A hydrogen atom is in state N = 4, where N = 1 is the lowest energy state. What is K+U in electron volts for this atomic hydrogen energy state? E4 = eV The hydrogen atom makes a transition to state N = 2. What is K+U in electron volts for this lower atomic hydrogen energy state? E2 = eV What is the energy in electron volts of the photon emitted in the transition from level N = 4 to N = 2? Ephoton = eV

Answer:

Explanation:

Given that,

Initial speed of the girl is

u = 1.4m/s

Height she is going is

H = 2.45m

Incline plane she will pass to that height

L = 12.4m

Mass of girl and bicycle is

M=60kg

Frictional force that oppose motion is

Fr = 41N

Speed at lower end of inclined plane

V2 = 6.7m/s

Work done by the girl when the car travel downward

Using conservation of energy

K.E(top) + P.E(top) + work = K.E(bottom) + P.E(bottom) + Wfr

Where Wfr is work done by friction

Wfr = Fr × d

P.E(bottom) is zero, sicne the height is zero at the ground

K.E is given as ½mv²

Then,

½M•u² + MgH + W = ½M•V2² + 0 + Fr×d

½ × 60 × 1.4² + 60×9.8 × 2.45 + W = ½ × 60 × 6.7² + 41 × 12.4

58.8 + 1440.5 + W = 1855.1

W = 1885.1 —58.8 —1440.5

W = 355.8 J

Final answer:

To hold the projectile in position, the force required is 20 Newtons.

Explanation:

To calculate the force required to hold the projectile in position, we need to consider the acceleration of the projectile in the pipe.

From the given information, we can calculate the acceleration using the formula:

Acceleration = Change in velocity / Time taken

Since the mean velocity is given as 6 m/s, we can use this as the final velocity and assume the initial velocity is 0 m/s.

Substituting the values in the formula, we have:

Acceleration = (6 m/s - 0 m/s) / 0.3 m = 20 m/s^2

Now we can calculate the force using Newton's second law:

Force = Mass * Acceleration

Assuming the mass of the projectile is 1 kg, we have:

Force = 1 kg * 20 m/s^2 = 20 N

Answer:

Explanation:

Given that,

Mass support is

M = 0.95g= 0.95/1000 = 0.00095kg

Radius of circle R = 0.205mm

r = 0.205/1000 = 0.000205m

Then, area of the circle can be determined using

A = πr²

A = π × 0.000205²

A = 1.32 × 10^-7 m²

From pressure definitions

Pressure = Force / Area

The force is perpendicular to the area

Force = weight = mg

F = mg = 0.00095 × 9.8

F = 9.31 × 10^-3 N

Then,

Pressure = Force / Area

P = F/A

P = 9.31 × 10^-3 / 1.32 × 10^-7

P = 70,530.30 N/m²

Since 1 pascal = 1 N/m²

Then,

P = 70,530.30 Pascals

To find the pressure exerted by the phonograph needle, multiply the weight of the needle by the gravitational constant to get the force, calculate the area of the needle tip using the given radius, and divide the force by the area using the pressure formula P = F / A.

The pressure exerted by the needle on the record can be calculated using the formula for pressure P = F / A, where F is the force (in this case the weight of the needle) and A is the area over which the force is applied (in this case the area of the needle tip).

First, you need to convert the weight of the needle into a force. Since weight is a force caused by gravity acting on a mass, you can find it by multiplying the mass of the needle by the acceleration due to gravity (g = 9.8 m/s²). So, F = 0.95 g * 9.8 m/s². However, you need to convert grams to kilograms (as 1g = 0.001kg). Hence, F = 0.95 * 0.001 kg * 9.8 m/s².

Next, you find the area of the very tip of the needle. Since the tip is circular, we use the formula for the area of a circle, A = πr², where r is the radius of the needle tip. Substituting r = 0.205 mm = 0.205 * 10^-3 m (since 1mm = 10^-3m) into the formula will give you the area.

Finally, substitute F and A into the formula P = F / A to find the pressure.

