Answer:
The genes are linked and 10 mu apart.
Explanation:
A female AaBb rabbit is test crossed with a male rabbit (aabb). The male can only produce ab gametes (all the progeny will have ab on one of the homologous chromosomes).
If the genes assorted independently, the female would produce 4 types of gametes with the same frequency: 1/4 AB, 1/4 Ab, 1/4 aB and 1/4 ab.
However, the observed AB and ab gametes were much more frequent than Ab and aB, which means that the genes are linked and alleles on the same chromosome do not assort independently during meiosis.
Recombination is a rare event, so the most abundant gametes are the parentals. That is how we know that the mother had the AB/ab genotype. The recombinant gametes therefore are Ab and aB.
Distance (mu) = # Recombinants × 100/ Total progeny
Distance = (54 + 46) × 100/ 1000
Distance = 100 × 100/1000
Distance = 10 mu
After growing a pure culture of this bacteria, what strategy would be most effective for sequencing its genome?
A. Transcriptome sequencing of the RNA.
B. Metagenomic sequencing of the water from a Galveston beach.
C. Whole-genome shotgun sequencing from the bacterial culture.
D. None of the above.
Answer:
b
Explanation:
The best strategy for sequencing the genome of a grown pure bacterial culture is whole-genome shotgun sequencing, as it provides a complete view of the organism's genomic sequence.
After growing a pure culture of a bacteria, the most effective strategy for sequencing its genome would be C. Whole-genome shotgun sequencing from the bacterial culture. This method is designed for analyzing the DNA from a single organism and provides a comprehensive view of the entire genome. In contrast, transcriptome sequencing of the RNA would be more relevant for understanding gene expression profiles, and metagenomic sequencing of water would be best for the study of microbial communities from environmental samples, not pure cultures.
What happens during the depolarization phase of nerve cells? a. The cell membrane decreases its permeability to sodium. b. A rapid change in polarity to one that is positive on the inside, and the membrane becomes open to sodium ions. c. It is an undisturbed period of the action potential during which the nerve is not transmitting impulses. d. The neurons are stimulated to fire.
Answer:
The correct option is b. A rapid change in polarity to one that is positive on the inside, and the membrane becomes open to sodium ions.
Explanation:
Depolarization refers to the increase in electrical charge along the cell membrane (the stimulation of a neuron, causes an electrical change of sufficient excitatory intensity in the neuron membrane), allowing the opening of the sodium channels that are in the membrane, letting the flow of positive ions to enter to the interior of the cell when its channels open. In this way, the potential changes, since the inside of the neuron becomes positive and the outside is negative, due to the positively charged sodium ions inside the neuron membrane.
During the depolarization phase of nerve cells, the cell membrane becomes open to sodium ions, causing a rapid change in polarity to a positive charge on the inside. This phase occurs in response to a stimulus.
Explanation:During the depolarization phase of nerve cells, there is a rapid change in polarity to one that is positive on the inside, and the cell membrane becomes open to sodium ions. This occurs due to the opening of sodium ion channels in response to a stimulus. As a result, sodium ions rush into the cell, causing a positive charge on the inside of the cell membrane.
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Often the growth cycle of one population has an effect on the cycle of another. As moose populations increase, wolf populations also increase. Thus, if we are considering the logistic equation for the wolf population,ΔN/Δt=rN(K−N)K, which of the factors accounts for the effect on the moose population?
A) r
B) N
C) rN
D) K
E) dt
Answer:
The correct answer is option D) "K".
Explanation:
In this example the wolf population is described by the equation "ΔN/Δt=rN(K−N)K". Even tough the variables are not defined in the question, we can conclude that the effect of the moose population will be given by a factor that has a positive effect in the wolf's population because "as moose populations increase, wolf populations also increase". The factor "K" fits the description because it gives a positive effect on "ΔN/Δt". "K" is a factor that multiplies "rN" at two different levels, therefore the higher the value of "K", the higher value of "ΔN/Δt" will be.
Which of the following contribute(s) to the variation in offspring produced by sexual reproduction?
A. Crossing over
B. Mutation
C. Independent assortment
D. Random fertilization
E. All of the above
Answer:
The correct answer is E. All of the above
Explanation:
Variation in offspring can be contributed by many different events that change the DNA sequence in gametic cells. These events are crossing over, mutation, independent assortment, and random fertilization.
