Answer: The answer is White Blood Cell (WBC) count 22.8/mm3
Explanation:
The nurse is to immediately report increase in the white blood cells. An elevated white blood cell count is a sign of infection. Since the pain is felt in the right lower quadrant it is safe to say it is a problem with the appendix as it is located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen. An elevated white blood cell count is a sign of infection because the body is releasing white blood cells to fight it off, this suggests a rupture of the client's appendix. The other options ; Hematocrit of 42%, serum potassium of 4.2 mEq/L, and serum sodium of 135 mEq/L are within normal limits and any alterations to them doesn't indicate appendicitis.
The normal White Blood Cell Count ranges between 4500-11,000/mm3
Quang and Nguyen are a married couple. They argue frequently and neither of them listens very well. Still, most of the time they get along well and neither has any thoughts of getting divorced. What term would John Gottman use to describe Quang and Nguyen?a. disengaged couple.b. fatuous couple.c. volatile couple.d. validating couple.
Answer:
c
Explanation:
The term volatile couple John Gottman utilized to describe Quang as well as Nguyen. The correct option is c.
What is volatile couple?Conflict avoiders avoid conflict at all costs, whereas volatile couples are almost extremely emotional.
They start persuading during a disagreement talk right away as well as maintain it throughout.
Quang and Nguyen fit John Gottman's definition of a "volatile relationship" based on the evidence provided.
This terminology renowned to relationships that are passionate and intense but also involve frequent arguments.
The majority of the time, Quang and Nguyen get along well, and neither of them has ever thought getting a divorce, which suggests that their relationship is not "disengaged" or "fatuous."
However, without more details, it is difficult to imply whether they are a "validating" couple who support and listen to one another.
Thus, the correct option is c.
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Which of these biomes receives the least amount of rainfall, and therefore has low primary production, nutrient-poor soil, and plant species that are adapted for water-storage? alpine savannah desert tundra chaparral
Answer:
tundra alpine chaparral
Explanation:
Mutation rates per nucleotide per replication:
- are higher in organisms with larger genomes
- are highest in viruses.
- are lower in organisms with larger genomes.
- are similar across all organisms.
- are highest in bacteria.
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-are highest in viruses.
Explanation:
The mutation is a change or alteration in the nucleotides of a DNA which is the coding molecule of the organisms. Mutations are known as the building blocks of the evolution which introduces variation upon which the natural selection act.
The mutation takes place in every organism on earth but the highest rate of mutation per nucleotide is observed in the RNA viruses which are involved with the adaptability and virulence. The mutation rate is million times higher than their hosts and a small increase in the mutation rate can make them extinct.
Thus, the selected option is the correct answer.
Mark is studying jellyfish in a small body of water. Mollusks are a primary food source for jellyfish, and a large number of mollusks have recently been harvested from the area. How will this impact the carrying capacity for the jellyfish?
Answer:
Carrying capacity for the jellyfish would reduce
Explanation:
Carrying capacity of a biological population in an ecosystem is the maximum number of population size the environment or habitat can conveniently cater for given the available resources such as, food, water supply, space etc.
The survival of the jelly fish largely in the small body of water would be largely dependent on how much food that is available.
The large number of mollusks harvested would reduce the available food in the small body of water, hence, reducing the carrying capacity for jellyfish.
The _____ of a species is usually the result of predation, competition, and other types of interaction between species. Please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button.
Answer:
Realized niche
Explanation:
Realized niche:
is a set of conditions used by specie after interactions such as competition, predation etc with other species. It can aslo be defined as the actual range of habitats occupied by a species
Ruth and Debbie are identical twins who were raised by the same family. Vince and Frankie are identical twins who were separated at birth and raised by different families. According to research on the heritability of personality traits, Ruth's and Debbie's personalities are statistically
A) more likely to be similar to one another than are Vince's and Frankie's personalities
B) likely to be as similar and dissimilar to one another as are Vince's and Frankie's personalities
C) more likely to be dissimilar to one another than are Vince's and Frankie's personalities
D) less likely to match on the personality dimensions of agreeableness and extraversion than are Vince and Frankie but not on other personality dimensions
E) less likely to match on the personality dimensions of openness and neuroticism than are Vince and Frankie but not on other personality dimensions
Answer:
B) likely to be as similar and dissimilar to one another as are Vince's and Frankie's personalities
Explanation:
The heritability of a trait indicates in what proportion the genes are giving rise to the differences between individuals. It indicates what percentage of the variation in the aspects of two individuals (in this case of personality) is due to genetic causes.