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Answer:

how large a magnetic field would you experience = 8.16 x 10∧-4T

Explanation:

I = 20KA = 20,000A

r = 4.9 m

how large a magnetic field would you experience =  u.I/2πr

how large a magnetic field would you experience = (4π x10∧-7) × 20000/2π × 4.9

how large a magnetic field would you experience = 8.16 x 10∧-4T

Answer: 8.16*10^-4 T

Explanation:

Given

Current of the lightening bolt, I = 20 kA

Distance from the strike of the lightening bolt, r = 4.9 m

To solve, we use the formula

B = [μ(0) * I] / 2πr, where

B = magnetic field of the lightening

μ = permeability constant = 4π*10^-7 N/A²

I = current of the lightening

r = distance from the lightening strike

B = [(4 * 3.142*10^-7) * 20*10^3] / (2 * 3.142 * 4.9)

B = (12.568*10^-7 * 20*10^3) / 6.284 * 4.9

B = 0.025 / 30.79

B = 8.16*10^-4 T

The magnetic field to be experienced would be 8.16*10^-4 T large

Complete Question

 The complete question is shown on the first uploaded image

Answer:

The magnetic field is [tex]B_{net} = \frac{1}{4} * mT[/tex]

And the direction is  [tex]-\r k[/tex]

Explanation:

      From the question we are told that

                 The magnetic field at the center is [tex]B = 1mT[/tex]

Generally magnetic field is mathematically represented as

              [tex]B = \frac{\mu_o I}{2R}[/tex]

We are told that it is equal to 1mT

So

                [tex]B = \frac{\mu_o I}{2R} = 1mT[/tex]

From the first diagram we see that the effect of the current flowing in the circular loop is  (i.e the magnetic field generated)

                         [tex]\frac{\mu_o I}{2R} = 1mT[/tex]

 This implies that the effect of a current flowing in the smaller semi-circular loop is (i.e the magnetic field generated)

                   [tex]B_1 = \frac{1}{2} \frac{\mu_o I}{2R}[/tex]

and  for the larger semi-circular loop  is

                 [tex]B_2 = \frac{1}{2} \frac{\mu_o I}{2 * (2R)}[/tex]

Now a closer look at the second diagram will show us that the current in the semi-circular loop are moving in the opposite direction

    So the net magnetic field would be

                   [tex]B_{net} = B_1 - B_2[/tex]

                        [tex]= \frac{1}{2} \frac{\mu_o I}{2R} -\frac{1}{2} \frac{\mu_o I}{2 * (2R)}[/tex]

                        [tex]=\frac{\mu_o I}{4R} -\frac{\mu_o I }{8R}[/tex]

                        [tex]=\frac{\mu_o I}{8R}[/tex]

                        [tex]= \frac{1}{4} \frac{\mu_o I}{2R}[/tex]

Recall  [tex]\frac{\mu_o I}{2R} = 1mT[/tex]

    So  

             [tex]B_{net} = \frac{1}{4} * mT[/tex]

Using the Right-hand rule we see that the direction is into the page which is [tex]-k[/tex]

Answer:

d) The proper time interval depends upon the speed of the observer

Explanation:

Proper time is the time as measured by a clock moving with the body in motion.

The proper time interval between two events on a world line is the change in proper time, and it depends on the events and the world line connecting them, and also on the motion of the clock between the events.

The correct question is;

An object of mass m attached to a spring of force constant K oscillates with simple harmonic motion. The maximum displacement from equilibrium is A and the total mechanical energy of the system is E.

What is the system's potential energy when its kinetic energy is equal to ¾E?

Answer:

P.E = ⅛KA²

Explanation:

From conservation of energy, the total energy in the system is given as the sum of potential and kinetic energy.

Thus,

Total Energy; E = K.E.+P.E.

In simple harmonic motion, the total energy is given by;

E = ½KA²

We are told that kinetic energy is ¾E.