During the gamete formation, the different genes are assorted independently from the other gametes which results in forming various possible combinations of genes in a gamete increasing the genetic variation.
Crossing over occurs during meiosis between the homologous chromosome that results in exchange of genetic material that brings genetic variation in gametes. During random fertilization, the two gametes fuse and genetic material of two different individual comes to make an offspring which forms a genetical different offspring.
Mutation in the gametic cell is transferred to the offspring during fertilization. Therefore all contributes to variation in offspring produced by sexual reproduction.
Final answer:
Crossing over, independent assortment, and random fertilization contribute to the variation in offspring produced by sexual reproduction.
Explanation:
The three processes that contribute to variation among offspring in sexual reproduction are crossing over, independent assortment, and random fertilization.
Crossing over occurs during meiosis when homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material. This leads to new combinations of genes and increases genetic diversity in the offspring.
Independent assortment occurs during meiosis as well, where homologous chromosomes line up randomly along the equator of the cell during metaphase I. This results in different combinations of chromosomes being passed to the daughter cells, leading to variation in the offspring.
Random fertilization occurs when two gametes, one from each parent, come together randomly to form a zygote. With millions of possible gametes available, the chance of any specific gametes combining is small, resulting in further variation in the offspring.
If an organism has a diploid number of 6 chromosomes, how many different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes are possible in its gametes?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 3
D. 16
E. 6
An organism with a diploid number of 6 chromosomes can produce 8 different combinations of these chromosomes in its gametes due to the process of independent assortment during meiosis.
Explanation:The organism in question has a diploid number of 6 chromosomes, which means it has 3 pairs of homologous chromosomes (one from each parent). Therefore, when producing gametes (the cells that combine to form offspring), this organism could create[tex]2^n[/tex] different combinations of these chromosomes, where n is the number of chromosomal pairs. This is due to the process of independent assortment during meiosis, in which the homologous pairs of chromosomes separate randomly.
In this case, n equals 3 (because there are 3 pairs of homologous chromosomes), so the number of different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes possible in its gametes would be [tex]2^3 = 8.[/tex] Therefore, the correct answer to your question is: A. 8
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In this case, with a haploid number of 3, there are A.8 different combinations possible.
If an organism has a diploid number of 6 chromosomes, the number of different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes possible in its gametes can be calculated using the formula [tex]2^n[/tex], where n is the number of haploid chromosomes. Since a diploid cell contains two homologous sets of chromosomes, one from each parent, the number of chromatids that can be combined during gamete formation is based on the different ways these chromosomes can be assorted.
Firstly, calculate the haploid number which is half the diploid number, so for this organism, it is 3 (as 6 diploid divided by 2 equals 3).Next, we apply the formula for combinations: [tex]2^n[/tex], where n equals the haploid number.[tex]2^3[/tex] gives us 8, so the correct answer is 8 different combinations.Therefore, the correct answer is A. 8 different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes are possible in the gametes of an organism with a diploid number of 6 chromosomes.
What is Vaginosis? List some of the members of the normal microflora of the female reproductive organs and discuss factors that may contribute to an abnormal increase in these organisms.
Answer:
It is a common condition that includes overgrowth of atypical bacteria in the vagina
Explanation:
It is characterized by vaginal discharge that is when a fluid flows out from the vaginal opening with an abnormal odor or consistency and sometimes pain, the normal microflora of the female reproductive organs includes Gardenella, lactobacillus, Bacteroides, peptostreptococcus, fusobacterium , eubacterium, as well as a number of other types, some of the factors that may contribute to an abnormal increase of these bacteria or make them become unbalanced can be multiple or new sexual partners although some experts are skeptical about this; IUDs , recent antibiotic use, vaginal douching, and smoking. It is not dangerous but can cause discomfort symptoms.
A recent study used umbilical cord blood to test for 25 hydroxyvitamin D, which is an indicator of vitamin D status of the baby. It was reported that 65% of babies tested were deficient in vitamin D in spite of the fact that the mothers consumed vitamin D supplements during pregnancy. A researcher in a northern region felt that this percentage was too high for this region because with the reduced hours of sunshine during winter months, pregnant women tended to use higher doses of supplements to compensate. A sample of 125 newborns was tested, and 72 were declared to be deficient in vitamin D. What would be the appropriate null and alternative hypotheses that the researcher should establish for a test of significance?
