A division's return on investment may be improved by increasing:

A. capital turnover or sales margin.
B. sales margin and cost of capital.
C. cost of goods sold and expenses.
D. capital turnover or cost of capital.
E. sales revenue and cost of capital.

Answer:

D

Explanation:

Final answer:

The correct answer is B. Every business has a moral duty to be a good corporate citizen.

Explanation:

The correct answer is B. Every business has a moral duty to be a good corporate citizen. The business case for why companies should act in a socially responsible manner includes several factors, such as:

The idea that every business has a moral duty to be a good corporate citizen is not part of the business case for acting in a socially responsible manner. While businesses need to consider their impact on society, it is not necessarily a driving factor in the business case.

Answer:

Oriole company

The wage earned by the employees is $80,000. However certain deductions need to be recognized and made payable to respective statutory institutions.

After deductions the Employee should receive $59,800 (80,000 - 6,120 - 9,600 - 4,000 - 480)

Journal entries

1.

Debit Wage Account with $59,800

Debit FiCA (Employee) Account with $6,120

Debit Fed. income Tax (Employee) Account with $9,600

Debit State Income Tax (Employee) Account with $4,000

Debit Union Deductions (Employee) Account with $480

Credit Wages Payable Account with $80,000

(Being Wages earned in March and its distribution between accruals to employee and accruals to statutory bodies)

2.

Debit Employer state unemployment taxes Account with $800

Credit Employer state unemployment taxes Payable Account with $800

(Being employer contribution to unemployment taxes in March)

Answer:

ROI = 10.5%

Explanation:

The  ROI of a Division is the portion of then operating assets that is earned by  as operating income  by it. The higher the better.

Net operating assets = 28,600,000 - 600,000 = 28,000,000

ROI = Income/ Net operating assets × 100

ROI = 2,940,000/28,000,000  × 100

      = 10.5%

Answer: C. The ATC curve eventually slopes upward because average variable cost eventually increases

Explanation:

The Law of Diminishing Marginal Returns causes the Average Total Cost curve to eventually slope upwards because the Average Variable Cost will increase.

Why?

At first, with production increasing, a firm will be very efficient at producing a certain good thereby driving the cost down per unit. As time goes on however, the law of Diminishing Marginal Returns comes into play as more is invested into the business. The cost per unit will therefore rise which will lead to the ATC curve going upwards.

I have included a simple graph to illustrate.

If you need any clarification do react or comment.

Answer:

A) the adoption credit for 2017 was $13,570 per child. This credit applies only to adoption processes finalized during that year. This case applies since the adoption process was started in 2016 but ended in 2017.

total adoption credit = $13,570 - $3,600 received in benefits from employer = $9,970

B) the phase out range in 2017 was $203,540–$243,540. Since their income was $222,000, their adoption credit will phase out proportionally by = ($222,000 - $203,540) x ($13,570 / $40,000) = $18,460 x 0.33925 = $6,263

So the adoption tax credit = $13,570 - $6,263 = $7,307

Final answer:

Niles and Marsha can claim a $13,900 adoption credit if it is not limited by their AGI or tax liability. For a modified AGI of $222,000, the credit would begin to phase out, requiring further information for an exact calculation.

Explanation:

When answering part A, if the adoption credit is not limited by modified AGI or tax liability, Niles and Marsha can claim the full amount of their adoption-related expenses as a credit. Given that they have $17,500 in adoption expenses and received $3,600 in employer-provided adoption benefits, they can claim the remaining expenses of $13,900 as an adoption credit.

For part B, since Niles and Marsha have a modified AGI of $222,000 in 2017, their adoption credit begins to phase out. According to the tax brackets provided, their income places them in the range where the credit begins to phase out (phased-out adoption credit). The phase-out amount and the resulting adoption credit they can claim would require additional tax calculation information that has not been provided. Typically, for these calculations, one would need to refer to the specific IRS adoption credit phase-out rules and limits for the year 2017.

Answer:

The company's capital structure weights on a book value basis are:

a. 28.57% for equity, and

b. 71.43% for debt.

