A chemistry student is adding a solid to a liquid in a jar. What would put the
student in danger during this experiment?
O
O
A Washing hands after
B. Drinking while working
C. Wearing goggles
O
O
D. Removing jewelry first


I need help !!!!

Answers

Answer 1
B. Drinking while working
Answer 2

Answer:

Drinking while working

Explanation:


Related Questions

True or false in terms of symmetry, the human body is radically symmetrical

Answers

Answer:

False

Explanation:

Humans and most animals exhibit "bilateral symmetry"

The answer is True because Radial symmetry is the arrangement of body parts around a central axis, like rays on a sun or pieces in a pie. Radially symmetrical animals have top and bottom surfaces, but no left and right sides, or front and back.

If a mixture of these three substrates was presented to elastase with the concentration of each peptide equal to 0.5 mMmM, which would be digested most rapidly? Which most slowly? (Assume enzyme is present in excess

Answers

Answer:

If we take the Kcat / KM ratios, we find that PAPAF would be digested more quickly and PAPAG would be slower.

Explanation:

It is important to highlight that elastase is an enzyme that is not only in humans, to degrade elastic fibers, but is also in microorganisms as a virulence factor for the invasion of tissues in our body in less time and in a more destructive way.

Francis grew some plants for a science experiment.the sketch of his experiment after several days is shown

Answers

Answer:

Phototropism

Explanation:

Answer:

a

Explanation:

Part A The Cell Theory states that:

Choose all that apply, and keep in mind that just because a statement is accurate does not necessarily make it a correct response to a question being asked. Choose all that apply, and keep in mind that just because a statement is accurate does not necessarily make it a correct response to a question being asked.

A. on early earth, the surface to volume ratio of the cell was much larger because the percent oxygen in the air was much less
B. all living things are composed of cells.
C. viruses are considered living things, but only in some cases
D. cells have more DNA in them in G2 than in G1
E. all cells arise from preexisting cells
F. the cell is the fundamental unit of life.
G. prions are living things

Answers

Answer:

The following statements are true and are relevant to The Cell Theory:

B. all living things are composed of cells.

E. all cells arise from preexisting cells

F. the cell is the fundamental unit of life.

Explanation:

Although lower percentage of atmospheric oxygen in earlier times (220 million years ago) is true, it is not possible that the ratio was "much larger" than what it is today.

Option C is correct but not pertinent to the cell theory. Viruses are considered as living things once they are inside a host.

G1 and G2 are growth phases and have the same amount of DNA in them. It is during the mitotic phase that the DNA is increased. Hence, option D is incorrect.

Option G is false as well. Prions are not considered as living things, they are just proteins that can cause infections.

Hope that answers the question, have a great day!

In superheroes, the ability to Fly (F) is dominant over not being able to fly (f). Superman can fly (Ff) (he has one dominant and one recessive trait). He marries Storm (from the X-men) who also has one dominant and one recessive trait (Ff), and can fly.

Answers

Answer:

Probability that the descendents are able to fly: 3/4Probability that the descendents are not able to fly: 1/4

Explanation:

The question is incomplete.

We can build a Punnett square to find the offspring and then determine the probability that the descendents inherit the ability to fly.

Superman's genotype: FfStorm's genotype: Ff

Write the columns and rows titles:

           F    f  ← Superman's genes

   F

   f

   ↑

Storm's genes

Fill in the cells with the possible combinations:

           F    f

F         FF   Ff

f          Ff    ff

Homozygous FF:   1      can fly

Heterozygous Ff:  2      can fly

Homozygous ff:     1       cannot fly

                 Total:    4

Probabilities:

Homozygous FF:   1/4      can fly

Heterozygous Ff:  2/4      can fly

Homozygous ff:     1/4       cannot fly

                 

Able to fly: 1/4 + 2/4 = 3/4Not able to fly: 1/4

Since the ability to fly (F) is dominant, the heterozygous Ff descendents are able to fly. That is 3/4.

Only the homozygous ff are not able to fly. That is 1/4.