Answer:
Null hypothesis: p= 0.65
Alternative Hypothesis: p < 0.65
Explanation:
Below are the null and alternative hypothesis,
Null hypothesis: p= 0.65
Alternative Hypothesis: p < 0.65
Test statistic for text of significance
z = (pcap –p)/ [tex]\sqrt{ [p*(1-p)/n]}[/tex]
z = (0.576 – 0.65)/ [tex]\sqrt{[0.65×1-0.65)/125]}[/tex]
z = 1.73
P- value Approach
p-value = 0.0414
As P-value < 0.05, we reject the null hypothesis
There is sufficient evidence to conclude that the mother consumed vitamin D supplements during pregnancy. A researcher in a northern region felt that the percentage should be lower for this region because with reduced hours of sunshine during winter months, pregnant women tended to use of higher doses of supplements to compensate.
David comes into the emergency room late at night with a cut that will not stop bleeding. His mother. Rose, is worried that he has a bleeding disorder, just like his grandfather. The lab is closed, so the doctor cannot order a specialized coagulation test However, the hospital does have a sample of blood from a classic hemophiliac. What is the simplest test the doctor could perform using David's blood to determine if it is missing factor VIII activity?
a. combine the samples and check for coagulation
b. determine the factor VIII activity level in Rose's blood
c. compare clotting rates between the two blood samples
d. test the samples for factor VIII mutations using PCR
Answer:
a. combine the samples and check for coagulation
Explanation:
a. combine the samples and check for coagulation
We know that hemophilia is X linked recessive disorder which arises basically due to lacking of clotting factor in the blood (Factor VIII or Factor IX). According to the condition provided if pathology is closed so doctor can not perform the specific test so only their is chance to combine the sample of patient blood with the classic hemophiliac blood sample.As here doctor is sure that the blood sample available in his hospital is of hemophiliac patients so it does not contain clotting factor. When he mix both blood and then if the blood show coagulation it means David do not have hemophilia but if after mixing both the blood sample coagulation will not occur so David may be hemophilic.
Broadleaf deciduous trees of temperate forests A) Have small leaves to conserve energy. B) reabsorb chlorophyll, resulting in the colorful autumn pigments becoming visible. C) grow slower than narrow-leaved trees during summer months. D) are the only type of plant life found in this biome.
Answer:
Broadleaf deciduous trees of temperate forests reabsorb chlorophyll, resulting in the colorful autumn pigments becoming visible.
Explanation:
During autumn and winter, deciduous trees from temperate forests need to store different nutrients that will be used for the plant growth during the following spring. Storaging nutrients in leaves require too much energy and constant photosynthetic activity, which might be very difficult for the plant to support during these colder seasons. To confront this situation, these species have developed some strategies such as leaves senescence. The tree stops supplying water and nutrients to the leaves, so these last ones stop producing chlorophyll. When this molecule is completely lost, other pigments that were masked by the chlorophyll, show up. Before senescence occurs, pigments such as carotenoid, anthocyanin, or pheophytin reveal yellow, orange, red, purple and brown tones, which are the characteristic autumn colors.
Bloom syndrome is an autosomal recessive disease that exhibits haploinsufficiency. A recent survey showed that people heterozygous for mutations at the BLM locus are at increased risk of colon cancer. Suppose that a young woman is referred to a genetic counselor. The young woman's mother has Bloom syndrome but the young woman's father has no family history of Bloom syndrome. The young woman asks whether she is likely to experience any other health problems associated with her family history of Bloom syndrome. What advice would the genetic counselor give her?
A. Based on her family history, she is likely to be homozygous normal at the BLM locus and, therefore, not expected to experience any health problem associated with Bloom syndrome
B. Based on her family history, she will be homozygous for a mutated BLM allele and will have an increased risk of colon cancer
C. Based on her family history, she is heterozygous for a mutated BLM allele but will not have an increased risk of colon cancer because the mutant BLM allele is haploinsufficient
D. Based on her family history, she has only a 50% chance of inheriting a mutated BLM allele and the associated risk of colon cancer Based on her family history, she is heterozygous for a mutated BLM allele and will have an increased risk of colon cancer.
ANSWER:
Based on her family history, she has only a 50% chance of inheriting a mutated BLM allele and the associated risk of colon cancer.