A high percentage of heritability indicates that in the variation of the trait the genes have prominence while a low percentage of heritability indicates that the environment is mainly involved.
The heritability of personality traits are around 40% to 50%. This indicates that the variation between the personality of two individuals is 40 to 50% attributed to genetic factors. The non-shared environmental factors would be 30% and those shared around 20% or less.
40-50% of heritability is not telling us that there is a 50% chance of inheriting the personality or that we will share 50% of our personality with our parents, but that it indicates that when a person has a certain personality and another on the contrary (so to speak), most of that change is due to genetic issues and the minority due to environmental issues shared and not shared.
Final answer:
Identical twins have more similar personalities than fraternal twins due to their strong genetic similarity, supported by research such as the Minnesota Study of Twins Reared Apart.
Explanation:
Identical twins, even when raised apart, tend to have very similar personalities due to their strong genetic similarity. This is supported by research such as the Minnesota Study of Twins Reared Apart, which highlighted the influence of genetics on personality traits. Fraternal twins, with lesser genetic similarity, show less personality resemblance even when raised together.
A circular bit of DNA that replicates independent of a bacterium’s chromosome is called a /an _____. It has been used to slip a non-bacterial gene into a bacterium, which will cause the bacterium to make a chemical that we want?
Answer:
The correct answer will be-Plasmid
Explanation:
Plasmids are the extra-circular chromosomal segments present in the bacteria which provides very important functions to the bacteria.
The plasmid contains many important genes like the gene to provide resistance against antibiotics and genes for transfer to other bacteria and many others.
The plasmid contains their own origin of replication due to which they can replicate on their own irrespective of the replication of the circular bacterial chromosome.
Thus, the plasmid is the correct answer.
Which regions of the brain stem carries one-way communications that advise the cerebellum of voluntary motor activities initiated by the motor cortex?
Answer:
pons
Explanation:
The pons are the portion of the brain stem that is located between the medulla and the midbrain. Its function is to connect the spinal cord and spinal bulb with superior structures such as the hemispheres of the brain or cerebellum.
Aminoglycosides A) interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan. B) are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis. C) attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis. D) damage cell membranes. E) block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules.
Answer:
The correct answer is C) attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis.
Explanation:
Aminoglycosides are the bactericidal drug which kills the bacteria by stopping the protein synthesis in bacteria. This drug binds to the 30S subunit of bacterial ribosome and cause the misreading of the codon sequence present on mRNA.
This misreading of the mRNA sequence results in the incorporation of the different and wrong amino acids in the polypeptide chain which disrupts protein synthesis. As only bacteria, not humans have 30S ribosomal subunit therefore it does not affect human cells.
So the correct answer is C) attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis.
Consider a Kirby-Bauer disk-diffusion assay. If you put penicillin and streptomycin disks adjacent to one another, the zone of inhibition is greater than that obtained by either disk alone. This is an example of __________.
a.RNA interference
b.mutual exclusion
c.synergism
d.antagonism
Answer:
This is an example of synergism.
Explanation:
synergism is the motion of two or more than two trans- acting agents that given at a same time which is greater than the sum of activity had those agents if given separately. They are steroid receptors, which acts as response for saturating concentration of the steroids. The synergism of the steroid receptors among themselves or with anti-infective factors at saturating concentration of steroid has showed to be very important component for steroid regulated gene transcription.
