Answer:
E) In the presence of tryptophan, transcription of the structural genes will be enhanced compared with a wild-type operon.
Explanation:
A mutation can be described as any changes which occur in the DNA of an organism. Some mutations can be useful whereas others have devastating effects.
A stop codon is required to stop the transcription of a gene. If this code becomes mutated, then the process of transcription will continue to happen unless a new stop codon is recognized.
Hence, when tryptophan will be present, the mutations will cause more transcription of the structural genes.
Aldosterone is a hormone that is released by the adrenal cortex when your blood pressure is low. It is a fat-soluble molecule and causes water conservation in the kidneys by causing more sodium pumps to be made when it binds with its receptors. Which of the following would be true about his hormone?
1) Aldosterone has receptors on the plasma membrane of kidney cells and activates a signal transduction pathway.
2) Aldosterone has nuclear receptors inside kidney cells and activates gene expression.
Answer:
The correct answer is 2 Aldosterone has nuclear receptors inside the kidney cells and activates gene expression.
Explanation:
Aldosterone is a steroid hormone as a result it is lipophilic in nature.Aldosterone is a mineralocorticoid secreted from adrenal cortex.
As it is lipophilic aldosterone can cross the plasma membrane and binds to the nuclear inside the kidney cell which ultimately result in the genes encoding proteins that stimulate water and Na+ ions conservation by the kidneys.
Which of the following statements explains how an oxygen-rich atmosphere was possible?
a) Rates of oxygen consumption were lower than rates of photosynthesis.
b) Photosynthetic organisms have existed on earth longer than heterotrophs.
c) All of these choices are correct.
d) Rates of carbon fixation and respiration have always been equal.
e) The number of plants has always outnumbered the animals.
Answer:
a
Explanation:
the rate of oxygen consumption were lower than rates of photosynthesis. Photosynthesis occurs at a faster rate than oxygen consumption, more oxygen present in atmosphere than carbon dioxide
Place the following in the correct order _____ Actin and myosin form links _____ Acetylcholine crosses the gap at the neuromuscular junction _____ Calcium is released into the sarcoplasm _____ Myosin cross-bridges pull actin filaments inward.
Answer:
The correct oder is given below:
Explanation:
The oder of the events during muscle conratction as as follows:
Acetylcholine crosses the gap at the neuromuscular junction.Calcium is released into the sarcoplasm. Actin and myosin form links. Myosin cross-bridges pull actin filaments inward.Calcium is stored in and provides structure to bones, but calcium has other important roles as well. Select the statement below that correctly describes a function of calcium in the body or a condition associated with calcium.a. Calcium is an electrolyte that assists in the transmission of nerve impulses.b. Calcium assists in nerve function by causing nerve cells to contract as calcium enters the cell.c. Calcium helps the body build new muscle cells.d. Calcium found in the blood helps maintain acidbase balance by keeping the blood slightly acidic.
Answer:
a. Calcium is an electrolyte that assists in the transmission of nerve impulses.
Explanation:
In the process of muscle contraction, the action potential (electrical impulse) releases the calcium stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum located in the muscle.
Calcium then flows into the cytoplasm, where the actin and myosin filaments are located, which will interact with each other to promote muscle contraction.
Thus, it can be concluded that calcium does play an important role in nerve impulse transmission.
Given the above statements, it is concluded that the correct alternative is "A" .
As for the other statements: Calcium, as described above, also participates in the process of muscle contraction, however it is the muscle cells that contract, not the nerve cells (Statement B).
In addition, calcium does not participate in the formation of muscle cells (Statement C), nor can it make the blood slightly acidic (Statement D) because it has alkaline (basic) character.
What is the difference in the structure of amylose and cellulose
Final answer:
Amylose and cellulose differ in their glycosidic linkages and overall structure. Amylose has alpha-1,4-glycosidic linkages and a helical structure, while cellulose has beta-1,4-glycosidic linkages and a more extended structure. Cellulose is insoluble in water and has mechanical strength, while amylose can form a colored product with iodine.