Option: (D)
EXPLANATION:
Bloom syndrome is a heredity disorder which causes reduced height and develops skin rashes when exposed to sunlight. This may lead to formation of skin cancer.Haploinsufficiency is a condition in which one allele is inactive and the existing allele is not sufficient to produce the required gene product for the normal function. BLM is a gene required for the making of a protein called RecQ helicase.There is no cure for the bloom syndrome and children with this disease should be given proper nourishment.Bloom syndrome occurs due to the 'mutation of the BLM gene' located in the 15th chromosome.Which of the following is an example of a disturbance to a community? A. Waves hitting a beach B. Plowing a field C. A mudslideD. All of the above
E. B and C only
Answer:
A mudslide is actually a great threat to a community
Explanation:
The two examples of disturbance of a community are plowing a field and mudslide.
An ecological community is an agglomeration of species that exists together in a habitat. Communities are of great importance in ecological. Certain activities affect the survival of communities such as plowing and mudslide.
Both plowing and mudslide affect the organisms that exists in the soil as well as the fauna and flora that exists on such soil. These activities cause massive disturbance of communities.
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It's another boring day at Hotellgene Incorporated, but you willingly come to work because genetics is your life, and besides you couldn't let your boss down. You set to work crossing red and white beans as part of your experimenting. The beans that you are using are both homozygous for their respective traits. Thinking that this will be an easy cross, you write down in your lab book that the offspring will probably be all red. You assume that red is dominant and white is recessive, but after you do that cross you get some amazing results. Your results: all pink beans. Being the resourceful scientist that you are, you take the pink beans and cross them. As a result you get a phenotypic ratio of 1 red to 2 pink to 1 white. How are you going to explain these results to your boss? The phenotypic ratio is not the expected 3:1.
1. What is the genotype of the red beans?
A. RR
B. Rr
C. rr
2. What is the genotype of the white beans?
A. RR
B. Rr
C. rr
3. What is the genotype of the pink beans?
A. RR
B. Rr
C. rr
4. What is the inheritance pattern observed in this problem?
A. Polygenic inheritance
B. Pleiotropy
C. Incomplete dominance
D. Codominant inheritance
Answer No 1:
The genotype of the red beans will be RR. As red is the dominant trait, it will be written in capital letters.
A dominant trait is the one which suppresses the effect of a recessive trait. A recessive trait is the one which gets masked by the dominant trait.
Answer No 2:
The genotype of the white beans will be rr. As white beans are considered as a recessive trait, hence it will be written in small alphabets.
As explained earlier, a recessive trait gets marked by a dominant trait. For a recessive trait to express its phenotype, both the alleles of a gene should be recessive.
Answer No 3:
The genotype of the pink beans will be Rr.
r r
R Rr Rr
R Rr Rr
Answer No 4:
The correct option is C.
Incomplete dominance can be described as a trait which occurs when a dominant trait is not dully dominant over the recessive trait. As a result, offsprings are produced which have a phenotype which is a blending of both the dominant and recessive phenotypes. Such an effect is known as incomplete dominance.
A scientist receives a seed sample from a plant growing in an unknown location and discovers that prolonged cold treatment is needed to break seed dormancy. This suggests that in the native habitat of the plant, the colder part of the year
A. occurs right before the best growing season
B. is favorable for growth
C. lasts for several months
D. is brief
E. None of the above.
Answer:
a. occurs right before the best growing season
Explanation:
Seed dormancy prevents seeds from germinating in unsuitable conditions such as competing for light and water with other plants or being able to be eaten from a high population of herbivores species during certain seasons.
If a dormant seed is broken after prolonged cold treatment, then this cold part of the year occurs right before the best growing season for this dormant seed. The native habitat of the plant must have an undetermined and cold season that breaks seed dormancy.
Which of the following does not influence the responsiveness of a target cell to a hormonea) the number of receptors on the target cellb) the temperature of the tissuec) the presence and effects of other hormonesd) the concentration of the hormonee) previous exposure to a hormone
Answer:
The temperature of the tissue.
Explanation:
Hormones are the chemical messenger of the body that regulates, maintains the proper functioning of the body. Two main types of hormones are exocrine hormones and endocrine hormones.
The hormone binds to its particular receptor and initiates the signaling cascade mechanism of the body. The binding of the hormone to its receptor is independent of the temperature conditions. The temperature do not have any effect on the response of target cell to the hormone.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
The temperature of the tissue does NOT influence the responsiveness of a target cell to a hormone.