The subsections of a myofibril that perform muscle contraction are called
Answer:
Sarcomere
Explanation:
The sarcomere is the smallest contractile unit of muscle. It extends from one Z disc to the next and therefore, is the region between two consecutive Z discs. It contains an A band flanked by half an I band at each end. Contraction of a muscle fiber occurs as the sarcomeres within the myofibrils shorten. During the shortening of the sarcomere, the thin actin filaments slide past the thick myosin filaments and approach one another. The resultant shortening of the I band and complete disappearance of H zone cause contraction of muscle fiber.
Damage to which regions of the brain would be the most life-threatening? Explain your answer.
Answer:
Brain stem
Explanation:
Brain stem is a stem-like structure. It is a part of the base of the brain which is joined to the spinal cord.
Brain stem includes midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata It controls essential functions of the body which are important for the life.
The important functions of the human body controlled by brainstem are breathing, swallowing, heart rate, blood pressure, consciousness.
Therefore, damage of the brain stem would be the most life-threatening.
Answer:
Brain stem.
Explanation:
Brain stem may be defined as the base of the brain that are directly connected to the spinal cord. Pons, medulla oblongata and midbrain is included in the brain stem.
The damage or any injury in the brain stem can be life threatening because the message flow between the brain and body part is controlled by the brain stem. The basic body functions like heart rate, blood pressure, movement and breathing is controlled by the brain stem.
Thus, the correct answer is brain stem.
Which statement is not true regarding substrate channeling?
a. It makes the kinetics of the complex so rapid as to prevent it from being the rate‑limiting step(s) of a pathway
b. It prevents intermediates from feeding into other pathways
c. It increases the local concentration of substrates
d. It prevents intermediates from diffusing away from the active sites
Answer:
It makes the kinetics of the complex so rapid as to prevent it from being the rate-limiting step(s) of a pathway is not true regarding substrate channelling
Explanation:
Substrate channelling is the transfer of transitional metabolic products of one enzyme straightly to other enzyme or any active site without its release into solution.The metabolic pathway can be made more rapid and also efficient than it would actually be through channelling if enzymes could have been randomly designed. It occurs in many ways like in pyruvate dehydrogenase complex may be tryptophan synthase or can be dihydrofolate reductase thymidylate synthase.
Your next door neighbor has been working outside all day on a project in her backyard. When you go over to visit her, you find her sitting outside on a lawn chair. She seems to be disoriented and has rapid, shallow breathing. Her skin is also bright red and hot to the touch. Which of the following might you suspect?
Answer:
Heat Stroke.
Explanation:
Those seem like heat stroke symptoms, especially since she was out there all day. I hope that's one of your options!
Answer:She is out of breath.
Explanation:She was workingvery long and it is hot outside.
Regulation of gene expression helps organisms adjust to their environment. Single-celled organisms are directly exposed to their environment when it changes. In terms of regulation of gene expression, how do these single-celled organisms deal with their changing environments?
Answer:
To deal with their changing environments, the single-celled organisms develop adaptation mechanisms.
Explanation:
All cells have the means to adapt to the changes that occur in their surrounding space, especially since this changes all the time.
In order to realize these changes, each cell had to produce a modification in its biochemical composition. Among them are the changes produced in the enzymatic molecules, either in their activities or in the rates of synthesis of the new molecules.
Initially, the detection of changes in the environment was detected within each cell, allowing the detected chemicals to bind directly to the proteins found in the cells, allowing them to modify their activity.
Later, more mechanisms were developed to recognize these changes, without the need for chemicals to enter the cell.
But this time, it was the proteins that joined the chemicals, and this caused the structure of the protein to change.
All multicellular organisms began being single-celled, where they only interacted with each other to compete for resources. But then they evolved to form colonies, which contained cells that interacted together being differentiated cells.
Through this process, the cells were able to create responses to changes in the environment and through complex gene expression processes they will be able to form a complex organism.
Describe the physiological events occurring in the heart muscle represented by each ECG component (the P wave, QRS complex, and T wave). Why does the QRS complex have the largest amplitude?