Cells only synthesize DNA from the 5′ to the 3′ end, and since double-stranded DNA is complementary, both strands cannot be replicated in the same way. How do cells handle this situation? View Available Hint(s) Cells only synthesize DNA from the 5′ to the 3′ end, and since double-stranded DNA is complementary, both strands cannot be replicated in the same way. How do cells handle this situation? The lagging strand is not synthesized at this point. The lagging strand must be synthesized in smaller units that are ultimately attached by the action of DNA ligase. Okazaki fragments are synthesized from both the leading and lagging strands. The lagging strand undergoes a conformational change to make a hairpin structure, which allows DNA synthesis in the proper order.

Answers

Answer:

The lagging strand undergoes a conformational change to make a hairpin structure, which allows DNA synthesis in the proper order.

The lagging strand must be synthesized in smaller units that are ultimately attached by the action of DNA ligase.

Explanation:

For DNA synthesis to occur on the lagging template strand, the lagging template strand is oriented in such a way that it forms an hairpin structure with the SSB proteins still in place.

This allows the structure to be in corformation with the rest replisome machinery and also allow the synthesis of DNA in the 5'-3' direction forming okazaki fragments in a discontinous backstitching mechanism which are then sealed toghether by the enzyme Ligase.

during photosynthesis,energy from sunlight is used to start a reaction. And water.

Answers

Answer:

Photosynthesis uses light energy to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen gas

Explanation:

Each molecule of glucose essentially “stores” up to 38 molecules of ATP which can be broken down and used during other cellular reactions. ATP, or adenosine triphosphate, is the form of chemical energy cells use to function.

Answer:

1.carbon dioxide

2.glucose

3.oxygen

Explanation:

Sheep with the dominant wool color allele, W, are white, while sheep homozygous for the recessive allele w, are black. From a flock that is 50% black and 50% white, and at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, how many of the 200 lambs born next are black?2) Sheep with the dominant wool color allele, W, are white, while sheep homozygous for the recessive allele w, are black. From a flock that is 50% black and 50% white, and at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, how many of the 200 lambs born next are black?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

Hardy Weinberg equilibrium states that the frequency of alleles and genotypes in a population will remain constant in the absences of evolutionary disturbances such as mutation gene flow, natural selection, and with random mating and infinite population size

the equation for the law is

p² + 2pq + q² and p + q = 1

where p² represent frequency of the homozygous dominant genotype WW, 2pq represent frequency of the heterozygous dominant genotype Ww  and q² represent the frequency of the recessive genotype ww. Also p represent the frequency of the dominant alleles while q represent frequency of the recessive alleles.

50% are black from the flock

q² = 0.5, q = √ 0.5 = 0.7071 and p = 1 - 0.7071 = 0.293

out of the 200 lambs, 0.5 × 200 will be black = 100 black

while p² = 0.293² = 0.085849

population that will be homozygous white (WW) =  0.085849 × 200 = 17.17 approx 17

and population that will be heterozygous white ( Ww) = 2 × 0.298 × 0.7071 × 200 = 84.29 approx 84

What would be the most likely effect on the transcription of the trp structural genes for the mutation scenarios provided? mutation that prevents ribosome binding to the mRNA 5' UTR mutation that changes region 1 tryptophan codons into alanine codons mutation that creates a stop codon in region 1 of mRNA 5' UTR deletions in region 2 of the mRNA 5' UTR deletions in region 3 of the mRNA 5' UTR deletions in region 4 of the mRNA 5' UTR deletion of the string of adenine after region 4 of the mRNA 5' UTR

Answers

Answer:

I've responded to each scenario individually, please see below:

1. mutation that prevents ribosome binding to the mRNA

No transcription occurs

2. 5' UTR mutation that changes region 1 tryptophan codons into alanine codons

Transcription when alanine is low

3. mutation that creates a stop codon in region 1 of mRNA 5' UTR

Transcription occurs, a truncated protein will be made during translation

4. deletions in region 2 of the mRNA 5' UTR

Transcription occurs, region 1 and 2 might get paired together

5. deletions in region 3 of the mRNA 5' UTR

Transcription occurs, region 3 and 4 could combine to form a hairpin loop structure

6. deletions in region 4 of the mRNA 5' UTR

Transcription occurs, region 3 and 4 could combine to form a hairpin loop structure

7. deletion of the string of adenine after region 4 of the mRNA 5' UTR

Transcription occurs, however, it will not be as stable a molecule because of losing its polyA tail

Hope that answers the question, have a great day!