Explanation:

Book value of equity = 7,000,000 * $6 = $42,000,000

Book value of debts = $60,000,000 + $45,000,000  = $105,000,000

Dinklage Corp.'s total value = $42,000,000 + $105,000,000  = $147,000,000

Book value weights of equity = $42,000,000 / $147,000,000 = 0.2857, or 28.57%

Book value weights of debt = = 1 - 0.2857 = 0.7143, or 71.43%

Therefore, the company's capital structure weights on a book value basis are 28.57% for equity and 71.43% for debt.

To calculate the capital structure weights on a book value basis, multiply the number of shares of common stock by the book value per share and the face value of each bond by the number of bonds outstanding. Then divide the book value of each component by the total book value of the company's capital structure to determine the weights.

To calculate the capital structure weights on a book value basis, we need to determine the book value of the company's common stock and its outstanding bonds. The book value of the common stock is found by multiplying the number of shares outstanding by the book value per share. The book value of the bonds is the face value of each bond multiplied by the number of bonds outstanding. To calculate the weights, divide the book value of each component by the total book value of the company's capital structure.

The total book value of the company's capital structure is $144 million ($42 million + $55.2 million + $46.8 million).

The capital structure weights on a book value basis are:

https://brainly.com/question/36197017

#SPJ11

Answer:

The Before Tax benefit = 500 USD

Explanation:

Data Given:

Purchase = 50,000 boxes

Ordering Cost = 0.40 USD per box

EOQ = 5000 boxes = Economic Order Quantity

Vendor Offer = 0.02 USD per Box for the order size of 10,000 boxes.

Our EOQ is 5000:

So, first find costs associated without the offer.

Ordering Cost = (50000/5000) x 100 = 1000 USD

Carrying Cost = (5000/2) x 0.4 = 1000 USD

Total cost before accepting the offer = 1000 + 1000 = 2000 USD

Now, let's find the costs associated with offer accepted.

Ordering Cost = (50000/10000) x 100 = 500 USD

Carrying Cost = (10000/2) x 0.4 = 2000 USD

Total Cost = 2500 USD

Cost Saved from Discount = 50000 x 0.02 = 1000 USD

So, Total after accepting the offer = 2500 USD - 1000 USD

Total after accepting the offer = 1500 USD

So, the Before Tax benefit = 500 USD

The before-tax benefit of accepting the quantity discount is $15,900.

The before-tax benefit or loss of accepting the quantity discount can be calculated by comparing the costs of ordering and carrying inventory for both scenarios: with and without the discount. Without the discount, the ordering cost for 50,000 boxes of pens is $100. The carrying cost per box is $0.40, so the carrying cost for 50,000 boxes is $20,000. With the discount, the ordering cost for 10,000 boxes of pens is $100, and the carrying cost for 10,000 boxes is $4,000. Therefore, the before-tax benefit of accepting the quantity discount would be the difference between the costs of both scenarios: ($100 + $20,000) - ($100 + $4,000) = $15,900.

https://brainly.com/question/29423613

#SPJ3

Answer:

$25 per unit

Explanation:

Data provided in the question

Selling price per unit = $25

Fixed cost per unit = $8

Variable cost per unit = $10

Based on the above information, the price that division A should charged from Division B is equal to the selling price per unit i.e $25 because Division A currently sells and operates in a competitive market so it should be same for division B

Answer:

The correct the answer is A. Minimum wage laws are a successful tool to lift people out of poverty.

Explanation:

The minimum wage laws are established to ensure that the employees are not exploited and that they receive a fair amount of pay to ensure a proper standard of living. This however, does not encourage employers to hire unskilled labor and minimum wages affects the labor market.

Final answer:

The short-run elasticity of market supply is calculated based on the given slopes of supply curves and the price increase from $10 to $11. It is found to be a 3% increase in quantity divided by a 10% increase in price, which equals an elasticity of 3/10.

Explanation:

The question involves calculating the short-run elasticity of market supply for a competitive industry. Elasticity measures responsiveness of quantity supplied to a change in price. In this case, we want to determine the elasticity given that half of the firms have a supply curve slope of 1, and the other half have a slope of 2, when the output changes from 50 tons at $10 to an unknown quantity at $11. We use the formula for elasticity, which is the percentage change in quantity supplied divided by the percentage change in price. Since we are given the slopes of supply curves instead of specific quantities, we'll consider hypothetical quantities to calculate the elasticity.