Explanation:
Amylose and cellulose are both linear polymers of glucose units, but they differ in the glycosidic linkages between the glucose units. Amylose has alpha-1,4-glycosidic linkages, while cellulose has beta-1,4-glycosidic linkages.
Cellulose has a more extended structure than amylose due to the beta-1,4-linkages, allowing for extensive hydrogen bonding between adjacent chains. This close packing results in cellulose being insoluble in water and having mechanical strength.
On the other hand, amylose has a helical structure formed by the alpha-1,4-linkages, and it can form a colored product when bound to iodine.
Amylose has α-1,4-glycosidic linkages leading to a helical structure, while cellulose has β-1,4-glycosidic linkages resulting in a straight chain that enables tight packing and significant mechanical strength.
The difference in the structure of amylose and cellulose lies in the type of glycosidic linkages that bind the glucose units together. In amylose, the glucose units are connected through α-1,4-glycosidic linkages, which promote a helical structure. On the other hand, cellulose is characterized by β-1,4-glycosidic linkages, which result in a straight, extended polymer chain. This structure of cellulose encourages extensive hydrogen bonding between adjacent chains, making them pack closely into fibers, giving cellulose its great mechanical strength and making it insoluble in water.
Due to the different linkages, amylose, and cellulose exhibit distinct physical properties. Amylose can interact with iodine to form a colored complex, which allows it to be identified in starch. In contrast, the lack of a helical structure in cellulose means it cannot bind to iodine to form a colored product.
When you go outside, it is common to hear a variety of bird songs. These songs vary among bird species as well as bird flocks. Interestingly, some bird species that are highly unrelated have very similar song qualities. What can you conclude from this phenomenon? The bird songs are homologous traits. The bird songs have achieved speciation after coming from allopatric species. The bird songs are analogous traits. The bird songs have different molecular DNA.
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-The bird songs are analogous traits
Explanation:
Analogous traits are the traits which evolved independently in the unrelated organisms but they perform the same functions.
The analogous traits are derived due to the process of convergence that is to perform the same function depending on the habitat thus, development of analogous traits explains the convergent evolution.
The convergence could be observed not only anatomically but in the behavior as well as the physiology. In the given question, since the unrelated species of bird sing songs with similar qualities shows that the singing trait is an analogous trait.
Thus, the selected option is the correct answer.
Final answer:
The phenomenon where unrelated bird species have similar song qualities is an example of convergent evolution, indicating the songs are analogous traits, developed independently due to similar environmental pressures.
Explanation:
When we observe that some bird species that are not closely related have very similar song qualities, this is an example of convergent evolution. Here, the bird songs are analogous traits, meaning they perform similar functions but do not share a common evolutionary origin. This is akin to how the wings of bats and insects function similarly but have evolved independently from different ancestral structures. Convergent evolution arises when different species face similar environmental pressures and select for the same adaptations, leading to similar traits.
Mosses and ferns differ in their reproductive strategies from gymnosperms and angiosperms in which of the following ways?
A) Mosses and ferns rely on liquid water for fertilization, whereas angiosperms and gymnosperms do not need liquid water for fertilization.
B) Mosses and ferns have much larger seeds than do angiosperms and gymnosperms.
C) Mosses and ferns use wind pollination, whereas angiosperms and gymnosperms use insects for pollination.
D) Mosses and ferns are primarily diploid in their adult (reproductive) form, whereas gymnosperms and angiosperms are primarily haploid.
E) Mosses and ferns are primarily haploid in their adult form, whereas gymnosperms and angiosperms are primarily diploid.
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-A
Explanation:
The Mosses are the non-vascular plants that were developed from the aquatic plants and the ferns are the vascular plants which developed from the bryophytes.
Their life cycle shows alternation of generation and is largely dependent on the water for reproduction mainly fertilization or fusion of gametes.
