Answer:
Based on dose-response relationship from the analysed data of National Health Examination Survey(NHES) Showed that, the prevalence of obesity increases by 2%. for 12-year old group. 11-13years has the highest watching rates
Also, dose-response relationship is also observed between hours of television view and overweight, by National Longitudinal Health Examination of Labour Market Experience and Youth Cohort.(NLSY). Survey correlating the relationship between obesity and long hours of television view in youths of age range 10-15yrs.
t was concluded that the energy expended during television viewing is less than the resting energy expenditure. Therefore long sitting hours of television viewing is a contributing factor to obesity. Hence one way of preventing obesity is to prevent long hours TV watching
Explanation:
A cholera outbreak has occurred, and the culprit is contaminated drinking water. Which controllable risk factors might have caused this outbreak? Check all that apply
Answer:
The options are given below:
A. The unsanitary handling of human waste by nearby waterways.
B. The genetic makeup of individuals reporting cholera-related symptoms.
C. The significant difference in reported cases between males and females.
D. The reduction in accessibility to regions that use filtered bottled water.
E. The lack of access individuals with symptoms have to health clinics.
The correct option is A.
Explanation:
Cholera is caused by the a bacterium called Vibrio cholerae. People become infected after they eat food or drink water that has been contaminated by the faeces of infected persons.
Also, raw or undercooked seafood may be a source of infection in areas where cholera is prevalent and sanitation is poor.
Therefore, in an area where there is cholera outbreak, which has been caused by contaminated drinking water, the likely cause of this outbreak will be as a result of the improper and unsanitary handling of human waste by nearby waterways.
Answer:
1. The unsanitary handling of human waste by nearby waterways
4. The reduction in accessibility to regions that use filtered bottle water
5. The lack of access individuals with symptoms have to health clinics.
Explanation:
just did it on edge
Select the best answer for the question.
12. Which of the following is a good strategy when it comes to desserts?
OO
O A. Serve a dessert that's nutritious and healthful.
O B. Children should finish all the food on their plates, first.
O C. Enjoy dessert while watching funny videos.
O D. Serve dessert if homework is finished quickly.
Mark for review (Will be highlighted on the review page)
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Answer: O B.
Explanation: it sounds good
Cheri doesn't remember that she got sick after eating oatmeal on several occasions in early childhood. However, whenever she smells oatmeal now she experiences a classically conditioned feeling of nausea. Cheri's conditioned reaction indicates that she retains a __________.
Answer:
Implicit memory is an unconscious memory or automatic memory
The nursing instructor is reviewing the plan of care for a postpartum client with a student. The instructor asks the nursing student about the taking-in phase according to Rubin's phases of regeneration and the client behaviors that are most likely to occur during this phase. Which responses made by the student indicate an understanding of this phase?
A. "The client would be independent."
B. "The client initiates activities on her own."
C. "The client participates in mothering tasks."
D. "The client is self-focused and talks to others about labor."
Answer:
D.The client is self-focused and talks to others about labor."
Explanation:
Rubin has identified three phases of regeneration during the postpartum period. They include:
1. The taking-in phase
2.Taking-hold phase
3.Letting-go phase.
The taking-in phase occurs in the first 3 days postpartum, During the taking-in phase, the new mother(client)is trying to integrate her labor and birth experience. She tends to need sleep and feels tired, talks about labor, and is self-focused and dependent.
Taking-hold phase:
The taking-hold phase occurs between days 3 to 10 days postpartum.In the taking-hold phase, the client is more active, independent, initiates activities, and partakes in mothering tasks.
Letting-go phase:
In the letting-go phase, the mother may grieve over the separation of the baby from part of her body.
Olga and Boris Mikhailov come to an outpatient clinic with their five-year-old daughter, Anya. The receptionist gathers information during the initial history. Olga and Boris were born in Russia and they have lived in the country for 8 years. They are both employed full time and speak English well. Anya was born in this county and she is fluent in Russian and English. Olga states that Anya is basically healthy. She experienced a viral illness a couple of months ago, but she quickly recovered. Anya is at the clinic for her 5-year-old check-up for kindergarten.
