats, birds, and whales indicates a common ancestor and evolutionary relationship.
The third example provides molecular evidence of evolution. The variation in the structure of the hemoglobin molecule among different vertebrate species supports the idea of evolution.
Which of the following describes a phenomenon that occurs when we observe plants that wilt?
A. The xylem releases all its water.
B. The stomata close, cutting off transpiration and gas exchange.
C. The roots begin to rot, causing them to no longer uptake water.
D. The plant begins absorbing oxygen and releasing carbon dioxide into the atmosphere
Answer:
B. Stomata closes, cutting off transpiration.
Explanation:
On a hot, dry day (or after several days with no rain or watering), transpiration causes more water to be lost than is coming in, and the water balance within the plant can get thrown off. The dehydrated collapsing cells in the leaves and stems can no longer remain erect, and the plant begins to wilt.
Answer:
Option- C
The roots begin to rot, causing them to no longer uptake water. As, there is specific amount of molecules and nutrients requirement for any plant to develop and survive through time. While, the oxygen is always been necessary for the survival of all plant and animal life. While, due to some reasons if the roots of the plant are not able to absorb enough of the oxygen and other molecules then they will face the process of wilting or shortage of nutrients in there body causing the damage to there over all structure.
How do nerve signals pass through a synapse?
by depolarization
by acetylcholine
by chemical transmitters
by axon connections
Answer:
By axon connections.
Hope you got your answer.
Which of the following sequences correctly represents the flow of electrons during photosynthesis?
A. NADPH -> O2 -> CO2
B. H2O -> NADPH -> Calvin cycle
C. NADPH -> chlorophyll -> Calvin cycle
D. H2O -> photosystem I -> photosystem II
E. NADPH -> electron transport chain -> O2
Answer:
H2O -> NADPH -> Calvin cycle - B.
The sequence that correctly represents the flow of electrons during photosynthesis is: B. H2O -> NADPH -> Calvin cycle.
Photosynthesis can be defined as a natural process through which autotrophs (green plants), transform light energy (sunlight) into chemical energy by using carbon dioxide ([tex]CO_2[/tex]) and water ([tex]H_2O[/tex]) during cellular respiration.
Basically, both carbon dioxide ([tex]CO_2[/tex]), sunlight, and water ([tex]H_2O[/tex]) contained in the Earth's atmosphere plays a significant role in photosynthesis because they serve as an input.
During photosynthesis, the electrons start at a low energy level in water ([tex]H_2O[/tex]) before they are excited to a very high energy level by light and then transported to NADPH.
Finally, NADPH arrives at the Calvin cycle, where its electrons would be used to build sugars from carbon dioxide ([tex]CO_2[/tex]).
In conclusion, the sequence that correctly represents the flow of electrons during photosynthesis is H2O -> NADPH -> Calvin cycle.
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What four things do forensic scientists primarily do in order to reconstruct a crime and find the person who committed it?
Tear up, burn, destroy and hide evidence
Distribute, memorize, repeat and care for evidence
Find, collect, label and analyze evidence
Disregard, ignore, undermine and object to evidence
Answer:
Find, collect, label and analyze evidence
Explanation:
The application of science which is used to investigate crime scenes in order to find the correct evidence using different technologies is called forensic science. It plays a very important role in criminal justice and uses various discipline of subjects such as chemistry, physics, biology, computers. etc to find the main suspects in suspense of evidence.
The forensic scientist arrives at the crime scene to look for the evidence and then collect them and take it to the laboratory for further analysis of the evidence with respect to crime scene. So the primary thing that the forensic scientist do to reconstruct a crime and find the culprit is to
find, collect, label and analyse the evidence.
Answer:
Find, collect, label and analyze evidence
Explanation:
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Which structure is the site of photosynthesis within a plant?
A. Roots B. Leaves C. Xylem D. Stomata
The correct answer is option D. Stomata.
What are pores and functions?Stomata are small pores on the surface of leaves and stems that regulate the flow of gas in and out of the leaves. Therefore, it regulates the whole plant. They adapt to local and global changes on all time scales, from minutes to thousands of years.
The stomata are composed of a special pair of epidermal cells called guard cells. Stomata regulate gas exchange between plants and the environment and control water loss by resizing the pores of the stomata.
Photosynthesis uses sunlight and carbon dioxide to make food, releasing the oxygen we breathe as a by-product. Because this evolutionary innovation is central to plant identity, almost all land plants use the same pores, called stomata, to take in carbon dioxide and release oxygen.
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Jim is 78 years old and has been experiencing muscle tremors and rigidity. His hand shakes when he tries to pick up objects, and he has started walking with a shuffle. From which is Jim most likely suffering?
Answer:
Jim, probably suffering from Parkinson's disease.
Explanation:
Parkinson's is a progressive disease of the neurological system that primarily affects the brain. This is one of the main and most common nervous disorders of the elderly and is characterized mainly by impairing motor coordination and causing tremors and difficulties to walk and move. There are no ways to prevent Parkinson's, but there are several treatments to reduce the symptoms of the disease.
which of the following is the basic taste quality responsible for the amino acid flavor steak? a). sour b). umami c). bitter d). sweet
Answer:
B Umami
Explanation:
Ribosomes provide the scaffolding on which tRNAs interact with mRNA during translation of an mRNA sequence to a chain of amino acids. A ribosome has three binding sites, each of which has a distinct function in the tRNA-mRNA interactions. Drag the appropriate tRNAs to the binding sites on the ribosome to show the configuration immediately before a new peptide bond forms. Note that one of the binding sites should be left empty.
The A, P, and E sites of a ribosome have distinct functions in tRNA-mRNA interactions during translation. The A site holds the incoming tRNA, the P site holds the tRNA with the growing polypeptide chain, and the E site is the exit site for discharged tRNA.
Explanation:Ribosomes play a crucial role in the translation of mRNA into a chain of amino acids. They have three binding sites: A, P, and E. The A site holds the incoming tRNA with the appropriate anticodon, the P site holds the tRNA carrying the growing polypeptide chain, and the E site is the exit site for the discharged tRNA. Before a new peptide bond forms, the tRNA is present in the A site, the tRNA with the growing polypeptide chain is in the P site, and the E site is empty.
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