A hormone is a chemical messenger that sends information to different parts of the body.The responsiveness of a hormone depends on the number of receptors present in target cells.The temperature of a given tissue is a physic property that may or may not be associated with hormone activity.In conclusion, the temperature of the tissue does NOT influence the responsiveness of a target cell to a hormone.
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what occurs during the tetrad formation?
Answer:
The tetrad occurs during the first phase of meiosis. It is the foursome of chromatids that forms when replicated homologous chromosomes align. It must be formed for crossing over to occur. It is broken apart when the homologous chromosomes separate in meiosis I.
Explanation: Hope this help (MARK BRAINLIEST)
Final answer:
Tetrad formation occurs during prophase I of meiosis, where homologous chromosomes form pairs and undergo crossing over. This process is important for producing genetically diverse gametes or spores.
Explanation:
Tetrad formation occurs during prophase I of meiosis. During this stage, homologous chromosomes form pairs and condense to become visible as X shapes, known as tetrads. The tetrads are held together at the chiasmata and undergo crossing over, which is the exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids. This process introduces genetic variation and is important for the production of gametes or spores.
In mitochondria, the rate of electron transfer is tightly coupled to the demand for ATP. When the rate of use of ATP is relatively low, the rate of electron transfer is low; when demand for ATP increases, electron‑transfer rate increases. Under these conditions of tight coupling, the number of ATP molecules produced per atom of oxygen consumed when NADH is the electron donor, the P/O ratio, is about 2.5. Predict what would happen when an uncoupling agent, such as 2,4‑dinitrophenol, is added to an actively respiring tissue preparation. The rate of oxygen consumption
Answer:
The correct answer will be- P/O decreases
Explanation:
The uncoupling agents are the chemical drugs which uncouple the two different process of cellular respiration which is the electron transport chain from the oxidative phosphorylation or ATP synthesis.
The synthesis of one ATP requires two electrons on the basis of which ATP production/ oxygen atom or P/O ratio is calculated.
When 2,4‑dinitrophenol uncouples the ATP synthesis from electron transport chain, then demand of oxygen for the synthesis of ATP increases which result in the decrease in the value of the P/O ratio.
Thus, P/O decreases are the correct answer.
Mitochondria is the cell organelle where the electron transport chain occurs and is a series of complexes. An increase in the rate of oxygen consumption decreases the P/O ratio.
What is the ETC of the mitochondria?The electron transport chain is a sequence of complexes that occurs in the membrane of the mitochondria and is a redox reaction. This chain results in the formation of an energy molecule called ATP.
Some of the chemical drugs act as the uncoupling agent and uncouples the molecules of the cellular respiration cycles, including the ETC from the oxidative phosphorylation or the synthesis process of the ATP.
The ratio of the P/O is calculated based on the amount of ATP generated as two electrons results in the formation of one ATP molecule.
The uncoupling agent like 2,4‑dinitrophenol uncouple the synthesis of the ATP molecule from the ETC and increases the demand of the oxygen molecules for the ATP synthesis resulting in the decrease of the P/O ratio.
Therefore, the P/O ratio decreases.
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Clusters of treats that define how people normally react in situations are called? A. Dispositions. B. Fixations. C. Schema
Answer:
Cluster of treats that define how people normally react in the situation are called disposition.
Explanation:
Disposition refers to mood swing and the attitude towards life which surrounds one person. It is also a description of ones temperament. it mean that the qualities establishing the person or a group. The persuade habit of one person and the natural mind set or an emotional outlook is disposition. It is a 'state of mind' regarding something.You and a friend want to split a double-stranded DNA molecule so you each have half. Is it better to cut the length of DNA in half so each person has a shorter length, or to separate the strands and each take one strand? Explain.
Answer: Separate the strands
Explanation:
The function of DNA is to contain the hereditary genetic information of the cell, by which proteins are synthesized and organisms develop. DNA is made up of monomers called nucleotides. They combine to form a polynucleotide, in this case DNA. Each nucleotide contains three main elements:
Nitrogen bases: These are organic molecules containing carbon, nitrogen, oxygen and hydrogen. Four nitrogenous bases can be distinguished. These are adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C) and thymine (T). Pentosa: It is a five-carbon sugar that in the case of DNA is known as deoxyribose. Phosphate groups: The phosphate in the DNA establishes bonds or "bridges" between the pentoses.DNA strands run in opposite directions and this is known as antiparallel orientation. The nitrogenous bases of one strand bind to the bases of the opposite strand forming base pairs. The base pairs are established between adenine and thymine, or guanine and cytosine. This is known as the base complementarity rule. According to the base sequence of one of the DNA strands (called the coding strand), a certain protein will be synthesized. The complementary (non-coding) strand will then have the complementary bases. By separating the two chains, each one will have exactly half of the genetic information and also adequate information to know the proteins that can be synthesized.