Answer:
The missing statement in question is;
According to Erickson, in what stage of development is Anya?
Explanation:
According to Erikson theory, Anya is in Initiative v Guilt stage.
Erikson theory is related to the different psychosocial developments that happen in complete human cycle through his life span. There are eight stages from birth till adulthood.
One of them is Initiative v Guilt, which is the third stage. This is related to children where they tend to assert themselves more often
An infection and inflammation of the aggregated lymphatic nodules in the pharynx is called
Answer:
laryngitis
Explanation:
The nurse is providing discharge education about how to avoid joint stress for a client hospitalized with an acute exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis. Which statement by the client demonstrates the teaching has been effective?
a) I need to start carrying heavy items with my arms, instead of my hands."
b) I will be able to return to my job as a medical transcriptionist.""
c) I can still sit and knit while watching television."
d) I will sit on a tall kitchen stool instead of standing when I am preparing meals."
e) When I go to bed at night I should use a pillow under my knees."
Answer:
Two options apply here, and they are:
a) I need to start carrying heavy items with my arms, instead of my hands.
d) I will sit on a tall kitchen stool instead of standing when I am preparing meals
Explanation:
Rheumatoid arthritis is a disease that makes joints become painful or swollen. It has no cure, but the level of growth can be slowed by medications.
Carrying heavy items on the arms instead of the hand, helps take stress off the joints in the hands.
In the lower body, sitting helps take pressure off the joints.
Knitting is not advisable, because stress on the joints can be caused by steady movements. Placing pillows under kness would not help avoid joint stress because there is a chance of having joint contracture.
So, when the client makes any of the statements in option (a) and (d), the nurse clearly understands the teaching has been effective.
If ya could answer these questions about the reproductive system. I'm honestly to lazy to answer them myself.
1. Describe the function of the ovaries and testes.
2. Summarize the purpose of the Uterus.
3. Explain the functions of the cervix.
4. Define gametes and explain why they are essential to reproduction.
Answer:
Ovaries:
shelter and protect the eggs a female is born with until they are ready for useproduce estrogen release eggs (ovulation)Testes
Produce and store spermCreate testosterone and androgensChild bearing. "The uterus performs multiple functions and plays a major role in fertility and childbearing. This organ is able to change in shape as muscles tighten and relax to make it possible to carry a fetus"
The Cervix produces cervical mucusDuring pregnancy, the cervix closes to help keep the fetus in the uterus until birth during labor the cervix dilatesGametes: a mature sexual reproductive cell, as a sperm or egg, that unites with another cell to form a new organism.
They area literally what come together to make the baby, without them, there is no baby
Also, this took me like ten minutes lol. Maybe just do your own work.
Dana, age 15, has to deal with constant comments from the boys in her science class about her breast size, skin blemishes, and large hips. Her teacher does nothing to stop these offensive remarks. As a result, Dana's grade in science is compromised. Dana is a victim of _________.
A) quid pro quo sexual harassment.B) hostile environment sexual harassment.C) third-party sexual harassment.D) rude boys,but no type of sexual harassment.
Answer:
B
Explanation:
There is considerable variation by country in the distribution of causes of deaths among adults in the typical reproductive ages, with deaths due to which of the following being common in low-income countries and rare in high-income countries?
Infectious Disease
Viral disease
accidents
Answer:
Infectious diseases
Explanation:
Infectious diseases are cause by pathogens. These pathogens are micro-organisms(microbes) and can’t be seen by the naked eye except through varying types of microscope. These pathogenic microorganisms are divided into 4 which include Bacteria, Fungi, Virus and Protozoa.
These infectious diseases are high in low-income countries because a low economy is a characteristic of a developing or underdeveloped country. These countries are usually characterized by Poverty, poor education, low health knowledge, poor infrastructure which encourages and supports the prevalence of infectious diseases.