Thus, ½KA² = ¾(½KA²) + P.E

P.E = ½KA² - ⅜KA²

P.E = ⅛KA²

Answer:

R

Explanation:

Given that,

Two stage rocket traveling at

V = 1210 m/s with respect to earth

First stage

When fuel Is run out , explosive bolts releases and push rocket backward at speed is

V1 = 40m/s relative to second stage

Therefore

V1 = 40 - V2

The first stage is 3 times as massive as the second stage

I.e Mass of first stage is 3 times the second stage

Let Mass of second stage be

M2 = M

Then, M1 = 3M

Velocity of second stage V2?

Applying conservation of linear momentum

Momentum before explosion = momentum after explosion

Momentum p=mv

Then,

(M1+M2)V = —M1•V1 + M2•V2

(3M+M)•1210 = —3M•(40-V2) +M•V2

4M × 1210 = —120M + 3M•V2 + MV2

4840M = —120M + 4M•V2

4840M + 120M = 4M•V2

4960M = 4M•V2

Then, V2 = 4960M / 4M

V2 = 1240 m/s

Answer:

[tex]\frac{g_{2}}{g_{1}} = \frac{1}{4}[/tex]

Explanation:

The period of the simple pendulum is:

[tex]T = 2\pi\cdot \sqrt{\frac{l}{g} }[/tex]

Where:

[tex]l[/tex] - Cord length, in m.

[tex]g[/tex] - Gravity constant, in [tex]\frac{m}{s^{2}}[/tex].

Given that the same pendulum is test on each planet, the following relation is formed:

[tex]T_{1}^{2}\cdot g_{1} = T_{2}^{2}\cdot g_{2}[/tex]

The ratio of the gravitational constant on planet CornTeen to the gravitational constant on planet Earth is:

[tex]\frac{g_{2}}{g_{1}} = \left(\frac{T_{1}}{T_{2}} \right)^{2}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{g_{2}}{g_{1}} = \left(\frac{2\,s}{4\,s} \right)^{2}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{g_{2}}{g_{1}} = \frac{1}{4}[/tex]

Answer:

Look up attached file

Explanation:

Answer:

(a)  277.05 Ω

(b) 15.39 Ω

(c) 3.76 W

Explanation:

(a)

Applying,

P = V²/R.......................... Equation 1

Where P = Power dissipated by the string. V = Voltage source, R = equivalent resistance of the light string

Make R the subject of the equation

R = V²/P................... Equation 2

Given: V = 130, P = 61  W

Substitute into equation 2

R = 130²/61

R = 277.05 Ω

(b) The resistance of a single light is given as

R' = R/18 (since the light are connected in series and the are identical)

Where R' = Resistance of the single light.

R' = 277.05/18

R' = 15.39 Ω

(c)

Heat dissipated in a single light is given as

P' = I²R'..................... Equation 3

Where P' = heat dissipated in a single light, I = current flowing through each light.

We can calculate for I using

P = VI

make I the subject of the equation

I = P/V

I = 61/130

I = 0.469 A.

Also given: R' = 15.39 Ω

Substitute into equation 3

P' = 0.496²(15.39)

P' = 3.76 W

(a)The equivalent resistance of the light string is 277.05 Ω

(b)The power is dissipated in a single ligh15.39 Ω

(c)The resistance of the light string now3.76 W

(a) P is = V²/R.......................... Equation 1

Where P is = Power dissipated by the string.

Then V = Voltage source,

After that R is = the equivalent resistance of the light string

Now Make R the subject of the equation

R is = V²/P................... Equation 2

Then Given: V = 130,

P = 61 W

After that Substitute into equation 2

Then R = 130²/61

Therefore, R = 277.05 Ω

(b) When The resistance of a single light is given as

R' is = R/18 (since the light are connected in series and are identical)

Now Where R' is = Resistance of the single light.

R' is = 277.05/18

Therefore, R' is = 15.39 Ω

(c) When Heat dissipated in a single light is given as

P' is = I²R'..................... Equation 3

Where P' is = heat dissipated in a single light,

Then I = current flowing through each light.