ATP donates energy through (select all that apply)
A. Phosphate ester bond hydrolysis
B. Coupling with an endergonic reaction
C. Phospho Anhydride bond hydrolysis
D. Enzyme-mediated reactions
E. none is correct
Some anoxygenic photosynthetic bacteria are able to use _______ as an electron source.
A. light
B. CO2
C. H2S
D. H2O
E. Nitrate
__________pathogens only cause diseases under certain circumstances, e.g. in immune compromised hosts
Answer:
ATP donates energy through C phospho anhydride bond hydrolysis.
Explanation:
ATP or adenosine triphosphate is an energy rich compound which contain 3 phosphate moiety that are linked by 2 high energy phospho anhydride bonds.
The hydrolysis of phosphoanhydride bonds releases high amount of free energy which is used by cellular system of our body to exhibit various cellular,biological and physiological functions.
Some anoxygenic photosynthetic bacteria are able to use H2S or hydrogen sulfide as an electron donor.
Opportunistic pathogens only cause infection under certain circumstances eg in immune compromised hosts.
On the planet Seltaeb, there is a rare recessive condition known as Hofner Bassis (BB) in the Blue Meanies, a race whose genomes are identical to that of humans. Individuals with this condition can be clearly identified, as they are very musically gifted. The two alleles at this locus are B (the trait allele) and b.If both parents are known to be carriers for the recessive gene, what is the probability that they will have an unaffected child?A. 0B. 0.75C. 0.10D. 0.50E. 0.25
Answer:
The correct option is B. 0.75
Explanation:
The punnet square for this cross can be shown as follows:
B b
B BB Bb
b Bb bb
As the trait is a recessive disorder, both the alleles of the gene should be BB for the trait to occur. According to the punnet square, there is 25% chance (0.25) that the organism will have the recessive condition.As the punnet square shows, there is a 75% (0.75) chance that the offsprings will be unaffected. However, 50% will be carriers.
Many features distinguish modern humans from the nonhuman apes. However, only two of these features define hominins. Why?
A. Proper taxonomic groups are always defined by the traits that all members of the group share.
B. The evolution of hominins involved several different changes that happened at different times.
C. Only two of these features evolved early enough to apply to all the hominins.
D. Proper taxonomic groups are always defined by the t
Answer:
B. The evolution of hominins involved several different changes that happened at different times.
Explanation:
Answer
Choice B as stated
Hemoglobin consists of four globular proteins, each formed from a polypeptide chain. Each globular protein contains a nonprotein group with an iron ion. This iron ion binds to an oxygen molecule. Thus, every hemoglobin protein can bind four oxygen molecules. Select the correct statement about oxygen transport below.
A. Myoglobin transports oxygen through the bloodstream to tissue.
B. To carry oxygen, iron must be in its nonheme form.
C. Erythrocytes contain abundant myoglobin for transporting oxygen.
D. Hemoglobin is found in red blood cells, which transport oxygen to tissues
Answer:
d
Explanation:
Hemoglobin is found in red blood cells, which transport oxygen to tissues. Therefore, option (D) is correct.
Red blood cells carry oxygen via hemoglobin. Haemoglobin transports oxygen from the lungs to bodily tissues and organs via the circulation. It is the main circulatory protein that transports oxygen. Four globular proteins containing iron ions can bind four oxygen molecules to each haemoglobin molecule.
Myoglobin, a related protein present in muscle tissue, stores oxygen in muscle cells, not in the circulation. Therefore, option (D) is correct.
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n a certain plant, blue (B) flower color is dominant to white (b). You have a blue flowered plant and a white flowered plant. What do you know about the genotype and phenotype of each plant? Now you cross the plants and all the offspring are blue. What have you learned about the genotypes of the original plants?
Answer:
If blue flower colour is dominant to white then there will be two conditions for the dominant plant. It will either have homozygous dominant (BB) alleles or it will have heterozygous alleles (Bb). The phenotype will be blue flower colour.
As the white flower is recessive,it will have the alleles bb. The phenotype will be white flower colour.