Answer:

Explanation:

Trp structural genes are the genes that make up the trp operon. This operon encodes genes that leads to the production of enzymes that aids in the synthesis of tryptophan. the operon is made up of five structural gens, trp A, B, C, D, E. Attenuation is a mechanism that causes premature termination of transcription of the trp operon when tryptophan is abundant.

Mutation that prevents ribosome binding to the mRNA: Transcription of the trp structural genes will not occur. there will be no gene expression will occur.

5' UTR mutation that changes region 1 tryptophan codons into alanine codons: If alanine codons have replaced tryptophan codons, then under conditions of low alanine, the stalling of the ribosome will not occur. The attenuator will form, stopping transcription.

mutation that creates a stop codon in region 1 of mRNA: this will cause the ribosomes to stall there and transcription will not proceed because the attenuator can be formed.

5' UTR deletions in region 2 of the mRNA: If region 2 of the mRNA 5' UTR is deleted, the antiterminator cannot be formed thus allowing formation of the attenuator and transcription stops.

Deletions in region 3 of the mRNA 5'UTR : Attenuation will not occur, and transcription of the trp structural genes will proceed.

Deletions in region 4 of the mRNA 5'UTR : There will be no formation of the attenuator by the 5' UTR mRNA. Transcription will proceed.  

Deletion of the string of adenine nucleotides that follows region 4 in the 5'UTR: No termination will occur because for the attenuator to function as a terminator, it requires uracil nucleotides and not adenine following region 4 in the mRNA 5' UTR.  

Why do some pigments travel faster along the chromatography strip than others ?

Answers

Answer:

Some pigments dissolve in water easier and are pulled with the water farther up the paper.

Others are more attracted to the paper and move more slowly. Usually smaller molecules will move farther than larger ones.

Some of the pigments travel briskly along the chromatography strip in comparison to others based upon their solubility. The more soluble the pigment is the more it will travel, and vice versa.

What is the concept of chromatography?

An analytical technique, which is generally used to separate a mixture of chemical substances into its individual constituents based upon their solubility is known as chromatography.

One of the method of chromatography is paper chromatography, in which the substances like chromatography strip is used to separate molecules based upon their different solubilities. One can separate the sample of dissolved pigments with the help of chromatography strip.

In the process, the solvent carries the dissolved pigments as it moves up the paper. In the process, the separation of pigments  takes place on the basis of their distinct solubilities in a solvent. The pigments mediates at distinct rates due to their distinct solubility. The most soluble pigment will travel the greatest distance, and a pigment, which is less soluble will move a shorter distance.

Thus, some of the pigments travel faster along the chromatography strip based upon their solubilities.

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Which of the following statements is correct? Which of the following statements is correct? The heart is ventral to the breastbone. The heart is posterior to the spine. The breastbone is posterior to the spine. The breastbone is ventral to the spine

Answers

Answer:

The correct is, the breastbone is anterior (ventral) to the spine.

Explanation:

1. Anterior;  it means that something is towards the front of the body or is more towards the front of the body than something else.  

2.  Posterior: the word posterior means that something is towards the back of the body or more towards the back of the body than another thing when comparing two different structures.

For example, our breastbone, is anterior to our spine, and our spine is posterior to our breastbone, since the breastbone is towards the front of our body and the spine is toward the back of our body.

Final answer:

The correct statement is: 'The heart is ventral to the breastbone'. 'Ventral' refers to the front side of the body. Therefore, the heart is located in front of the breastbone. Other statements are incorrect based on anatomical orientations.

Explanation:

The correct statement is: 'The heart is ventral to the breastbone'. In anatomical terminology, 'ventral' refers to the front side of the body.

Therefore, when you say the heart is ventral to the breastbone, you're saying the heart is located in front of the breastbone (or sternum), which is correct. The heart is not posterior (behind) the spine as the heart is located in between the lungs, slightly towards the left.

Similarly, the breastbone is not posterior to the spine, but is in front of it. So, it is not correct to say 'The breastbone is ventral to the spine' as the breastbone is dorsal (towards the back) to the spine.