Explanation:
The P wave represents the atrial depolarization (sum of the right and left atriums) and the atrial contraction. In normal circumstances, the P wave is smooth and rounded (<2.5 mm) and no more than 0.12 seconds in duration. It's the first positive deflection (you can see this in the image I added)QRS complex can include the Q wave, R wave, and S wave, but there are exceptions. It represents the electrical impulse through the ventricles causing the ventricular depolarization. Its amplitude is the largest because ventricles are the chambers with the largest mass in the heart and it has a duration of 0.06-0.10 seconds in adults.The T wave is the positive deflection that follows the QRS complex, it represents the ventricular repolarization. It is slightly asymmetric (peak closer to its end). Normally this wave follows the QRS complex's direction, if this doesn't happen, it's reflecting a cardiac pathology.Final answer:
The P wave represents atrial depolarization and contraction. The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization and contraction with the largest amplitude. The T wave represents ventricular repolarization and relaxation.
Explanation:
The physiological events occurring in the heart muscle represented by each ECG component are as follows:
P wave: Represents the depolarization of the atria, which leads to atrial contraction.
QRS complex: Represents the depolarization of the ventricles, which leads to ventricular contraction. The QRS complex has the largest amplitude because the ventricular cardiac muscle is larger and requires a stronger electrical signal.
T wave: Represents the repolarization of the ventricles, which marks the beginning of ventricular relaxation.
1
The sarcomere shortens when the myosin heads of the thick filaments. True or false
Answer:
True
Explanation:
A muscle tissue get shortened only when the sarcomere changes structurally. Myosin form cross bridges with the actin as they head towards the thick filament. Myosin then pulls the thin filaments and shortens the sarcomeres thereby shortening the skeletal muscles. This process continues till the active sites on actin remain exposed and there is ample availability of calcium ion and ATP.
Hence, the given statement is true
What is the significance of the evolution of hox gene clusters during vertebrate evolution?
Answer:
Explanation:
The hox gene provides a huge amount of important information about evolution. Hox genes duplication made increased morphological complexity possible triggering the formation of neural crest cells and allowed them to disperse throughout the body, forming a variety of structures. They help lay out the basic body forms of many animals including humans, flies and worms.
Hox gene clusters have played a pivotal role in vertebrate evolution by dictating the body plan of organisms. The multiplication of these gene clusters in vertebrates allowed for the development of complex body types, influencing major evolutionary steps such as the emergence of quadrupeds and the amniotic egg.
Explanation:The evolution of Hox gene clusters has played a significant role during vertebrate evolution. Hox genes encode protein transcription factors and serve as 'master control genes,' influencing the development and placement of structures in an organism. They help dictate the body plan including the number and placement of appendages and head-tail directionality.
In vertebrates, there are multiple Hox gene clusters that have an influence on their complex body plans. Remarkably, the arrangement of these genes reflects the anterior-posterior axis of the animal's body. This arrangement has been maintained from the point of a common ancestor, explaining the similar embryonic development observed across different species.
Changes in Hox genes and their clusters facilitate evolutionary variations. It is suggested that the quadruplication of the basic chordate genome, including Hox gene loci, was an important factor driving vertebrate evolution. The increased number of Hox genes in vertebrates allowed for more complex body types to evolve, leading to major innovations including the emergence of quadrupeds and the amniotic egg.
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In cats, black fur color is caused by an X-linked allele; the other allele at this locus causes orange color. The heterozygote is tortoiseshell. What kinds of offspring would you expect from the cross of a black female and an orange male?
A. black females; orange males
B. orange females; black males
C. orange females; orange males
D. tortoiseshell females; black males
E. tortoiseshell females; tortoiseshell males
Tortoiseshell females; black males are the kinds of offspring that I would expect from the cross of a black female and an orange male.
Explanation:
In the above question the cats of black for is caused by an allele which is linked in x. Also, we get to know that the zygote is heterozygote and it is of tortoise cell. The offspring contains the father of tortoise shell in females because of the xx zygote and the main contains black for because of the xy zygote.