Now We can calculate for I using

P is = VI

Now we make I the subject of the equation

After that I = P/V

Then I = 61/130

I is = 0.469 A.

Also given: R' is = 15.39 Ω

Then Substitute into equation 3

P' is = 0.496²(15.39)

Therefore, P' is = 3.76 W

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Answer:

Δx = 3.477 x 10⁻³ m = 3.477 mm

Explanation:

The distance between two consecutive dark fringes is given by the following formula, in Young's Double Slit experiment:

Δx = λL/d

where,

Δx = distance between two consecutive dark fringes = ?

λ = wavelength of light = 4.9 x 10² nm = 4.9 x 10⁻⁷ m

L = Distance between slits and screen = 2.2 m

d = slit separation = 0.31 mm = 0.31 x 10⁻³ m

Therefore,

Δx = (4.9 x 10⁻⁷ m)(2.2 m)/(0.31 x 10⁻³ m)

Δx = 3.477 x 10⁻³ m = 3.477 mm

The distance (in mm) between the first and second dark fringes of the

interference pattern is 3.477 mm

This is calculated by using the formula in Young's Double Slit experiment:

Δx = λL/d

where,

Δx = distance between two consecutive dark fringes which is unknown

λ which is wavelength of light = 4.9 x 10² nm = 4.9 x 10⁻⁷ m

L which is distance between slits and screen = 2.2 m

d which is slit separation = 0.31 mm = 0.31 x 10⁻³ m

We then substitute them into the equation

Δx = (4.9 x 10⁻⁷ m ×2.2 m)/(0.31 × 10⁻³ m)

Δx = 3.477 x 10⁻³ m = 3.477 mm

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Answer:

The linear mass  density is of the string  [tex]\mu= 5.51*10^{-3} kg / m[/tex]

Explanation:

    From the question we are told that

            The distance between wall and pulley is [tex]d = 0.405m[/tex]

            The mass on the hook is [tex]m = 25.4\ kg[/tex]

            The frequency of oscillation is  [tex]f = 261.6 Hz[/tex]

    Generally, the frequency of oscillation is mathematically  represented as

            [tex]f = \frac{1}{2d} \sqrt{\frac{T}{\mu} }[/tex]

Where T is the tension mathematically represented as

                T = mg

Substituting values

             [tex]T = 25.4 *9.8[/tex]

                [tex]=248.92N[/tex]

   [tex]\mu[/tex] is the mass linear density

Making  [tex]\mu[/tex] the subject of the formula above

            [tex]\mu = \frac{T}{(2df)^2}[/tex]

Substituting values

         [tex]\mu = \frac{248.92}{(2 * 0.405 * 261.6)^2}[/tex]

           [tex]\mu= 5.51*10^{-3} kg / m[/tex]

Answer:

0.005550 Kg/m

Explanation:

The picture attached below shows the full explanation

To solve this problem we must find the values of the equivalent resistances in both section 1 and section 2. Later we will calculate the total current and the total voltage. With the established values we can find the values of the currents in the 3 Ohms resistance and the power there.

The equivalent resistance in section 1 would be

[tex]R_{eq1} = \frac{(3\Omega)(6\Omega)}{(3+6)\Omega}[/tex]

[tex]R_{eq1} = 2\Omega[/tex]

The equivalent resistance in section 2 would be

[tex]R_{eq2} = R_{eq1} +4\Omega[/tex]

[tex]R_{eq2} = 6\Omega[/tex]

Now the total current will be,

[tex]I_t = \frac{V_t}{R_{eq2}}[/tex]

[tex]I_t = \frac{12V}{6\Omega}[/tex]

[tex]I_t = 2.0A[/tex]

Finally the total Voltage will be,

[tex]V = IR_{eq1}[/tex]

[tex]V = (2.0A)(2.0\Omega)[/tex]

[tex]V = 4V[/tex]

Since the voltage across the 3 and 6 Ohms resistor is the same, because they are in parallel, the current in section 3 would be

[tex]I_{3.0\Omega} = \frac{V}{R}[/tex]

[tex]I_{3.0\Omega} = \frac{4.0V}{3.0\Omega}[/tex]

[tex]I_{3.0\Omega} = 1.3A[/tex]

Finally the power ratio is the product between the current and the voltage then,

[tex]P_{3.0\Omega} = I_{3.0\Omega} V[/tex]

[tex]P_{3.0\Omega} = (1.3A)(4.0V)[/tex]

[tex]P_{3.0\Omega} = 5.3W[/tex]

Therefore the correct answer is D.