Let's assume an increase in price from $10 to $11, a 10% increase. For firms with a slope of 1, for every $1 increase in price, the quantity increases by 1 ton. For firms with a slope of 2, for every $1 increase, the quantity increases by 2 tons. Since the increase is $1 for both, we can add up the individual increases:

Firms with slope 1: 500 firms x 1 ton = 500 tons
Firms with slope 2: 500 firms x 2 tons = 1000 tons
Total increase in quantity = 1500 tons

The initial total quantity supplied is 50 tons x 1000 firms = 50,000 tons. A 1500 ton increase on 50,000 is a 3% increase. The elasticity of supply is then:

(3% increase in quantity) / (10% increase in price) = 0.3 or 3/10

Answer:

Evaluating Divisional Managers on the basis of ROI may not be goal congruent.

Explanation:

While Return On Investment (ROI) is a common denominator for comparing the returns of dissimilar business or divisions, it has its demerits.

A problem exists when this measure is used to evaluate performance of divisional managers. Evaluating Divisional Managers on the basis of ROI may not be goal congruent.

Divisional Managers will accept or not accept projects in their best interest if new projects does not result in greater ROI than the previous,leaving or ignoring the company interest.

Answer:

$1.52

Explanation:

We know,

Current stock price, [tex]P_{0}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{D_{1}}{r_{s} - g}[/tex]

Given,

Market rate of return, [tex]r_{s}[/tex] = 9.2% = 0.092

Growth rate, g = 5.2% = 0.052

Expected dividend, [tex]D_{1}[/tex] = [tex]D_{0}[/tex] × (1 + g)

Current stock price, [tex]P_{0}[/tex] = $40

Putting the values into the above formula, we can get,

$40 = [[tex]D_{0}[/tex] × (1 + g)] ÷ [([tex]r_{s} - g[/tex])]

or, $40 = [[tex]D_{0}[/tex] × (1 + 0.052)] ÷ (0.092 - 0.052)

or, $40 = ([tex]D_{0}[/tex] × 1.052) ÷ 0.04

or, $40 = [tex]D_{0}[/tex] × 26.3

or, [tex]D_{0}[/tex] = $40 ÷ 26.3

Therefore, last dividend paid by the company, [tex]D_{0}[/tex] = $1.52

Final answer:

Using the dividend discount model formula, the last dividend paid by Weisbro and Sons was calculated to be approximately $1.52.

Explanation:

The question is seeking to determine the last dividend paid by Weisbro and Sons using the given stock price, the growth rate of the dividend, and the market rate of return. To find the amount of the last dividend (D₀) paid, we can use the dividend discount model (also called the Gordon growth model), which states that the price of a stock (P) is equal to the dividend one year from now (D₁) divided by the discount rate (r) minus the dividend growth rate (g). The formula is P = D₁ / (r - g).

Since we have the stock's selling price (P), the dividend growth rate (g), and the market rate of return (r), we need to rearrange the formula to solve for D₁ and then find D₀. Beginning with the formula:

P = D₁ / (r - g)

Multiplying both sides by (r - g) gives us:

D₁ = P * (r - g)

Since D₁ equals D₀ * (1 + g) (because D₁ is the dividend that will be paid next year, which is the dividend that was paid this year (D₀) grown by the rate g), we can rearrange to find D₀:

D₀ = D₁ / (1 + g)

Replacing D₁ with the expression P * (r - g) from the previous step gives us:

D₀ = (P * (r - g)) / (1 + g)

Plugging in the values we have:

D₀ = ($40 * (0.092 - 0.052)) / (1 + 0.052)

D₀ = ($40 * (0.04)) / (1.052)

D₀ = $1.52 approximately.

Thus, the last dividend (D₀) paid by Weisbro and Sons was around $1.52.

Answer:

The correct answer is Option C.

Explanation:

Economic profit is simply the difference between the total revenue generated from the sale of an output minus the opportunity cost and all costs used in the production of that output.

The costs used in the production of that output are regarded as explicit costs.

Opportunity cost is subjective and judgemental and usually determined by management.