It is known as dominance of the traits over the recessive traits. It also occurs in all the human beings and animals. The trait which is dominant is shown in the offspring and the trait which is recessive gets hidden. It can also be calculated through Punnett square.
Can proteins in the plasma membrane move around the membrane? Why is this characteristic beneficial to the cell?
Answer:
Yes they can
Explanation:
Based on the fluid mosaic model of the lipidic bilayer of the membranes we know that proteins embedded in it have the ability to undergo translational diffusion. Membrane fluidity is important to the cell because is associated to transport rates, it can respond to the necessities of the organism, for example, in some organisms this fluidity can be modified by temperature stress or according to their nutrient necessities.
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Which of the following choices lists the organs of the bird digestive system in the correct order, from first to last contact with food material? Which of the following choices lists the organs of the bird digestive system in the correct order, from first to last contact with food material? esophagus, crop, gizzard, stomach, intestine, anus esophagus, stomach, gizzard, crop, intestine, anus esophagus, crop, stomach, gizzard, intestine, anus esophagus, gizzard, crop, stomach, intestine, anus
Answer:
Esophagus, crop, stomach, gizzard, intestine, anus.
Explanation:
The digestive system of the bird has undergone various modification to adapt the aerial mode of life. The bird do not perform eating as shown by the humans and shows active foraging in the morning.
Esophagus is reduced and connected to the crop. The crop is like a muscular pouch. The food then passes to the stomach and further digestion occur. The partially digested food moves to the gizzard. The gizzard contain four muscular band. Final digestion and absorption occur in the small intestine. The waste material is excreted out through anus.
Thus, the correct answer is option (3).
Answer:
Esophagus, crop, stomach, gizzard, intestine, anus.
Explanation:
Which of the following would not be classified as an arthropod? Please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. giant clam centipede deer tick jumping spider spider crab
Answer:
The correct answer is giant clam.
Explanation:
Clams are not arthropods, they're actually mollusks, specifically bivalves. All of the other options classify as arthropods, even the crabs, that also are arthropods. Also, the spiders are arthropods, although they're not hexapods. Therefore, clams are the only individuals that don't belong to the arthropods.
Identify the fluid filled space between the cornea and iris
Answer:
Anterior chamber.
Explanation:
Anterior chamber fluid filled space between the cornea inner most surface called as endothelium and iris inside the eye. Cornea is the transparent, outer, and dome like structure. Its helping in to cover iris, anterior chamber, and pupil. Iris is coloured, flat, and ring shaped membrane present behind the cornea along with pupil in the center of the eye.
Anterior chamber is filled with the fluid which is called as an aqueous humor. It is produced by the capillary body alongside the lens. The fluid first passes between the lenses and iris known as posterior chamber, and then with the help of pupil into the anterior part of the eye.
The space between the cornea and iris, also known as the anterior chamber, is a part of the anterior cavity of the eye and is filled with a fluid called aqueous humor.
Explanation:The fluid-filled space between the cornea and the iris of the eye is called the anterior cavity. This cavity is filled with a watery fluid known as aqueous humor. The eye is divided into two major compartments: the anterior and the posterior cavity. The posterior cavity is located behind the lens, extending to the retina, and is filled with a more viscous fluid called the vitreous humor. To specify, the portion of the anterior cavity between the cornea and the iris is referred to as the anterior chamber.
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In both mitochondria and chloroplasts, ATP synthesis is coupled to electron transport. Which one of the following is likely to affect the coupling of electron transport to ATP synthesis in both of these systems?
A) the absence of light
B) the removal of oxygen
C) leucinostatin, an ATP synthase inhibitor
D) a photosystem II inhibitor
Answer:B- Removal of oxygen.
Explanation:
This is because oxygen is the final acceptor of electrons in the process of ATPs synthesis called CHEMIOSMOSIS in both mitochondrial and chloroplast. In its absence Electron transport chain will take not place because NAD+ will not be regenerated to supply energy for ETC and therefore no ATP synthesis.