Final answer:

To find the power dissipated in the 3.0-Ω resistor, calculate the total resistance and current, then apply Ohm's law to find the voltage across and current through the resistor. Finally, use the power formula P = V²/R, resulting in a power dissipation of (a) 12 W for the 3.0-Ω resistor.

Explanation:

The question deals with finding the power dissipated in the 3.0-Ω resistor. To answer this, we first need to find the total resistance of the circuit and the current through the circuit. We then apply this current to the parallel resistors to find the voltage across and the current through the 3.0-Ω resistor before calculating its power dissipation.

First, calculate the resistance of the resistors in parallel. Using the formula for resistors in parallel:

1/Rparallel = 1/R₁ + 1/R₂

1/Rparallel = 1/3.0 + 1/6.0

1/Rparallel = 1/3 + 1/6 = 2/6 + 1/6 = 3/6

1/Rparallel = 1/2

Rparallel = 2.0 Ω

Now, add the series resistor to find the total resistance:

Rtotal = Rparallel + Rseries

Rtotal = 2.0 + 4.0 = 6.0 Ω

Then, using Ohm's law, calculate the total current from the battery:

I = V/Rtotal

I = 12V/6.0Ω

I = 2.0 A

The current through the 3.0-Ω resistor in parallel is the same as the total current, so we use Ohm's law V = IR to find the voltage across the 3.0-Ω resistor:

V3.0-Ω = 2.0 A × 3.0 Ω = 6.0 V

Finally, calculate the power dissipated by the 3.0-Ω resistor:

P = V2/R

P = (6.0 V)2/3.0 Ω

P = 36 W/3.0 Ω

P = 12 W

Therefore, the power dissipated in the 3.0-Ω resistor is 12 W, which corresponds to choice (a).

Answer:

Explanation: check the attached document for step by step solution.

Answer:

the density of a blue block is ___twice _____ the density of a red block.

Explanation:

If both blocks have the same mass, then the block with the lesser volume will be more densely packed when compared to the block with the larger volume. This is because the molecules are more closely packed.

Check the image below for detailed calculations for proof

If the blue block and red block have the same mass but different volumes - specifically, the blue block's volume is half that of the red block - then the density of the blue block is twice that of the red block.

Given the blocks weigh the same, their masses are equal. Density is defined as mass per unit volume (mass/volume), meaning the density is influenced by both the mass and the volume of an object. As the red and blue blocks have different volumes, their densities must be different if their masses are the same.

In the case of the blue block and the red block, the blue block has half the volume of the red block but the same mass. Thus, because the blue block's volume is half that of the red block but the mass is the same, the density of the blue block is twice the density of a red block, not half. This is because the proportion of mass to volume in the blue block is larger than in the red block. In other words: Density of blue block = 2 * Density of red block.

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To solve this problem we will apply the concepts related to the principle of destructive and constructive interference. Mathematically this expression can be given as

[tex]2nt = m\lambda[/tex]

Here,

n = Index of refraction

t = Thickness

m = Order of the reflection

[tex]\lambda[/tex] = Wavelength

We have all of this values, therefore replacing,

[tex]2(1.28)t = (1)(600nm)[/tex]

[tex]t = 233nm[/tex]    

Therefore the thickness of the oil slick is 233nm

Final answer:

A longitudinal wave, like a transverse wave, has properties of amplitude, frequency, wavelength, and speed. These characteristics define the wave's physical behavior and are related by the equation v = fλ, where 'v' is wave speed, 'f' is frequency, and 'λ' is wavelength. Option 2 is correct.