The male gametes produced in these plant groups are haploid and are released in water which fuses in water with female gamete which is distinct from the higher plant groups gymnosperms and angiosperms where fertilization is mediated by mostly the wind or insects.
Thus, option-A is the correct answer.
Autonomic nervous system sympathetic and parasympathetic
Answer:
The answer is the subdivisions of the Autonomic nervous system.
Explanation:
The sympathetic and parasympathetic are the subdivisions of the Autonomic Nervous System. Their actions are usually antagonistic to each other.
Which of the following terms best characterizes catabolite repression associated with the lactose operon in E.coli?a.negative controlb.constitutivec.repressible systemd.positive controle.inducible system
Answer:
Option C, Positive control
Explanation:
This process (as described in question) is termed as positive control of transcription. This is a positive control as it causes up regulation. Up regulation enhances or increases the rate at which an operon transcripts.
This is also known as glucose effect and was first discovered in E.coli. To understand the glucose effect, a graph was plotted which depicted that bacteria utilizes glucose as an energy source till it get exhausted. After exhaustion of glucose, lactose is used for exponential growth
Hence, option C is correct
Which is a common clinical manifestation of hypopituitarism that occurs due to deficiency of growth hormone (GH) or a deficiency of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)?
Answer & explanation:
Hypopituitarism is a rare disorder in which the pituitary gland of the brain cannot produce one or more hormones in sufficient quantity. When this happens, various body mechanisms may not function properly, especially those related to growth, blood pressure or reproduction.
Depending on the hormone that is affected, symptoms may vary, but usually the doctor may suspect a case of hypopituitarism when a child is not growing at a normal pace or when a woman has fertility problems, for example.
The most common signs of hypopituitarism include: easy tiredness, constant headaches, weight loss for no apparent reason, excessive sensitivity to cold or heat, poor appetite, and difficulty to increase in size for children.
The DNA polymerase used in the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) was initially isolated from the bacterium Thermophilus aquaticus that lives in hot springs like Old Faithful in Yellowstone Park. Now called Taq polymerase, this enzyme can be produced synthetically and ordered from a catalog. What best explains why Taq polymerase must be used in PCR rather than human DNA polymerase?
Choose one:
A. Human DNA polymerase would need to be extracted from humans, which would be unethical.
B. Taq polymerase adds DNA bases more quickly than human DNA polymerase.
C. Taq polymerase is much easier to synthesize than human DNA polymerase.
D. Taq polymerase can withstand the high temperature needed to separate the DNA strands.
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-D
Explanation:
Polymerase chain reaction or PCR is the technique which creates the copy or replicates the DNA from a sample. The PCR technique is based on the DNA replication mechanism which employs the DNA polymerase enzymes and primers.
Since PCR is a technique therefore, to break the hydrogen bonds of the DNA, the sample is heated at a temperature above 94° C in which the natural DNA Polymerase will not withstand. So, an equivalent enzyme called Taq polymerase enzyme is used.
Since the Taq polymerase enzyme is extracted from a Thermophilic bacteria known as Thermus aquaticus therefore, the temperature can withstand the high temperature which is provided during the PCR.
Thus, option-D is the correct answer.
1. is the evolutionary history of a species or group of species.2. can produce similarities in body form when similar environments and natural selection have favored similar adaptations.3. Distinguishing between homology, which reflects common ancestry, and , which does not, is critical in determining evolutionary relationships.4. A(n) is a group of species that includes an ancestral species and all of its descendants.5. distinguish clades and thus branch points in the tree of life.6. The use of DNA and other molecules to determine evolutionary relationships is called_________.