If all the offsprings produced by the cross are blue, then it means that the dominant blue plant was homozygous for the trait. All the offsprings produced will have blue colour and a heterozygous genotype.
In the plant species concerned, the phenotype of the plants is determined by their genotype. The blue-flowered plant (which is phenotypically and genotypically dominant) must be homozygous dominant (BB) while the white-flowered plant is homozygous recessive (bb). The fact that all offspring are blue after crossing the plants confirms this.
Explanation:In the context of this question, the blue flower color (B) is dominant and the white (b) is recessive in a certain plant species. From this, we can assert that the genotype of the blue-flowered plant can be BB (homozygous dominant) or Bb (heterozygous), while the genotype of the white-flowered plant has to be bb (homozygous recessive), because white is a recessive trait. The phenotype is the color we see, hence, blue for the first plant and white for the second.
When you cross these plants and all the offspring are blue, this discloses that the blue-flowered parent plant must have been homozygous dominant (BB) because if it were heterozygous (Bb), there would have been a 75% chance of blue offspring and a 25% chance of white offspring, in accordance with Mendel's hybridization experiments. The absence of any white offspring indicates that there were no recessive alleles (b) in the blue-flowered parent plant.
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What causes ozone depletion?
A. Flying airplanes especially at high altitudes.
B. Combustion of a sulfur containing fuel like coal.
C. CFCs leaking from old refrigerators and air conditioners.
D. Deforestation especially in mountainous regions.
Final answer:
Ozone depletion is primarily caused by emissions of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and other similar chemicals into the atmosphere, where they release chlorine atoms that destroy ozone molecules. This process allows more harmful ultraviolet radiation to reach the Earth's surface.
Explanation:
The primary cause of ozone depletion is chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and other ozone-depleting substances (ODS) that are emitted into the atmosphere. These chemicals were commonly used as refrigerants, solvents, and propellants in various industries. Once released, these stable molecules do not dissolve in rain and eventually ascend to the stratosphere, approximately 10 kilometers above the Earth's surface. In the presence of ultraviolet radiation, CFCs release chlorine atoms that react with ozone (O3), destroying it and leading to a thinner ozone layer. This reduction in ozone allows more harmful ultraviolet radiation, specifically UVB, to reach the Earth's surface, increasing the risk of skin cancer and other health issues.
The Montreal Protocol is a global agreement that has greatly contributed to the mitigation of ozone layer depletion by phasing out the production of CFCs and other harmful chemicals.
Which description applies to alternative mRNA splicing?A-protein modifications such as addition of a functional group, or structural changes such as foldingB-heritable changes in gene expression that occur without altering the DNA sequenceC-a gene cluster controlled by a single promoter that transcribes to a single mRNA strandD-mRNA modifications such as additions of a 5'-cap and 3' poly-A tail and removal of intronsE-processing of exons in mRNA that results in a single gene coding for multiple proteins
Answer:
The correct answer is E-processing of exons in mRNA that results in a single gene coding for multiple proteins.
Explanation
Splicing is the process where introns are cut out of the mRNA so only the coding parts for proteins. In this way, genes can code for many proteins, depending on how the amino-acids are arranged.
The description that applies to alternative mRNA splicing is: processing of exons in mRNA that results in a single gene coding for multiple proteins. The correct option is E.
Alternative mRNA splicing is a post-transcriptional process in which different exons within a pre-mRNA molecule are selectively included or excluded, leading to the generation of multiple mRNA isoforms.
This process allows for the production of different protein variants from a single gene, increasing the diversity of proteins that can be generated from the same genomic sequence.
By including or excluding different exons during mRNA processing, alternative splicing can give rise to proteins with different functions or properties.
Thus, the correct option is E.
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Fossils of ancient organisms are found in deep layers of rock, while the fossils of more recent organisms are found in shallower layers. Which two groups' common ancestor would be found in relatively shallow fossils
Answer:
animals and plants
Explanation:
Fossils are remains or traces of animals, plants or other living things preserved in rocks, sediment, ice or amber. They are preserved as molds of the body or parts thereof, as well as tracks and footprints. Fossils and their presence in rock formations and sedimentary layers are known as the fossil record.
The fossil is covered by layers of sediment, which slowly compress until they become, after centuries or millennia, into rocks. The time required to build all this is millions of years and the oldest rocks are below. Often lower fossils are older than higher fossils. For example, if trilobites are found in the deepest layers, since they are more primitive beings; whereas plants and animals are found in the shallower layers.