Explanation:

Like a transverse wave, a longitudinal wave has amplitude, frequency, wavelength, and speed. Both types of waves have these fundamental properties, but the way they propagate through mediums is different. In longitudinal waves, the particles of the medium move parallel to the wave's direction of travel, while in transverse waves, particles move perpendicular to the direction of the wave's travel. An example of a transverse wave is a wave on a string, like when playing a guitar. In contrast, sound waves in air are longitudinal waves.

The wavelength (λ) is the distance between adjacent identical parts of the wave, which can be considered from one compression to the next in the case of longitudinal waves. Wave speed (v) is the rate at which the wave travels through the medium. The frequency (f) is the number of wave cycles that pass a given point per unit time, and amplitude refers to the maximum displacement from the equilibrium position within the wave cycle.

It's important to remember that all these properties are related: the speed of a wave is given by the product of its frequency and wavelength (v = fλ).

Answer:

Catastrophic events of weather related outcomes.

Explanation:

The mental map of a person from a certain place may change due to long periods of time outside, since this gives the mind time to forget certain important details, they may also change according to people's experience and perception, places, regions and environments since these places are also changing and the perception we had is no longer the same. A mental map is a first person perspective of an area that an individual possesses. This type of subconscious map shows a person how a place looks and how to interact with it.

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Answer:

Explanation:

d.All of the above

Final answer:

All the listed devices -- bathroom scale, spring scale, and force sensor -- can be used to measure force. Bathroom and spring scales measure the weight of an object, which is a force, and display it typically in kilograms after calibration while force sensors provide direct measurement in newtons.

Explanation:

Devices that can be used to measure force include a bathroom scale, a spring scale, and a force sensor. All of these devices measure force, which can be the weight of an object (the force due to gravity acting on the object). A bathroom scale, for example, measures the normal force exerted by a person standing on it and gives a reading in kilograms by dividing the force in newtons by the acceleration due to gravity (9.80 m/s2). However, it is calibrated to display mass. A spring scale uses the extension of a spring under load to measure force which is typically indicated in newtons or pounds. Lastly, a force sensor is a more general device that can directly measure the force exerted on it in newtons and is often used for more precise scientific measurements.

If you stood on a bathroom scale in an elevator, the reading would change depending on the elevator's motion. The scale would display a higher value when the elevator starts moving upward (accelerating) due to the increase in the normal force. However, when the elevator moves at a constant speed, the scale would read your normal weight as no additional normal force is required once you're moving at constant velocity.

Answer:

option (b)

Explanation:

mass of proton, mp = m

mass of deuteron, md = 2m

charge on proton, qp = q

charge on deuteron, qd = q

The magnetic force on the charged particle when it is moving is given by

F = q v B Sinθ

where, θ is the angle between the velocity and magnetic field.

Here, θ = 90°

Let v is the velocity of both the particle when they enters in the magnetic field.

The force on proton is given by

Fp = q x v x B ...... (1)

The force on deuteron is

Fd = q x v x B .... (2)

Divide equation (1) by equation (2)

Fp / Fd = 1

Thus, the ratio of force on proton to the force on deuteron is 1 : 1.

Thus, option (b) is correct.

Answer:

Explanation:

Given that,

Current in wire is

I = 10A

And the current makes an angle of 30° with respect to the magnetic field

Then, θ = 30°

And the magnetic field is

B = 0.3 T

Length of the wire is

L = 0.5m

Force on the wire F?