Answer:
1. ask seperate questions
2. i look it up to get an answer
3. i dont find it
4. now im here explaining to you that you need to
5. ASK SEPERATE QUESTIONS
Explanation:
ASK SEPERATE QUESTIONSASK SEPERATE QUESTIONSASK SEPERATE QUESTIONSASK SEPERATE QUESTIONSASK SEPERATE QUESTIONSASK SEPERATE QUESTIONSASK SEPERATE QUESTIONSASK SEPERATE QUESTIONSASK SEPERATE QUESTIONS ASK SEPERATE QUESTIONS ASK SEPERATE QUESTIONS ASK SEPERATE QUESTIONS ASK SEPERATE QUESTIONS ASK SEPERATE QUESTIONS ASK SEPERATE QUESTIONS ASK SEPERATE QUESTIONS ASK SEPERATE QUESTIONS ASK SEPERATE QUESTIONS ASK SEPERATE QUESTIONS ASK SEPERATE QUESTIONS ASK SEPERATE QUESTIONS ASK SEPERATE QUESTIONS ASK SEPERATE QUESTIONS ASK SEPERATE QUESTIONS. thank you.
Which human activity would most likely have a positive impact on the environment? Using pesticides to decrease populations of birds of prey Increasing emissions into the atmosphere to decrease the pH of lakes Using parasites for biological control of pests to increase crop yields Engaging in uncontrolled hunting and trapping to reduce populations of carnivores
Using parasites for biological control of pests to increase crop yields is the human activity that would have the most positive impact on the environment.
Explanation:The human activity that would most likely have a positive impact on the environment is using parasites for biological control of pests to increase crop yields. This method of pest control involves introducing natural enemies, such as predators or parasites, that prey upon and destroy pest species. It is an effective and sustainable alternative to using synthetic chemical pesticides, which can harm non-target species and have negative effects on human health.
A nurse teaches the parents of a 7-year-old girl who has been prescribed long-term phenytoin therapy about care pertinent to this medication. Which statement indicates that the teaching has been effective?
a) "We give the medication between meals."
b) "We'll call the clinic if her urine turns pink."
c) "She's eating high-calorie foods, and we encourage fluids, too."
d) "We'll have her massage her gums and floss her teeth frequently."
Answer: I think c) "She's eating high-calorie foods, and we encourage fluids, too." is the correct answer.
Explanation:
Which of the following offers the best explanation for infantile amnesia? a The accumulation of life experiences disrupts the retrieval of early life events. b The emotional reactivity of infants inhibits the process of encoding. c Iconic memories last for less than a second in infants. d Birth trauma prevents explicit encoding. e The hippocampus is one of the last brain structures to mature.
Answer:
A. the hippocampus is one of the last brain structures to mature
Explanation:
hippocampus is the part of brain which plays an important role in learning an d memory. AS infantile amnesia is the inability of the person to recall the events occurs between 2 to 4 years and also before the age of 10 with passage of time.
the fast birth of cells in the hippocampus during prenantal period and neurogenesis is responsible for having inability of long lasting memories.
Infantile amnesia, or the inability to recall early childhood experiences, is best explained by the fact that the hippocampus, a critical brain structure for memory formation, matures late. Other factors like accumulated experiences or infant emotional reactivity might have some impact, but the brain's biological development offers a broader perspective.
Explanation:The best explanation for infantile amnesia, the inability of adults to remember early childhood experiences, is given by option e. The hippocampus, a central structure for memory formation in the brain, is one of the last brain structures to mature. This delayed maturation can provide a plausible explanation for infantile amnesia, as it suggests that the brain's capacity for creating lasting, retrievable memories isn't fully developed in infancy. While other options like accumulating life experiences or the emotional reactivity of infants might contribute to some degree, the biological development of the hippocampus brings a more comprehensive perspective.
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Which major branch of the left coronary artery curves to the left within the coronary sulcus, giving rise to one or more diagonal branches as it curves toward the posterior surface of the heart?
Answer: The circumflex artery
Explanation: the circumflex artery curves to the left around the heart inside the coronary sulcus, there by forming one or more left marginal arteries. the marginal arteries are also called obtuse marinal artery.