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Next, can you identify what the source is trying to accomplish by providing this information? As you listen to the podcast, think about what the doctor's agenda might be with regard to head injuries.a. to elicit donations to a brain injury foundationb. to inform the public about brain injuriesc. to convince the public that contact sports should be avoidedd. to sell a treatment for brain injuries

Answers

Answer:

b. to inform the public about brain injuries

Explanation:

A podcast is an audio file available on the internet for download. Most doctors are usually more concerned with sensitization of the public about certain diseases and conditions to prevent death.

In this case, the doctor educates people about the symptoms and causes of the brain injuries so they can be on a decline.

A scientist wants to turn a group of specialized cells into stem cells. Which type of cell should be choose?

Answers

Answer: I’m pretty sure it’s stem Cells
Explanation: Why do scientists want to use stem cell lines?
Once a stem cell line is established from a cell in the body, it is essentially immortal, no matter how it was derived. That is, the researcher using the line will not have to go through the rigorous procedure necessary to isolate stem cells again. Once established, a cell line can be grown in the laboratory indefinitely and cells may be frozen for storage or distribution to other researchers.

Stem cell lines grown in the lab provide scientists with the opportunity to "engineer" them for use in transplantation or treatment of diseases. For example, before scientists can use any type of tissue, organ, or cell for transplantation, they must overcome attempts by a patient's immune system to reject the transplant. In the future, scientists may be able to modify human stem cell lines in the laboratory by using gene therapy or other techniques to overcome this immune rejection. Scientists might also be able to replace damaged genes or add new genes to stem cells in order to give them characteristics that can ultimately treat diseases.

To revert specialized cells to stem cells, induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs) technology is utilized, where adult cells are genetically reprogrammed to a pluripotent state.

To turn specialized cells back into stem cells, a scientist should use methodologies to create induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs). iPSCs are genetically reprogrammed adult cells that regain pluripotency, which means they can differentiate into any cell type from the three germ layers. There are several types of stem cells used in research, including embryonic stem cells (pluripotent) and adult stem cells (multipotent). However, iPSCs provide a unique advantage as they can be created from the patient's own specialized cells, which potentially reduces the risk of rejection if used for therapeutic purposes.

An essential step in creating iPSCs involves reprogramming the specialized cells by introducing factors that reset their gene expression profiles. This process makes the cells revert to a state similar to that of embryonic stem cells. In the laboratory, iPSCs are then grown under specific conditions that allow them to maintain their undifferentiated state or to be differentiated into the desired specialized cell type.

the green-nose fly normally has six chromosomes: two metacentric and four acrocentric. A geneticist examines the chromosomes of an odd-looking green-nose fly and discovers that it has only five chromosomes; three of them are metacentric and two are acrocentric. Explain how this change in chromosome number might have taken place.

Answers

Answer:

Robertsonian fusion

Explanation:

The Robertsonian (Rb) fusion is a type of chromosome rearrangement that involves the centric fusion of two acrocentric chromosomes to give rise to a metacentric. The normal chromosome number was six with two metacentri which increased to three in the odd looking fly and also the acrocentric which reduced from four to two.

Thus, it can be suggested that two of the four acrocentric chromosomes have fused either by telomere inactivation or loss in the process of Rb fusion reducing the number of acrocenric chromosomes and then produced a metacentric increasing the number of metacentrics.

Final answer:

The change in chromosome number in the green-nose fly to five chromosomes is due to Robertsonian fusion, where two acrocentric chromosomes fuse to form a single metacentric chromosome. This alteration can lead to evolutionary changes and possibly speciation over time.

Explanation:

The change in chromosome number in the odd-looking green-nose fly from six chromosomes (two metacentric and four acrocentric) to five chromosomes (three metacentric and two acrocentric) can be explained by a phenomenon known as Robertsonian fusion. This kind of chromosomal alteration happens when two acrocentric chromosomes fuse at their centromeres to form a single metacentric chromosome. Since acrocentric chromosomes have one long and one very short arm, and the short arms often contain non-essential genetic material, their loss during the fusion process does not impact the fly's viability. The occurrence of Robertsonian fusion could lead to a reduction in the total number of chromosomes, as seen in this mutated fly, without necessarily losing much genetic information.

This modification in chromosome structure is a type of chromosomal rearrangement that can alter the appearance and possibly the behavior of the organism. It is important in evolutionary biology, as such changes can lead to reproductive isolation and speciation over time, especially in populations that are allopatric, or geographically isolated from one another. Thus, the presence of an odd-numbered chromosome arrangement in a single green-nose fly could signify an early stage in a process that might lead to significant genetic divergence from the 'normal' population.