Based on the question, the Economic cost = Total revenue - Total variable cost - Total fixed cost

Economic cost = $90,000 - $30,000 - $40,000 = $20,000

Answer: 1. Both Short Run and Long Run

2. Both Short Run and Long Run

3. Long Run

4. Long Run

5. Short Run

6. Long Run

7. Both Short Run and Long Run

Explanation:

In Economics, the Short run refers to a period where wages and prices of other inputs are considered inflexible or rather hard to change whereas in the LONG RUN, these same inputs can be adjusted because they have had time to adjust.

In the both the Short and the Long Run, a company is capable of producing a differentiated product as well as maximising profit through MR=MC.

A firm can only however earn zero Economic profit in the long run as other firms come into the market and competition reaches its peak level.

It is also only in the Long Run that all factors of production are variable because they have time to adjust and adapt.

It is only in the Short run that at least one input is fixed. In the long run, all factors are variable.

In both the long and short run, the price charged to consumers can be higher than the Marginal Cost.

If you need further clarification do react or comment.

Answer:

A firm operating under monopolistic display certain characteristics short run which changes in the long run.

Explanation:

1. The firm produces a differentiated product in the short run.

2. The firm maximizes profits in the short run.

3. The firm earns zero economic profit in the Long run.

4. All factors of production (inputs) are variable  in the short run.

5. At least one factor of production (an input) is fixed in the long run.

6. The LRATC curve is tangent to the demand curve in the long run.

7. The price charged to consumers is higher than marginal cost in the long run.

To calculate the cost of the truck, making sure to include all expenditures related to the purchase, we add together the cash price, accident insurance, sales taxes, motor vehicle license, and painting and lettering costs. This results in a total cost of $24,400 for the Blossom Company to purchase the truck.

The cost of the truck for the Blossom Company incorporates several factors. These factors include the cash price of the truck, accident insurance, sales taxes, motor vehicle license, and painting and lettering. In your case, we'll add all these expenditures together to find the total cost of the truck.

To calculate the total, you simply add these costs together, i.e., $20,000 + $1,500 + $1,100 + $200 + $1,600 which results in a total cost of $24,400.

https://brainly.com/question/33521342

#SPJ3

The cost of the truck for Blossom Company, including all associated expenditures, is $24,400.

Here's a breakdown of the expenditures and how they contribute to the total cost:

1. Cash price of the truck: $20,000

  - This is the base cost of acquiring the truck.

2. Accident insurance during use: $1,500

  - This expenditure directly relates to ensuring the truck against accidents during its operational use.

3. Sales taxes: $1,100

  - These are taxes paid on the purchase of the truck, typically calculated as a percentage of the purchase price.

4. Motor vehicle license: $200

  - This is the fee paid to legally register and license the truck for road use.

5. Painting and lettering: $1,600

  - This expenditure is for customizing the truck with painting and lettering, likely for identification or branding purposes.

To find the total cost of the truck, we sum up all these expenditures:

[tex]\[ \text{Total Cost of the Truck} = \text{Cash Price} + \text{Accident Insurance} + \text{Sales Taxes} + \text{Motor Vehicle License} + \text{Painting and Lettering} \][/tex]

[tex]\[ \text{Total Cost of the Truck} = \$20,000 + \$1,500 + \$1,100 + \$200 + \$1,600 \][/tex]

[tex]\[ \text{Total Cost of the Truck} = \$24,400 \][/tex]

Answer: $66.67

Explanation:

The value of a Preferred Stock is calculated with the following formula,

Value of the preferred stock = Annual Dividend/rate of return

The Annual Dividend is 8% of the face value so,

= 0.08 * $100

= $8

Therefore the Value of the Stock is,

= 8/0.12

= $66.67

Answer: $66.67

Explanation:

GIVEN the following ;

Face value of preferred stock = $100

Dividend rate per annum = 8% = 0.08

Required rate of return = 12% = 0.12

Price of stock if Dividend is paid in exactly one year =?

Price of stock = ( Dividend ÷ Rate of return)

Dividend = (annual dividend rate × face value of stock)

Dividend = 0.08 × $100 = $8

Price of stock = ($8 ÷ 0.12)

Price of stock = $66.667

Therefore price of security if Dividend is paid in exactly one year = $66.67

Answer:

11.59% growth rate

Explanation:

This analysis is done in the SUSTAINABLE GROWTH RATE MODEL.