The nurse educates a patient treated for psychosis with perphenazine (Trilafon) regarding the measures to be taken to manage and prevent side effects. The patient makes certain statements to reiterate the teaching. What statement of the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
Answer:
Explanation:
If the patient makes any statement that includes the wrong measures or actions that should be taken to prevent side effects then it is clear that they need further teaching. On the basis of treatment for psychosis with perphenazine then such wrong statement may be something like the following: "If I have a dry mouth then I need to take lozenges or eat hard candy for a period of 2 weeks"
Which statement is the best physical description of a gene? A chromosome is a segment of a gene. Genes carry many chromosomes. A gene is a specific segment of DNA on a chromosome. A gene consists of all of the DNA on a chromosome.
Answer:
The correct option is C. A gene is a specific segment of DNA on a chromosome
Explanation:
Option A is false because a gene is a segment on a chromosome.
Option B is false because a chromosome carries many genes.
Option D is false because a gene carries a segment of DNA, not all of the DNA.
Option C is correct because there are many genes present on a single chromosome. Each gene carries a segment of DNA. The position of a gene on the chromosome is known as its loci.
Answer:
c,
Explanation:
a gene is a specific sediment of DNA on a chromosome
Consider the following double-stranded DNA sequence that codes for a short polypeptide. 5'-A-T-G-T-G-G-C-C-A-C-T-A-T-A-A-T-C-A-3' 3'-T-A-C-A-C-C-G-G-T-G-A-T-A-T-T-A-C-T-5' Which strand is the coding strand, and where is the N-terminal end of the resulting peptide located? Consider the following double-stranded DNA sequence that codes for a short polypeptide. 5'-A-T-G-T-G-G-C-C-A-C-T-A-T-A-A-T-C-A-3' 3'-T-A-C-A-C-C-G-G-T-G-A-T-A-T-T-A-C-T-5' Which strand is the coding strand, and where is the N-terminal end of the resulting peptide located? The bottom strand is the coding strand, and the N-terminus is on the right. The bottom strand is the coding strand, and the N-terminus is on the left. The top strand is the coding strand, and the N-terminus is on the left. The top strand is the coding strand, and the N-terminus is on the right. Not enough information is given to answer the question.
Answer:
Not enough information is given to answer the question.
Explanation:
The top strand has the inititation codon, ATG, so by logic this should be the coding strang. However, considering that is a complete sequence for a short peptide, it fails to have a termination codon, since in this case the last codon is TCA, which codes for the aminoacid Serine. The termination codons for DNA are TAA Termination (ochre), TAG Termination (amber) or TGA Termination (opal or umber). So, the top strand has the iniciaiton codon, but lacks the termination, so this is incomplete to make the statement of this strand being coding the short peptide.
Answer:
The answer is C
Explanation:
Mireille began having brief episodes of overwhelming anxiety about a year ago. She doesn't know what causes them, but she has had them in the grocery store, at busy restaurants, and once while driving. Her heart pounds, she has difficulty breathing, and sometimes she feels like her body no longer belongs to her. She is afraid she will go crazy and embarrass herself in front of other people. Based on this information, Mireille may have:
Answer: The answer is A Panic Disorder
Explanation:
Panic disorder is a type of anxiety disorder which usually causes recurring and unexpected panic attacks. The individual feels sudden episodes of intense fear and anxiety and terror when there is no real danger and feels like they are losing control.
It can be caused by severe stress, medical conditions or physical causes.
Biotin is the molecule to which is bound in the process of being transferred to . The carboxyl group of biotin forms an amide bond with a specific side chain of . The reaction produces , which then undergoes further reactions in gluconeogenesis.
Answer:
In humans, biotin is involved in important metabolic pathways such as gluconeogenesis, fatty acid synthesis, and amino acid catabolism. Biotin regulates the catabolic enzyme propionyl-CoA carboxylase at the posttranscriptional level whereas the holo-carboxylase synthetase is regulated at the transcriptional level.