What type of cell would meosis occur?

Answers

Answer:takes place in the cell nuclei of eukaryotic cells that are related to reproduction. Cells not associated with reproduction are called somatic cells, and cells associated with reproduction are known as gamete cells.

Explanation:

it's true

The correct spelling would be meiosis, but it would occur in the diploid cell.

Bio Stuff. PLeae help

Answers

The answer should be the third option. Both alleles are present at the same time so they show co-dominance.
Is the Third option

A crystal contains a radioactive isotope that has a half-life of 20,000 years. You analyze a sample and find that one-eighth of the isotope remains (12.5%). How old is the sample? How many half-lives have passed?

Answers

Every 20,000 years, the amount is halved.
If you see that it is one eighth, that means it halved three times.
So, three half lives passed.
One half life is 20,000 years.
Three half lives is 60,000 years.

Every 20,000 years, the amount is halved. If you see that it is one eighth, that means it halved three times. So, three half lives passed. One half life is 20,000 years. Three half lives is 60,000 years.

What are isotopes?

Isotopes are defined as two or more parts or the type of common element that have proper or same number of protons but simuntaneously the number of neutrons in their nuclei is not same, therefore they have totally different atomic mass but the chemical properties are same in an element which is in radioactive form.

Spectroscopy is known as the study that include the detail knowledge as well as observation of absorption and emission of radiation and light by matter. The main procedure or purpose of the spectroscopy is splitting of light into its particular wavelength, which process is same as prism and the procedure like prism splits light into a rainbow of colours.

Therefore, Every 20,000 years, the amount is halved. If you see that it is one eighth, that means it halved three times. So, three half lives passed. One half life is 20,000 years. Three half lives is 60,000 years.

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Which is a way digestion differ from humans?

Answers

Answer:

the main difference between the human and cow digestive system is that cows have a ruminant ... In this way, the kangaroo always has sharp teeth up front.

Explanation:

which statement best describes vascular tissue in seed plants xylem carries food produced by the leaves to the rest of the plant xylem carries food produced by the roots to the rest of plant xylem carries water and nutrients from the leaves the rest the plant xylem carries water and nutrients from the roots to the rest of the plant

Answers

Answer:

The statement that best describes the vascular tissue in seed plants is that xylem carries water and nutrients from the roots to the rest of the plant.

Explanation:

Xylem corresponds to the tissue of the vascular plants that is responsible for the transport and distribution of liquids necessary for their development.

The main function of xylem is to carry water, mineral salts and other nutrients -in the form of raw sap- from the root to the whole plant, forming a network similar to the circulatory system of higher animals.

Answer:

D) xylem carries water and nutrients from the roots to the rest of the plant

Explanation:

Pleaes help. Bio stuff

Answers

Answer:

Blue eyes

Explanation:

The punnet square would depict two heterozygous parents for brown eyes (Bb)

[tex]\left[\begin{array}{ccc}BB&Bb&\\Bb&bb\\\end{array}\right][/tex]

The punnet square would look like that, which shows the genotype for each offspring.

The genotype bb is responsible for the phenotype blue eyes

During which months do both the Northern and Southern Hemispheres receive the same amount of energy from the Sun?

Answers

They recive the most in July and June

Identify true statements about the synthesis of various lipids.
a. Triacylglycerols are synthesized by adding fatty acid groups to a glycerol backbone.
b. The triacylglycerol biosynthetic pathway provides the precursors for the synthesis of glycerophospholipids.
c. Glycerophospholipids may be synthesized from diacylglycerols.
d. Triacylglycerols are synthesized by adding ketone bodies to a glycerol backbone.
e. Arachidonate is a precursor in the synthesis of prostaglandins.
f. The glycerophospholipid biosynthetic pathway provides precursors for the synthesis of triacylglycerols.

Answers

Final answer:

In lipid synthesis, triacylglycerols are formed by adding fatty acids to a glycerol backbone, not ketone bodies. Glycerol-3-phosphate, the starting molecule in triacylglycerol synthesis, is also a precursor for glycerophospholipid synthesis. Diacylglycerols can form glycerophospholipids, and arachidonate is a precursor for prostaglandins. The glycerophospholipid biosynthetic pathway does not provide precursors for triacylglycerol synthesis.