The difference between
overpopulation and
under Population
Answer:
Over-population is when there are too many people, to be supported to a good standard of living, by the resources of a region or country. Under-population is when a region or country has insufficient workers to exploit their resources efficiently, to support retired populations and to provide growth.
Explanation:
Overpopulation occurs when the population exceeds the environment's capacity to provide for its needs causing societal and environmental stress. Underpopulation occurs when a small population leads to underuse of resources and can slow economic growth. Balancing population with resources is crucial for sustainable development.
The difference between overpopulation and underpopulation lies in the balance between the population size and the available resources within a given area. Overpopulation occurs when the number of people surpasses the capacity of the environment to provide for their needs, leading to strains on resources and potential societal issues such as famine, disease, and conflict. Contrarily, underpopulation happens when there is a small population in relation to a larger land area, which can lead to a reduction in GDP and slowed economic growth, and may make the nation vulnerable to outside interests due to large tracts of uninhabited land.
At the national level, examples like Russia against China can illustrate the contrast in population density and how these factors contribute to economic and social development. While overpopulation pressures resources and can lead to underdevelopment, underpopulation can result in underutilization of resources and a diminished labor force which is crucial for economic productivity. Understanding the implications of both overpopulation and underpopulation is essential for demographers and policy makers to manage resources efficiently and sustainably while ensuring the welfare of the population.
How can astronauts combat the effects of space travel on the muscular and circulatory systems? Eat foods with more minerals. Sleep more. Exercise more. Practice deep breathing exercises. I will make you brainiest please help me
Answer:
Exercise
Explanation: To build muscular strength in your arms and limbs you need to exercises if you are building your lunges practice deep breathing. Also I to the test for Cava-Sonoma.
Explanation:
Exercise
Sometimes when a person in a movie is stabbed or cut, blood forcefully sprays out of the wound. This is realistic only if the severed vessel is under a high degree of pressure. Which of the following vessels, if severed, would result in the most forceful spray of blood?
A) pulmonary artery
B) inferior vena cava
C) capillaries in the body
D) aorta
Answer: D) aorta
If the aorta is damaged, the pressure could lead to immediate death. the pressure is what causes the aorta to spray out of the wound.
A person having a blood-alcohol content of _________ is considered legally impaired or intoxicated under Texas law. *
0 points
0.75
0.08
1.25
0.2
Answer: .08
Explanation:
What is not a typical symptom of influenza?
Answer:
There are many NOT typical symptoms of influenza, since the typical ones are very pathognomonic.
Those that are not typical could become:
that the patient feels animated, not very fatigued, with excess energy and absence of fever, insstinal constipation.
Explanation:
The symptoms, unlike the signs, are what the patient perceives ... That is why we do not clarify other factors such as dyspnea or fever, since that would become a SIGN and not a SYMPTOM.
Instead, the sign is a factor that appears and is perceived by the medical professional through some technique or thanks to some prior knowledge.
Answer:
See explanation below for answer.
Explanation:
Influenza, also called Flu is a common viral infection that can be deadly, especially in high-risk groups. It attacks the lungs, nose and throat.
People at high risk include:
Young children, older adults, pregnant women, and people with chronic disease or weak immune systems.Symptoms include:
fever, chills, muscle aches, cough, congestion, runny nose, headaches, and fatigue.It should be noted that not everyone with flu will have a fever.
when both chest compressions and rescue breaths are used in CPR, how many rescue breaths are included in one cycle?
Thanks :)
Answer: 2 rescue breaths are in one cycle
An alert and oriented young male fell 5 feet from a stage, impacting a metal railing with the right side of his chest, just under his armpit. The primary assessment is negative for life threats, although he does complain of very painful breathing and has remarkable tenderness and crepitus over the 5th rib laterally in this area. Throughout care, what action is essential to perform?
Answer: Monitor breath sounds
Explanation:
The person fell from 5 feet of height which impacted his chest and armpit area. The person got blunt trauma due to falling from height which might have cause pulmonary contusion, also known as lung contusion, is a lung bruise, caused by damage to the lungs (do not tear or cut lung tissues).