As electron moves from a protein carrier at a higher energy level to another one at lower energy level in the thylakoids membranes of chloroplasts and inner mitochondrial membranes of mitochondrial; ENERGY is released. Part of this energy is used to pump H+ /protons from the inner membrane of mitochondrial and thylakoid membranes of chloroplast into the outer Cytosols. The proton were produced from the splitting of hydrogen atoms attached to the coenzymes NADH+ (oxidation of NADH+ to NAD+) and FADH
Continuous pumping of these ions from constant supply of energy by electron movement uphill and downhill, created higher concentration gradients of hydrogen ions in the Cytosols compared to inner stroma of chloroplasts and matrix of mitochondria
These higher concentration gradients drive down protons along the protein channels for hydrogen ions to reach ATPase synthase. ( protein that transfer energy from hydrogen ions for ATPs synthesis) it is located in the hydrogen ions channels.
It catalysis the reaction or phosphorylation of inorganic phosphate with Adenosine diphosphates to form adenosine triphosphate.
(Adenosine diphosphates)ADP + ( Pi ) inorganic phosphate ---- > ATP (adenosine triphosphate.) .
Oxygen on reaching the final protein carrier, it picks up proton, and electron to form water ,end of cellular respiration.
In the absence of oxygen, electron transport chain cannot take place because no oxygen to accept the final electron, therefore no electron will be available for Electron transport chain to transport for ENERGY needed for pumping protons, As a result no ATP will be generated as shown above, since regeneration of NAD+ will be stopped.
Whose duties include operation of the National Response Coordination Center, the effective support of all Emergency Support Functions, and, more generally, preparation for, protection against, response to, and recovery from all-hazards incidents? A. Secretary of Homeland Security B. The President C. DHS Director of Operations Coordination D. FEMA Administrator
Answer:
The correct answer is D. FEMA Administrator.
Explanation:
The FEMA's (The Federal Emergency Management Agency) main purpose is to handle disasters that overcome the state's power. In this case, this agency includes the National Response Coordination Center and the Emergency Support Functions.
Answer:
The duties of operation of the National Response Coordination Center, the effective support of all Emergency Support Functions, and, more generally, preparation for, protection against, response to, and recovery from all-hazards incidents fall into:
A. Secretary of Homeland Security
Explanation:
The Fema Administrator is the direct coordinator of the National Response Coordination Center under FEMA command, However, they both are coordinated or commanded by the Secretary of homeland security. He is the one in charge to plan the project in which the federation of states will respond and be prepared for any hazard that might threaten the country. The defining factor for this answer is that the FEMA acts after one of the states have asked for help. While the secretary is constantly reacting to all problems.
Imagine a very large population of moths that is isolated from gene that you are studying flow. A single gene controls wing color) Half of the moths have white-spotted wings (genotype WW or Ww) and hàlf of the moths have plain brown wings (ww)./There are no new mutations, individuals mate randomly,/and there is no natural selection on wing color. How will p, the frequency of the dominant allele, phange over time? A. p will increase; the dominant allele will eventually take over and become most common in the population. B. p will neither increase nor decrease; it will remain more or less constant under the conditions described C. p will decrease because of genetic drift. D. p will increase initially, then decrease until the W allele vanishes from the population. E. p will fluctuate rapidly and randomly because of genetic drift.
Answer:
B. p will neither increase nor decrease; it will remain more or less constant under the conditions described
Explanation:
When a population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, it is not evolving and allele frequencies are not going to change across generations. Conditions for a population to be in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium are :
Infinite population sizeRandom matingNo selectionNo mutationNo gene flowSince the moth population in question shows above mentioned characteristics, it is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. Frequency of none of the alleles are going to change.
Hence, p will neither increase nor decrease; it will remain more or less constant under the conditions described.