The force on the wire in calculated using

F = iL × B

Where

The magnitude of the cross produce of L and B is

L × B = LB•Sinθ

Then, force becomes

F = iLB•Sinθ

F = 10 × 0.5 × 0.3 × Sin30

F = 0.75 N

The force on the wire is 0.75 Newton

Answer:

The magnitude of the magnetic force on the wire is 0.75 N

Explanation:

Given;

current in the wire, I = 10 A

angle of inclination to magnetic field, θ = 30°

magnetic field strength, B = 0.30-T

length of the wire, L = 0.50-m

The magnitude of magnetic force acting on the wire is given as;

F = BILSinθ

where;

B is magnetic field strength

I is the current in the wire

L is length of the wire

θ is the angle of inclination

F = 0.3 x 10 x 0.5 x sin(30)

F = 0.3 x 10 x 0.5 x 0.5

F = 0.75 N

Therefore,  the magnitude of the magnetic force on the wire is 0.75 N

Answer:

First of all note that The magnetic field produced by the vertical wire will be into on the right hand side and it will be out of the page on the left hand side

Assuming that the electron beam is coming from the right hand side of the page parallel to the wire, The direction of the velocity vector(V) is left and the direction of magnetic field due the wire(B) is into the page. If u use right hand rule, you will get the direction downwards but as the formula also depends on q , the charge on electron is negative .Therefore the direction will be inverted i.e Upwards.

If you assume the electron beam coming from left hand side.Then also u will get the same answer.

So, the angle α between the velocity of the electron and the magnetic field of the wire is 90°.

Explanation:

For an electron traveling parallel to a wire carrying an upward direction current, the angle between its velocity and the magnetic field of the wire, according to the right-hand rule, is 90 degrees.

The setting of this problem involves a vertical wire carrying an upward direction current and an electron traveling parallel to it. According to the right-hand rule in magnetism, which states that if your thumb points in the direction of the current, then your fingers will curl in the direction of the magnetic field, the magnetic field of the wire would form concentric circles around the wire.

For an electron traveling parallel to the wire, according to this rule, it would be always at a right angle or 90 degrees to the magnetic field as it moves along the circumference of these imaginary concentric circles. Therefore, the angle alpha (ααalpha) between the velocity of the electron and the magnetic field of the wire is 90 degrees.

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Answer:

Electric potential is associated with electric fields due to static charges but not with induced electric fields.

Explanation:

An electric potential is the amount of work needed to move a unit charge from a reference point to a specific point inside the field without producing an acceleration. Typically, the reference point is the Earth or a point at infinity. Induced electricity is as a result of changing magnetic flux linkage (no charge is involved)

Electric potential is related to the electrostatic field created by static charges and is given by V = kQ/r; it is not related to induced electric fields or magnetic fields because they are nonconservative.

Electric potential is associated with electric fields due to static charges but not with induced electric fields.

This is because electric potential is defined for conservative fields, such as those produced by static charges, where the potential difference is related to the work done in moving a charge between two points in the field.

For point charges, the electric potential is given by the equation V = kQ/r, which clearly illustrates that electric potential depends on the charge and the distance from it.

On the other hand, induced electric fields are produced by changing magnetic fields and are nonconservative.

Nonconservative fields do not have a well-defined electric potential because the work done to move a charge can vary depending on the path taken, unlike the work done in a conservative electrostatic field.

Therefore, electric potential cannot be associated with induced electric fields or magnetic fields.

Answer:

(a)  change in the internal energy of the gas is zero

(b) the work done by the gas is 16.93 kJ

(c) the heat flow is 16.93 kJ, which is into the gas

Explanation:

Given;

number of moles of gas, n = 6.35 moles

temperature of the gas, T = 320 K

initial volume of the gas, V₁ = 1.45 L

final volume of the gas, V₂ = 3.95 L

Part (a)

For isothermal expansion, temperature is constant and internal energy will also be constant.

Therefore, change in the internal energy of the gas is zero since the gas expanded isothermally (constant temperature).

ΔU = Q - W

where;

ΔU is change in internal energy

Q is heat transferred to the system

W is the work done by the system

Thus, Q = W

ΔU = 0

Part (b)

the work done by the gas

[tex]W = nRTln{[\frac{V_2}{V_1}][/tex]

where;

R is gas constant = 8.314 J/mol.K

[tex]W = (6.35)(8.314)(320)ln{[\frac{3.95}{1.45}]}\\\\W =16930.4\ J\\\\W = 16.93\ kJ[/tex]

Part (c)

the heat flow into or out of the gas

Q = ΔU + W

Q = 0 + 16.93 kJ

Q = 16.93 kJ

Since the heat flow is positive, then it is heat flow into the gas.