Due to this trauma person is having difficulty in breathing and feeling tenderness. The essential action to take for the person is to monitor breath sounds. Lung ascultation or monitoring is an important part of the respiratory test and helps in the diagnosis of various respiratory disorders. Auscultation tests airflow through the bronchial-trachea branch. To make a correct diagnosis, it is important to differentiate between normal respiratory sounds and abnormal ones, such as wheezes, crackles and pleural rub.
Hence, the correct answer is monitor breath sounds.
The student should continually monitor the young male's vital signs, particularly the respiratory rate and oxygen saturation, and look for signs of respiratory distress, which could indicate a serious condition like a pneumothorax. Pain management is essential to ease the patient's breathing. If the patient's condition worsens, supportive measures and further examinations may be required.
Explanation:In this scenario, the young male who fell from the stage and impacted his rib area is at risk of having a chest injury that could potentially lead to pneumothorax (air in the chest outside the lung). Therefore, it's essential to monitor his vital signs, especially his respiratory rate and oxygen saturation. A decrease in either could indicate the development of a pneumothorax. Also, he should be examined for any signs of respiratory distress, as that could also indicate worsening of his condition.
Pain control is also essential. Pain can increase the work of breathing, and so controlling pain can help the patient breathe easier. Furthermore, the presence of crepitus (a crackling sound in the lung) could suggest that air is leaking into places it doesn't usually occupy within the chest, which could be a sign of pneumothorax.
If his respiratory condition worsens, supportive measures such as supplemental oxygen or chest decompression might be necessary. He might also need further investigations such as a chest radiograph and evaluation by medical professionals.
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Kevin burns 5.5 cal/min by walking at a speed of 4.5 miles per hour. He is also able to have a conversation while performing this moderately intense physical activity. What effect does this activity have on his breathing and heart rate:
A. a slight change in his breathing but no change in his heart rate
B. no change in his breathing but a significant change in his heart rate
C. a significant change in both his breathing and heart rate
D. a slight increase in both his breathing and heart rate e. little to no change in his breathing and heart rate
It is thought that a combination of sympathetic activation and parasympathetic withdrawal causes the increase in heart rate during exercise. Thus, option E is correct.
What effect of physical activity on breathing and heart rate?Exercise also increases the muscles' ability to remove oxygen from the blood, which lessens the demand for the heart to pump blood to the muscles.
The parasympathetic nervous system's reactivation is thought to be responsible for the drop in heart rate that occurs right after exercise
While exercising, the heart rate rises. Increases in breathing rate and depth ensure that more oxygen is taken up by the blood and more carbon dioxide is expelled from it.
The number of breaths taken in a minute can be used to calculate the rate of breathing.
Therefore, little to no change in his breathing and heart rate.
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After the researchers see the number of subjects they will have to interview, they reexamine their criteria. The researchers could decrease the number of subjects while having the least impact on the reliability of the study by ___________.A. increasing p and decreasing B.
B. increasing p or decreasing B.
C. decreasing p and increasing B.
D. decreasing p or increasing B.
Answer:
D. decreasing p or increasing B.
Explanation:
From the formula presented for the sake of answering this question as shown below:
n = Np (1-p)/ (N-1)B squared/4 + (p) (1-p)
Hence, the number of subjects can be reduced while having the least impact of the study reliability if we decrease the proportion of subjects needed (p) or increase the acceptable amount of error (B). This way, the study still remains reliable.
Not exactly a school question but does anyone have any strong ideas for better time management? Also I have a problem with procrastinating and not even realizing it.
Answer: Devices are a distraction, try to stay away while doing homework or etc. Also keep a planner and write down everything you need to do before that day comes, that way when you wanna work on stuff you can see what you need to work on. Don’t let yourself just put things to the side, instead just do it so that you don’t have to do it later. Time management is really up to you, and what you want to do with it :)
Explanation:
Answer:
For better time management, try to do a to-do list. Set some goals up for yourself. Give yourself a time limit if you have to. Procrastinating is the worst. When I'm procrastinating and i realize it, i always tell myself that the sooner something gets done, the sooner you can go do something you enjoy.