Final answer:
Fossils of ancient organisms are found in deep layers of rock, while the fossils of more recent organisms are found in shallower layers. This pattern can be explained by the principle of relative dating.
Explanation:
Fossils of ancient organisms are found in deep layers of rock, while the fossils of more recent organisms are found in shallower layers. This pattern of fossil distribution can be explained by the principle of relative dating, which states that lower rock layers are older than the ones above them.
Therefore, the common ancestors of the two groups would be found in relatively shallow fossils. For example, if we consider the whale and the seal, both belong to the group of mammals, and their common ancestor would be found in relatively shallow fossils.
We wish to address is whether cells we have tentatively identified as cued fear conditioning cells increase their responses to the CS because the synapses between CS-representing neurons and the conditioning cells are subject to LTP. If this is in fact the case, would you expect these cells to respond to a US priorto conditioning? (a) yes (b) no
Answer:
Yes
Explanation:
At first the response would probably be very weak or faint and not very detectable. After sometime the connection may become stronger and thus more recognizable.
Choose true or false for the following statements.
1. Alleles of every gene in a population make up the population’s gene pool.
2. A population in genetics always includes all members of a particular species.
3. Once a population is established, its genetic composition does not change over time.
4. Population genetics looks at changes in genetic variation that occur over time.
Answer No 1: True
Gene pool can be described as the number of genes which are present in a population of organisms which can interbreed. All the genetic information that is present in a population is the gene pool. As genes are made up of alleles, all the alleles which are present in a population will make up the gene pool.
Answer No 2: False
In genetics, a population can be described as the members of a species which can interbreed and produce fertile offsprings that are living in a certain area during a certain time period.
The option 2 is false because it does not specify area and time period in the definition.
Answer No 3: False
Over time, the genetic composition of a population will change. The organisms which will better adapted to survive to the environmental changes will survive and reproduce. The organisms which are not properly adapted might not be able to survive at all or they might become lesser in number. Hence, the genetic composition keeps changing depending on environmental changes.
Answer No 4: True
Population genetics can be described as a study of the genetic variations which occur in a certain population. It evaluates the gene frequency and how the gene frequency changes for a certain gene changes over time in a population.
Population genetics helps us to recognize the alleles which are better suited for an environment and which are present in a certain environment in abundance.
The statements about population genetics are evaluated for their accuracy: the gene pool is made up of all alleles in a population, a genetic population does not necessarily include all species members, genetic compositions of populations do change over time due to various factors, and population genetics does study changes in genetic variation over time.
Explanation:The student presents four statements about population genetics and asks whether each is true or false. Let's evaluate each statement:
Alleles of every gene in a population make up the population's gene pool. - True
A population in genetics always includes all members of a particular species. - False (A genetic population consists of members of a species that interbreed and share a gene pool.)
Once a population is established, its genetic composition does not change over time. - False (Allele frequencies within a population can change due to natural selection, genetic drift, gene flow, and mutations.)
Population genetics looks at changes in genetic variation that occur over time. - True
Population genetics is the study of how selective forces change the allele frequencies and genetic variation within a population over time, affecting its gene pool. Factors such as natural selection, genetic drift, gene flow, and mutations contribute to these changes, contrasting with the notion that a population's genetic makeup remains static.
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Scientist think colonies of Cyanobacteria called stromatolites were responsible for the introduction of oxygen into earths atmosphere ) true or false
Answer:
Scientist think colonies of Cyanobacteria called stromatolites were responsible for the introduction of oxygen into earths atmosphere is true.
Explanation:
In primeval earth’s atmosphere, stromatolites (colonies of Cyanobacteria) are believed to have increased the level of oxygen by their photosynthesis process. These are the first known organisms that started photosynthesis process and produced the oxygen to the earth’s atmosphere. There is a theory that, these organisms produced oxygen in the environment and the organism disappeared that couldn’t live in the atmosphere with the oxygen.Scientists gave this a name called as “great oxygenation event”.how do you think the declaration of independence changed life in the colonies
Answer:
indepent change every body live because it set slaves free
Explanation:
read tx history book up under geroge Washington
The declaration of independence gave birth to what is known today as USA . The document is symbolic of American democracy and one of the charecters of freedom . The words stated in the declaration railed support from colonists at home and colonists abroad .
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