Pepperdine Incorporation's Return on Equity (ROE) is equal to 19%

Pepperdine Incorporation's Retention Ratio (RR) is equal to 61% of it's earnings.

This implies that Pepperdine Incorporation' retains 61% of income(earning) for investment purposes.

The firm's growth rate will be gotten from multiplying the ROE by the RR.

That is: 19% × 61% = 11.59%

That is the answer.

Return on Equity and Retention Rate are two indices used in growth rate measurement.

Pepperdine, Inc.'s growth rate is calculated by multiplying the return on equity (19%) by the retention ratio (61%), resulting in a growth rate of 11.59%.

The student is asking about the growth rate of Pepperdine, Inc., which can be calculated using the retention ratio and return on equity (ROE). The growth rate formula in this context is the product of the retention ratio (the percentage of earnings retained after dividends are paid) and the ROE. Given that Pepperdine, Inc. has an ROE of 19% and plans to retain 61% of earnings, the firm's growth rate can be calculated as:

Growth Rate = Retention Ratio × Return on Equity

Growth Rate = 0.61 × 0.19 = 0.1159 or 11.59%

Therefore, Pepperdine, Inc.'s expected growth rate is 11.59%.

https://brainly.com/question/30764119

#SPJ12

Answer:

Debit : Cost of Goods Sold : $75

Credit : Inventory : $75

Explanation:

The lower-of-cost-or-market method is based on the conservative accounting theory. This is where company accounts are prepared with caution and verification. All losses are recorded as they are discovered whereas gains are recorded only after realised. In this case, there is a gain in Inventory A, hence it won’t be recorded as of yet. However, the value of Inventory B has reduced and this requires to be recorded.

The cost of Inventory B should be reduced to the lower net realizable value, hence it would be reduced by the difference : $625 - $550 = $75

Debit : Cost of Goods Sold : $75

Credit : Inventory : $75

Answer:

A) book value after 10 years = $644

depreciation after 10 years = $5356

B) book value after 10 years = $1181

depreciation after 10 years = $4819

Explanation:

cost basis  =$6000

10 year depreciable life

SV after 10 years = 0

N = 10

A) Annual depreciation when R = 2/N ( 200% DB method )

year 1 : book value = $6000, R = 2/10 * 100

B) Annual depreciation when R = 1.5/N ( 150% DB method )

year 1: book value = $6000 , R = 1.5/10 * 100

attached to this is a tabular solution using the DB method  

Final answer:

The annual depreciation amounts using the DB method for the electric saw can be calculated based on the given rates. For the 200% DB method, the annual depreciation amount is $1,200, and for the 150% DB method, it is $900.

Explanation:

To calculate the annual depreciation amounts using the declining balance (DB) method, we need to determine the depreciation rate (R) and apply it to the cost basis of the electric saw.

(a) For the 200% DB method, R = 2 / N, where N is the depreciable life of 10 years. So, R = 2 / 10 = 0.2.

Depreciation amount = R * Cost basis = 0.2 * $6,000 = $1,200 per year.

(b) For the 150% DB method, R = 1.5 / N, where N is still 10 years. So, R = 1.5 / 10 = 0.15.

Depreciation amount = R * Cost basis = 0.15 * $6,000 = $900 per year.

Answer:

Option A is the correct answer.

Explanation:

Redistribution effect is also referred to as the transfer effect.

Under the redistribution effect, the price level increases after exacting tariff, this, in turn, increases the producer surplus and decreases the consumer surplus.

Based on the given information tariff =$2 per unit; Total revenue before tariff = PQ, where P is price and Q is quantity.

Let us denote the original price as P.

Therefore, total revenue before tariff = P*10000 = 10000P.

After imposing tariff $2 the price raises and becomes: P+2

So,

Total revenue after tariff = (P+2)*8000 = 8000P+16000

This implies that the extra $16000 amount bears consumers after imposing the specific tariff.

Thus, option A is the correct answer.