Explanation:

The synthesis of various lipids encompasses diverse processes.

a. The statement 'Triacylglycerols are synthesized by adding fatty acid groups to a glycerol backbone' is true. Fatty acids are attached to a glycerol backbone to form triacylglycerols.

b. The statement 'The triacylglycerol biosynthetic pathway provides the precursors for the synthesis of glycerophospholipids' is true. Glycerol-3-phosphate, the starting molecule in triacylglycerol synthesis, is also a precursor for glycerophospholipid synthesis.

c. The statement 'Glycerophospholipids may be synthesized from diacylglycerols' is true. Diacylglycerols can be further modified to form glycerophospholipids.

d. The statement 'Triacylglycerols are synthesized by adding ketone bodies to a glycerol backbone' is false. Triacylglycerols are not formed by adding ketone bodies to a glycerol backbone; they're formed by adding fatty acids.

e. The statement 'Arachidonate is a precursor in the synthesis of prostaglandins' is true. Arachidonic acid is indeed a precursor for eicosanoid molecules, including prostaglandins.

f. The statement 'The glycerophospholipid biosynthetic pathway provides precursors for the synthesis of triacylglycerols' is false. It's actually the triacylglycerol biosynthetic pathway that provides precursors for the synthesis of glycerophospholipids, not the other way around.

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Ear lobes in people may be free hanging or completely attached to the side of the face. This is determined by a single gene locus; the free hanging allele, E, is dominant and the attached allele (e) is recessive.A person has the heterozygous genotype Ee. With respect to this gene locus, how many kinds of gametes, eggs or sperm, will this person produce? What will the percent or frequency of each kind of gamete be out of the total possible?A man and a woman who are both heterozygous for ear lobe condition have children. What is the probability that a child will have free ear lobes? What is the probability that a child will have attached ear lobes?A man with attached ear lobes and a woman with free ear lobes have three children; two have free ear lobes and one has attached ear lobes.What is the man’s genotype?What is the woman’s genotype?What are the genotypes of the three children?

Answers

Answer and explanation:

This person can produce two types of gametes, E and e, each one in the same proportion (50 % or 1/2)

It is expected that a monohybrid cross between two heterozygotes for this gene produces a 1 (homozygous dominant) : 2 (heterozygous) : 1 (homozygous recessive) genotype ratio. Since E allele is dominant, it is expected a phenotype ratio of 3 : 1

Answer:

See the answer below

Explanation:

Free hanging ear lobe's allele = E

Attached ear lobe's allele = e

E is dominant over e.

A heterozygous person with Ee genotype will produce E and e egg/sperm during gametogenesis.

      E gamete = 50%

       e gamete = 50%

    2. A man and a woman both heterozygous for earlobe

         Ee   x   Ee

        Offspring = EE, 2Ee, ee

         Probability of a child having free ear lobe = 3/4

         Probability of a child having attached earlobe = 1/4

    3. A man attached ear lobe with a woman with free earlobe produced     three children out of which two have free earlobes and one has attached ear lobes.

     Genotype of man with attached earlobe = ee

    Genotype of woman with free earlobes = Ee (since they produced both   free and attached earlobe children)

    ee   x   Ee

Genotype of children = Ee, ee, Ee and ee

   Ee = free earlobes

   ee = attached earlobe

Which occurs when air is compressed? A. Air temperature decreases. B. Air molecules move slower. C. Air temperature rises and air molecules move faster. D. Air temperature decreases and air molecules move faster.

Answers

Answer:

C. Air temperature rises and air molecules move faster.

A recessive trait will be observed in
individuals that are {________} for that trait.

Answers

Homozygous recessive

A recessive trait will be observed in individuals that are homozygous for that trait.

A recessive trait will be observed in individuals who are homozygous, meaning they have two identical copies of the recessive allele. Heterozygous individuals, who carry one recessive and one dominant allele, will not show the trait but can pass the allele to their offspring. This means the individual has inherited two identical copies of the recessive allele, and no dominant allele is present to mask the expression of the recessive character. Individuals who are heterozygous carry one recessive and one dominant allele, but they typically do not exhibit the recessive trait because the dominant allele overpowers the recessive.