The prevailing explanation for the relationship between stress and illness has been that increased levels of stress result in a decrease in the immune system's ability to protect the body from illness. On the other hand, it is possible that people who are experiencing stress engage in more health-damaging behaviors, this leads us to a greater likelihood of illness. This different explanation of the relationship demonstrates the importance of __________.
Answer: ruling out rival hypothesis
Explanation:
To rule out rival hypothesis suggests that to exclude the possible explanation for a specific claim. This suggests that before confirming or believing something one has to ensure that other explanation for a specific claim has been disproved to become sure for a specific claim.
According to the given situation, the stress and illness relationship is required to be derived. The increased level of stress and illness is responsible for the decrease in immunity is ruled out by the fact that people due to stress indulge or engage in health damaging behaviors. This is responsible for illness.
According to the Standards of Nursing Practice, Board Rule 217.11, LVNs have a "directed" scope of practice. Mention an appropriate nursing practice supervisor for the LVN
LVNs have a "directed" scope of practice and their nursing practice supervisor can be an RN, APRN, physician, dentist, or podiatrist.
Explanation:
According to the Standards of Nursing Practice, LVNs (Licensed Vocational Nurses) have a "directed" scope of practice as defined by the Texas Board of Nursing in Rule 217.11. This means that LVNs are under the supervision and direction of a registered nurse (RN), advanced practice registered nurse (APRN), physician, dentist, or podiatrist.
An appropriate nursing practice supervisor for the LVN would be an RN, APRN, physician, dentist, or podiatrist who oversees and guides the LVN's work. They provide guidance, and support, and ensure that the LVN is practicing within their defined scope of practice and following the Standards of Nursing Practice.
In summary, the appropriate nursing practice supervisor for an LVN depends on the healthcare setting and the specific situation, but it is generally an RN, APRN, physician, dentist, or podiatrist who supervises and directs the LVN's work.
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According to the Standards of Nursing Practice, Board Rule 217.11, Licensed Vocational Nurses (LVNs) have a 'directed' scope of practice.
LVNs must practice under the supervision of a healthcare professional with a more advanced scope of practice. Appropriate nursing practice supervisors for LVNs include the following:
Registered Nurse (RN): RNs have a broader and more advanced scope of practice compared to LVNs and can provide the necessary supervision.
Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN): This includes Nurse Practitioners (NPs), Clinical Nurse Specialists (CNS), Nurse Anesthetists (CRNA), and Nurse Midwives (CNM), all of whom have specialized training and can supervise LVNs.
Physician (MD or DO): Medical Doctors (MDs) or Doctors of Osteopathic Medicine (DOs) are qualified to oversee the practice of LVNs, ensuring that patient care aligns with medical standards.
Physician Assistant (PA): PAs can also supervise LVNs as they work under the supervision of physicians and have extensive medical training.
The supervision provided by these professionals ensures that LVNs perform their duties safely and in accordance with established medical protocols and ethical standards.
Explain a strategy that you can use to ensure that your own personal beliefs and preconceptions don’t get in the way of your job response?
Answer:
A good strategy is: an organizational and tolerant culture in the workplace
Explanation:
A good strategy is. Having an organizational and tolerant culture at work, this means, what is work must be done at work and what corresponds to our personal values and beliefs, are only ours; But we must be willing to be receptive and share our beliefs and values with others as long as the occasion for it arises in a social setting.
Now, we must be tolerant and very respectful of the opinions and beliefs of others, we must not turn our work into a place of religious and philosophical competences.
To avoid personal beliefs interfering with job performance, a strategy is to practice empathy, open-mindedness, and self-reflection.
Explanation:A strategy to ensure that personal beliefs and preconceptions don't interfere with job performance is to practice empathy and open-mindedness. This involves actively listening to others, considering different perspectives, and being willing to change one's opinion based on new information. Additionally, self-reflection and self-awareness are important to recognize and challenge any biases or assumptions.