Biotin functions as a cofactor that aids in the transfer of CO2 groups to various target macromolecules. Biotin has nine host enzymes with which it is associated. Humans only have four of these enzymes:
Pyruvate carboxylase (formation of oxaloacetate from pyruvate)
beta-Methylcrotonyl-CoA carboxylase
Propionyl-CoA carboxylase (conversion of propionyl-CoA to succinyl-CoA)
Acetyl-CoA carboxylase (carboxylation of acetyl-CoA to malonyl-CoA)
Biotin's other target enzymes include Steptividin, Avidin, homocitrate synthetase, and isopropylmalate synthase.
In order to provide glucose for vital functions such as the metabolism of RBC's and the CNS during periods of fasting (greater than about 8 hrs after food absorption in humans), the body needs a way to synthesis glucose from precursors such as pyruvate and amino acids. This process is referred to as gluconeogenesis.
"A technician is reading the plates from a sputum culture. On the sheep blood agar (SBA), she sees flat spreading colonies with a metallic sheen. On cetrimide agar, she sees a fluorescent green color in the media with clear colonies. On MacConkey, she sees medium clear colonies that have a "fruity or grape-like odor." What is the most likely organism?"
Answer:
P. aeruginosa
Explanation:
P. aeruginosa is a gram-negative bacteria that belongs to the family Pseudomonadaceae.
From the given question the following points lead us to conclude that the colony that will be growing would be of P. aeruginosa :
1. Flat spreading colonies with a metallic sheen on SBA - P. aeruginosa is known to produce smooth colonies with flat edges.
2. Fluorescent green color in the media with clear colonies on cetrimide agar - P. aeruginosa is known to produce pyoverdin which is a fluorescent pigment under low iron conditions.
3. Medium clear colonies that have a "fruity or grape-like odor" on MacConkey Agar - P. aeruginosa has a sweet fruity odor which is its characteristic odor because of the production of trimethylamine.
Thus, from all these characteristics one can conclude that the organism in the culture is P. aeruginosa.
At Medicago, scientists remove a specific genetic sequence that codes for a hemagglutinin protein from an influenza virus and insert this gene into an Agrobacterium genome. After the hemagglutinin gene is inserted into Agrobacterium, tobacco plants are infected with the Agrobacterium and the hemagglutinin gene is transferred into the tobacco plants. Which of the following allows the tobacco plants to express the hemagglutinin gene and produce the hemagglutinin protein?
Choose one or more:
A. the presence of a complete influenza virus genome in the tobacco plants.
B. a universal genetic code.
C. All living organisms produce at least low levels of the hemagglutinin protein.
D. promoters that allow the tobacco plants' RNA polymerase to recognize the gene.
Answer:
The correct answer will be options-B and D
Explanation:
The studies on the history of origin and evolution of life on Earth shows that all the organisms have evolved from a common descendant. This indicates that they possessed the same chemical-genetic or heredity molecule called Nucleic acid whether DNA or RNA.
DNA acts as the universal genetic material as it is present in all organisms except few. The process related to the DNA molecule is the same in all the organisms.
Since in the given question, the transfer of genes to plants via Agrobacterium and then the expression of the gene in plants shows that the passing of DNA has no barrier as DNA is the genetic material and the enzyme RNA polymerase recognized the gene which could help produce the mRNA from the gene.
Thus, options-B and D is the correct answer.
Tobacco plants can express the hemagglutinin gene and produce the hemagglutinin protein due to a universal genetic code and the action of promoters. The universal genetic code allows the foreign gene to be read and expressed by the plant's cellular machinery. Promoters facilitate the initiation of transcription, allowing the tobacco plant's RNA polymerase to recognize and transcribe the foreign gene.
Explanation:The ability of the tobacco plants to express the inserted hemagglutinin gene and produce the hemagglutinin protein is primarily driven by the presence of a universal genetic code and the action of specific promoters. The genetic code is a set of rules that almost all life on earth follows, it dictates how sequences of nucleotides, specify which amino acid will be added next during protein synthesis. Thus, the inserted gene can be read and expressed by the tobacco plant's cellular machinery in a similar way as its own genes would be.