For example, in the case of sickle cell anemia, a person with two copies of the sickle cell allele will exhibit the disease, whereas someone with one sickle cell allele and one normal allele will not develop the disease but will be a carrier. Carriers have the potential to pass the recessive allele to their offspring. Recessive genetic disorders require both parents to be carriers, increasing the chance that offspring will receive both recessive alleles and express the trait.

An orange tree is an example of a because it contains seeds in fruit.

Answers

Answer:

flowering plant

Explanation:

Answer:

Flowering plant

Explanation:

It contains seeds in the fruit.

In which process does RNA polymerase help synthesize mRNA from a DNA template?

Answers

RNA polymerase synthesizes mRNA from a DNA template in a process called transcription, which takes place in several phases including initiation, elongation, and termination.

The process in which RNA polymerase helps synthesize mRNA from a DNA template is known as transcription. This process begins with the binding of RNA polymerase to a DNA promoter sequence. The DNA unwinds to form a transcription bubble, where the enzyme reads the template strand of the DNA from 3' to 5', while synthesizing the complementary mRNA strand in the 5' to 3' direction. RNA polymerase uses ribonucleotide triphosphates (rNTPs) to add new nucleotides to the growing RNA chain, and divalent metal ions like Mg2+ are necessary for the catalysis of this reaction. Transcription continues with the elongation phase where RNA polymerase keeps adding nucleotides to the 3' end of the growing strand until it reaches a terminator sequence that signals the end of transcription. The resulting mRNA then undergoes further processing and eventually exits the nucleus to be translated into a protein by ribosomes in the cytoplasm.

To determine how old Neandertal fossils are, researchers must use radiometric dating. They use an isotope with a half-life of 12,000 years, and find that fossils from one Neandertal have 1/256th (=1/28) of the isotope found in currently living organisms. How old would you predict these Neandertal fossils to be?

Answers

Final answer:

Using an isotope with a half-life of 12,000 years and calculating that the fossils have only 1/256th of the original isotopic amount, we can determine that the Neandertal fossils have undergone 8 half-lives, which equates to an age of 96,000 years.

Explanation:

To determine the age of the Neandertal fossils, researchers use radiometric dating techniques involving isotopes with known half-lives. In this case, the researchers are using an isotope with a half-life of 12,000 years. Since the fossils have 1/256th (which is 1/28) of the original isotopic concentration, this indicates that the fossils have undergone 8 half-lives. The age of the fossils can be calculated as follows:

Half-life of the isotope = 12,000 yearsNumber of half-lives (n) = 8Total age = Half-life × Number of half-lives (n)Total age = 12,000 years × 8 = 96,000 years

Therefore, we can predict that these Neandertal fossils are 96,000 years old.

. What are, and what are the distinguishing characters, of the two major groups of Protostomes? 2. Look at the phylogeny of the Lophotrochozoans. Identify the taxa possessing a lophophore. What does that imply about the evolution (loss or gain) of this trait?

Answers

Answer:

a)Lophotrochozoam

Many free living things larvaeSeveral groups has lophophoreNearly all animals are sessile adults

b)Ecdyozoams

Phyla where the organisms molt their outer layer for growth.

Formulate a research question that could be posed by researchers while studying and attempting to remediate Brown Marsh?

Answers

Answer:

To what extent is the chemical composition and other abiotic factors of Louisiana's waters contributing to the proliferation of Brown Marsh?

From the question above, we have factors that are identifiable as the object of the research.

They are:

The chemical composition of Louisiana's waters Other abiotic factors (that is other non-living factors)

The second option here, if it is too vast, may be limited by the researcher to a maximum of three factors to ensure that the research questions remains feasible.

Cheers!

Answer:

Answer is B What environmental factors caused certain wetlands plants to become stressed enough to die?

Explanation:

What environmental factors caused certain wetlands plants to become stressed enough to die? This is a start. Chances were it was not just one factor. Salinity may have played a role, but what else? In fact, they concluded that under severe drought conditions and other interacting factors, plants became stressed or died because of low soil moisture combined with physical and chemical changes in the soil that likely resulted in soil oxidation, soil acidification and metal toxicity. Somewhat elevated salinity and fungal pathogens may have played a secondary role in salt marsh dieback.

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