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One purpose of the BON’s position statements and guidelines is to provide
Answer:
guidance to nurses with regard to carrying out orders from Physician Assistants (PAs).
Explanation:
It should be understood that the Physician assistance, PAs may provide medical aspects of care, including ordering or prescribing medications and treatments, as delegated by a physician consistent with laws, rules and regulations.
It should be noted also that a physician is not required to be present at all times at the location where the PA is providing care and orders are not required to be countersigned by the physician.
Therefore, a nurse may carry out or execute these orders. And , the nurse must seek clarification if he/she believes the order or treatment is inaccurate, non-efficacious or contraindicated, by consulting with the PA and physician as appropriate.
In conclusion, BON simply means Board of Nursing.
Increased risk of liver disease, stroke, and cancer can be caused by (3 points)
1. consuming low doses of alcohol.
2. consuming medium doses of alcohol.
3. binge drinking alcohol.
4. chronic use of alcohol.
Answer:
I THINK ITS 4
Explanation:
Answer:
Chronic use of alchhol
Explanation:
Explain what endocrine disruptors (EDCs) are, and provide 2 examples of EDCs that are found in the environment. Explain why endocrine disruptors are a problem for humans, and discuss why they have not been completely banned by the United States government.
Answer:
Explanation:
Endocrine disruptors (EDCs): These are chemicals that can interfere with endocrine or hormonal systems by altering hormone levels, affecting the synthesis or metabolism of hormones or by changing the way hormones elicit their functions. These disruptions may lead to cancerous tumors, birth defects and other developmental disorders in humans. EDCs are also naturally occurring or man made chemicals that are released into the environment. Humans are exposed to EDCs through ingestion, inhalation or direct contact through skin. Wildlife are exposed to EDCs through food and water consumption. Examples of EDCs are pesticides (e.g., atrazine and vinclozolin) and surfactants (e.g., octyphenol).
Why these chemicals have not been banned by the United State government is because some of them are of economical importance. Example is BPA, which is one of the most high production volume chemicals in the world and these chemicals are widely used in so many products and its very difficult to banned.
Answer:
Group of drugs and substances e,g birth pills which affects/ disrupts normal functioning of hormones in the body are are called Endocrine distruptors. They may be natural or synthetic ,They exhibit their effects by causing over stimulation or inadequate response of the body cells and organs to their effects. They may also interfere with the receptors peculiar to a particular hormone sensitivity,or they may cause over or under secretion of hormones.
Examples are Synthetic Oestrogen as birth pills
and polychlorinated biphenyls.
Collectively theses substances can cause malformation during development as hormones regulates and coordinate most growth and development stages.
they may alter the sequence of events of reproductions which may disrupts fertility.
Some may produce carcinogenic effects from mutations of cells.
some may affects the normal functioning of the nervous systems leading to neurological disorders.
They may affect immune response by interfering with certain proteins.
why they have not been completely banned by the United States government.
This is largely due to deficiencies in the legislation in the USA., to select which distruptors to cancel based on non-voluntary cancellation, rather than threshold safety as observed in EU.
Explanation:
The absorption of water into the blood occurs in the _____. a. esophagus c. small intestine b. stomach d. large intestine
Answer:
C. Small Intestine
Explanation:
Answer:
large intestine
Explanation:
i just took the assignment
i have no idea how to do medical math
Ron has a family history of high blood pressure. He has studied the causes, signs, and possible outcomes of the disease. What kind of strategy has he used to improve his health?
You are dispatched to a private residence for a 52-year-old African American male sitting in his living room complaining of chest pain. During your assessment, he discloses that he has the sickle cell trait. Because of this you should:________.
a. administer high-concentration oxygen.
b. monitor for signs of inadequate respiration.
c. be prepared to treat for shock if he also has a high fever.
d. treat the patient as any other 52-year-old with chest pain.