Answer:

575,010.25

Explanation:

i = 5%. n = 20 Years. P = 6,500,000.

Annual Maintenance Cost for the first five years, A1 = 25,000.

Annual Maintenance Cost from year 6 thro' 15, A2 = 30,000.

Annual Maintenance Cost from year 16 thro' 20, A3 = 35,000.

Overhaul Costs = 500,000 at year 10.

EUAC = [6,500,000 + 500,000 (P/F, 5%, 10)] (A/P, 5%, 20) +

25,000 +[{5000 (F/A, 5%, 5) + 5000(F/A, 5%, 15)} (A/F, 5%, 20)]

= [6,500,000 + 500,000 (0.6139)] (0.0802) +

25,000 +[{5000 (5.526) + 5000 (21.579)}(0.0302)]

= 545,917.39 + 29,092.86 = 575,010.25

Answer: Please refer to Explanation.

Explanation:

Monopoly.

The 2 reasons why the monopoly’s marginal revenue will always be less than its price are;

a) Even though Monopolies have very large influence on the prices of goods and services they offer, for a Monopoly to sell more goods, they generally have to lower their prices. This will lead to a situation where Marginal Revenue, which is the additional revenue made per additional unit sold will be less than Price because additional revenue for a new unit will be less than the last one because prices are dropped .

b) A Monopoly's demand schedule is downward sloping. This means that demand rises as prices drop. As prices drop therefore, more goods will be sold but the marginal revenue will be less because prices had to be dropped to get an additional unit to be sold. That unit therefore will bring in less revenue than the last unit.

Perfectly Competitive Market

In such a market, the seller is a Price Taker. This means that sellers in this market do not sell at a price that they want but rather at a price the market has established to be the Equilibrium. This is because of the high competition in the market. Since they are all selling at the same price, this means that every additional revenue they get is the same as the price the market charges. This means that Price equals Marginal Revenue in this market.

Answer:

$334,101.43

Explanation:

The computation of the value of this company is shown below:

Value of unlevered firm= [$63,300 × (1 - 23%)] ÷ 14.7%

= $331,571.43

And,

Value of this company = 331,571.43 + 23% of $11,000

= $331,571.43 + $2,530

= $334,101.43

As we know that value of the company is the mix o f levered firm and the unlevered firm according to that we done the calculations

Answer:

a) A = 4.50% and B = 2.00%

b) SD for A = 4.15 %

c) Portfolio Return = 3.0%

Explanation:

a) Expected Returns for Both A and B respectively:

In order to calculate the expected returns, let's categorize the given data first.

Economy        Probability      Stock A       Stock B

Booming            0.30               10%               20%

Neutral               0.30                5%                 0%

Recession          0.40                 0%                -10% (not 10%)

So,

Expected Return for Stock A:

A =   Sum of (all Probability x Stock A)

A = (0.30 x 0.10) + (0.30 x 0.05) + (0.40 x 0.00)

A = 0.045

A = 4.50 %

Return for Stock B:

B = Sum of all Probability x Stock B

B = (0.30 x 0.20) + (0.30 x 0.00) + (0.40 x -0.10)

B = 0.002

B = 2.0%  

b) Standard Deviation /Risk for Stock A:

SD for A = Sum (Square Root (Probability*(Stock A Return - Expected Return of Stock A)²) )

SD for A = [tex]\sqrt{0.30*(0.10-0.045)^2 + 0.30*(0.05-0.045)^2+0.40*(0.00-0.045)^2}[/tex]

SD for A = 0.0415

SD for A = 4.15%

c) Portfolio Return Given that:

                                        Value          Weight         Return

Stock A                          4000              0.4               4.50%

Stock B                          6000             0.6                 2.0%

                                      10000

Portfolio Return =  Sum of ( Weight x Return)

                          = (0.4 x 0.045) + (0.6 x 0.02)

                          = 0.03

Portfolio Return = 3%

The detailed answer provides calculations for preparing a direct materials purchases budget for Langer Company for the months of July, August, and September. It also uses the principles of production planning and inventory management to show how to calculate the amount of raw materials to be purchased each month.

To calculate the purchases budget for each of the months in question we first compute the total amount of plastic needed for production schedule and then add additional plastic for inventory as per the company's policy.