Answer:

The total length of the spring would be 0.65 m

Explanation:

The Concept

Hooke's law evaluates the increment of  spring in relation to the force acting on the body. Hooke's law states that for a spring undergoing deformation, the  force applied is directly proportional to the deformation experienced by the spring. Hooke's law is represented thus;

F = k x ..................1

where F is the force applied to the spring

k is the spring constant

x is the spring stretch or extension

Step by Step Calculations

We have to obtain x before adding it to the nominal length, We make x the subject formula in equation 1;

x = F/k

but F = m x g

so, x = (m x g)/k

given that, the mass of the person m =150 kg

g is the acceleration due to gravity = 9.81 m/[tex]s^{2}[/tex]

k is the spring constant = 10000 N/m

then x = (9.81 m/[tex]s^{2}[/tex] x 150 kg)/10000 N/m

x = 0.14715 m

the extension experienced by the spring after the compression is 0.14715 m

The total length of the spring would be;

L = 0.14715 m + 0.5 m = 0.64715

L ≈  0.65 m

Therefore the total length of the spring would be 0.65 m

To solve the problem it is necessary to apply Ohm's law. From this it is established that the voltage is the equivalent to the product between the current and the resistance, therefore we have to,

[tex]V = IR[/tex]

Here,

V = Voltage

I = Current

R = Resistance

Rearranging to find the resistance,

[tex]R = \frac{V}{ I}[/tex]

Replacing,

[tex]R = \frac{100V}{20A}[/tex]

[tex]R = 5\Omega[/tex]

Therefore the resistance should be [tex]5\Omega[/tex]

The resistance should be [tex]\bold { 5\Omega}[/tex] in order to limit the emf to 100 V.

Ohm's law:

It states that the voltage is the equival to the product of the current and the resistance.

[tex]\bold{V =I\times R}[/tex]

Where,

V = Voltage = 100 Volts

I = Current  = 20 Ampere

R = Resistance

Put the values and solve it for R

[tex]\bold {R =\dfrac{100}{20}}\\\\\bold {R = 5\Omega}[/tex]

Therefore, the resistance should be [tex]\bold { 5\Omega}[/tex] in order to limit the emf to 100 V.

To know more about Ohm's law

https://brainly.com/question/12865879

Answer:They established the laws of planetary motion.(option B)

Answer:

They established the laws of planetary motion

Explanation:

i did it on edge

Answer:

Explanation:

Given that,

Distance between speaker

L = 4.5m

Minimum intensity at L1 = 0.21m

Speed of sound is

V = 340m/s

A. Frequency of sound f?

The path difference Pd

Distance from the first speaker when you are 0.21m away

d1 = 2.25 + 0.21 = 2.46m

Distance from the second speaker when you move 0.21m closer

d2 = 2.25—0.21 = 2.04m

So, path difference is

Pd = ∆d = d1 — d2

Pd = 2.46—2.04 = 0.42m

Using the destructive interference condition

∆d = (m + ½)λ

m = 0,1,2,3....

When m= 0

∆d = ½λ

0.42 = ½λ

λ = 0.84

Then, using wave equation

v = fλ

Then, f = v / λ

f = 340 / 0.84

f = 404.76Hz

B. Incorrect question

If he is to remain at his initial positions then it is 0.21m from the center.

Then,

Constructive interference is given as

∆d = mλ

Where m = 0,1,2,3

So when m= 1

∆d = λ

And we already got the path difference to be 0.42m

So, ∆d = λ

λ = 0.42

So, applying wave equation

V = fλ

F = v/λ

F = 340/0.42

F = 809.52 Hz

But if we are to use the data given in part B

0.35m from the center..

Following the same principle as part A, the path difference will be 0.35

Therefore, since ∆d = λ

Then, λ = 0.35

So, f, = v/λ

F = 340 /0.35

F = 971.43 Hz