If a true-breeding blue-flowered plant was crossed with a true-breeding white-flowered plant, what phenotypic ratio would we observe in the progeny resulting from this cross? Assume the white-flowered trait is completely dominant.A. 100 percent blueB. 100 percent whiteC. 75 percent blue, 25 percent whiteD. 100 percent light blueE. Not enough information is provided to answer this question.
Answer:
B. 100 percent white
Explanation:
According to Mendel's law of dominance, the dominant allele of a gene masks the expression of the recessive allele in a heterozygous state. Therefore, when two pure breeding plants that differ with respect to one genetic trait are crossed, the progeny expresses only the dominant phenotype. Here, one allele should be completely dominant over the other. The allele for the white flowers is completely dominant over the allele for the blue flowers.
Let' assume that the allele "W" imparts white color to the flowers while the allele "w" gives blue color. When a true-breeding blue-flowered plant (ww) is crossed with a true-breeding white-flowered plant (WW), the progeny would be heterozygous for the dominant allele "W" and would exhibit "white color of flowers" (the dominant trait).
WW (white-flowered plant) x ww (blue-flowered plant) = Ww (white-flowered plant)
Back on planet Palomar, you discover a new animal that you would like to classify. You find that the animal has three embryonic tissue layers, it has a body cavity that is not entirely line with mesoderm, and its mouth forms first during embryonic development. Which terms best describe this new animal?
a.Triploblastic, pseudocoelomate, protostome
b. Diploplastic, coelomate, protostome
c. Diploblastic, pseudocoelomate, deuterostome
d. Triploblastic, coelomate, protostome
Answer:
a:Triploblastic, pseudocoelomate, protostome
Explanation:
When it comes to embryonic tissue layer in animals, some have two while some have three. Those with two layers are diploblastic while those with three layers are said to be triploblastic.
Body cavity evolution also vary in animals according to their development levels. Some animals lack body cavity totally and are referred to as acoelomates, some have a mesoderm-like fluid filled cavity and are referred to as pseudocoelomates while others have true body cavity with peritoneum and are referred to as coelomates.
During embryonic development, the mouth is formed first in some animals and they are referred to as protostomes while those in which the anus are formed first are referred to as deuterostomes.
Hence, the best terms that describe the animal in question are triploblastic, pseudocoelomate, protostome.
The correct option is A.
8. An older adult with restless legs syndrome (RLS) has sought advice from the nurse in an effort to ease the problem. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the plan?A) "There are new, over-the-counter medications that can probably resolve your RLS."B) "RLS can be a sign of a much more serious health problem, so I'd encourage you to visit your primary care provider."C) "I see that your iron level is low, let's add foods high in iron to your diet."D) "Even though it's certainly unpleasant, RLS is a normal part of the aging process."
Answer:
C, you can try to add the iron in your diet first and see if it helps any at all, then see your primary care physician
"I see that your iron level is low, let's add foods high in iron to your diet."
These can give the patient a hope and he will not give up trying.He will also eat food that will be helpful to him only.What is RLS?RLS is Restless legs syndrome which is a condition that causes an uncontrollable urge to move the legs because of an uncomfortable sensation. It happens in the evening or nighttime hours when sitting or lying down. Moving eases the unpleasant feeling temporarily.To know more about RLS here
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The human metallothionein IIA gene (hMTIIA) is transcriptionally regulated through the interplay of regulatory elements and transcription factors. What is the function of this gene, and how is it regulated by environmental circumstances?
Answer:
The correct answer is - regulation of the heavy metal and their toxicity.
Explanation:
Metallothionein is a group of cysteine-rich, small in size, and highly conserved proteins that bind to various metal ions and regulate their activity or toxicity in transcriptional level.
Metallothionein IIA is one of the metallothioneins that binds to heavy metal and helps cells to be protected from the toxicity of these heavy metals. These proteins are present in almost every eukaryotic organisms virtually. These proteins are highly induced to express highly in the present of heavy metals.
Thus, the correct answer is - regulation of the heavy metal and their toxicity.