1. For July, the production requirement is 3500 units. Each unit requires 15 ounces of plastic. Therefore the total plastic needed is 3500*15 = 52500 ounces. The company will need additional 30% of August's production i.e. 30%*4400*15 = 19800 ounces. Therefore, total ounces to be purchased in July = 52500+19800 = 72300 ounces. In dollar Terms, 72300*0.08 = $5784

2. For August, production requirement is 4400*15 = 66000 ounces. Additional 30% for September's production = 30%*4900*15 = 22050 ounces. Therefore, total ounces to be purchased in August = 66000+22050 = 88050 ounces. In dollar terms, 88050*0.08 = $7044

3. For September, production requirement is 4900*15 = 73500 ounces. Additional 30% for October's production = 30%*6300*15 = 28350 ounces. Therefore, total ounces to be purchased in September = 73500+28350 = 101850 ounces. In dollar terms, 101850*0.08 = $8148

The total purchase cost over all three months is $5784 + $7044 + $8148 = $20976 (rounded to the nearest whole number).

https://brainly.com/question/25391752

#SPJ12

Answer:

Net operating income = $240,000

Explanation:

At first we have to determine the break-even sales.

We know,

Break-even sales in units = Fixed expense ÷ (Sales price per unit - Variable cost per unit)

Break-even sales in units = $80,000 ÷ ($100 - 80)

Break-even sales in units = $80,000 ÷ $20 = 4,000 units.

Therefore, if the company sells 4,000, there will be no operating income.

If the total sales of Rihanna, Inc. is increased by $400,000, it means the company sells $400,000 ÷ $100 = 4,000 more units.

Therefore,

Sales                                                     = $400,000

Less: Variable expense (4,000*$40)  = $160,000

Contribution Margin                             = $240,000

The new net operating income will be $240,000 as the fixed expense remains same for the entire period.

Find the given attachments for the complete solution

Answer:

b.multiply production in units by the direct labor hours per unit

Explanation:

In order to calculate the budgeted direct labor hours we simply multiplied the units production with the direct labor per unit

In mathematically,

Budgeted direct labor hours = Production in units × direct labor hours per unit

By considering the units production and direct labor hours per unit we can get the budgeted direct labor hours which are to be considered as a estimated direct labor hours  

In budgeting direct labor hours for the coming year, it is important to multiply production in units by the direct labor hours per unit.

In budgeting direct labor hours for the coming year, the correct approach is to multiply production in units by the direct labor hours per unit.

This is because direct labor hours per unit give us the amount of labor required to produce each unit, and by multiplying this with the production in units, we can estimate the total labor hours required for the coming year.

For example, if the direct labor hours per unit is 2 and the production in units is 100, then the estimated direct labor hours for the coming year would be 2 x 100 = 200 hours.

https://brainly.com/question/33091352

#SPJ3

Answer:

10.23x

Explanation:

Market/Book Ratio = Stock Price /  Net Book Value per Share

Stock Price = $25 per share

Net Book Value per Share = Net Book Value / shares of common stock outstanding

Shares of common stock outstanding = 900 million shares

where;

Total Assets = $11 billion

Total Liabilities = Current Liabilities + Long-Term Liabilities

Total Liabilities = $1.1 billion + $7.7 billion

Total Liabilities = $8.8 billion

Hence;

Net Book Value = Total Assets - Total Liabilities

Net Book Value = $11 billion - $8.8 billion

Net Book Value = $2.2 billion

Therefore;

Net Book Value per Share = Net Book Value / shares of common stock outstanding

Net Book Value per Share = $2.2 billion / 900 million shares

Net Book Value per Share = $2,200,000,000 / 900,000,000 shares

Net Book Value per Share = $2.44 per share

So;

Market/Book Ratio = Stock Price /  Net Book Value per Share

Market/Book Ratio = $25 per share / $2.44 per share

Market/Book Ratio = 10.23x

It means that Stock is over valued and it has performed well because Market/Book Ratio is greater than 1. So the Stock price is set at higher price in relation to Edelman Engines' Net Book Value, so its Market/Book Ratio is 10.23x.

Answer:

A. $676,200

Explanation:

See attached file