Moreover, the process of transcription - the first step in gene expression - needs to be initiated. This is where promoters come into play. They are DNA sequences located upstream of a gene that provide a binding site for RNA polymerase and other transcription factors, facilitating the accurate initiation of transcription. Hence, correct promoters are crucial for the tobacco plant's RNA polymerase to recognize and transcribe the foreign hemagglutinin gene into messenger RNA.
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One of the functions of skeletal muscle contraction is production of heat. True or False
Answer: True
Explanation:
The statement is true; skeletal muscle contraction results in the production of heat as an integral part of maintaining thermal homeostasis within the body, particularly noticeable during exercise and shivering.
Explanation:The statement that one of the functions of skeletal muscle contraction is the production of heat is True. Skeletal muscles do more than facilitate locomotion and voluntary movements; they also play a crucial role in thermal homeostasis. When muscles contract, they utilize ATP (adenosine triphosphate) for energy, a process that inevitably leads to the generation of heat as a byproduct. During exercise, for instance, the body's temperature rises, a direct outcome of sustained muscle movement.
In addition to the heat produced during routine movements, skeletal muscles also respond to cold temperatures through shivering, an involuntary process where random muscle contractions produce heat to help raise the body's temperature. Shivering is an effective means of combating the cold and is a survival mechanism to prevent hypothermia. Aside from these functions, even when muscles are not actively creating movement, they exhibit a degree of tension known as muscle tone, which stabilizes joints and assists in maintaining posture.
According to the passage, the MOST IMPORTANT evidence supporting the opinion that viruses are not alive is that they
A) cause disease.
B) contain DNA or RNA.
C) are much smaller than bacteria.
D) do not have a cellular structure.
Answer:
D) do not have a cellular structure.
Explanation:
Viruses are known to be acellular as they do not have cellular structure. they do not have most of the cellular components i.e they dont have
Plasma membrane
ribosomes
although viruses consist of nucleic acids, proteins,lipids and carbohydrates but they dont have the ability to perform and function and divide unless they enter any other living host cell. viruses uses the machinery of the living host cell and without the cells viruses are unable to divide.
Why do people think of pigs as dirty creatures?
Answer:
bc, pigs smell and they love mud and mostly in cartoons they feed them leftovers.
Explanation:
when in reality mud keeps them cool and the stink is just poop and they dont eat leftovers, they eat oats and some weird white powder that makes them fat.
Answer:
because they are in the mud along time but it is to cool down and pigs are one of the cleanest know animals
An important challenge to traditional (pre-1860) ideas about species was the observation that seemingly dissimilar organisms, such as hummingbirds, humans, and whales, have similar skeletal structures. This most directly suggested to biologists that
only the best-adapted organisms can survive
advantageous changes can be passed along to offspring
most evolution occurs rapidly following a mass extinction
dissimilar organisms might have evolved from a distant, common ancestor
all of the above
Answer:
The correct answer will be option- dissimilar organisms might have evolved from a distant, common ancestor
Explanation:
Evolution is a field of biology which studies the history of survival of the organism on Earth or the history of life but not the origin of life on earth. The evolutionary biologists thus collect the evidence in the form of fossils which provides a clue to understanding the survival of species in past times.
Before the concept of natural selection provided by Charles Darwin, Evolutionary Biologists were puzzled with their same skeletal structural specimens collected but of the dissimilar organisms as it lacks the links between these species.
It was the theory of evolution which suggested the mechanism of divergent evolution which solved this puzzle.
Thus, the selected option is the correct answer.
A new species of plant is discovered that closely resembles a known species. Upon further examination, it is discovered that the new species has a tetraploid number of 4n = 12, while the known species has a diploid number of 2n = 6.Which of the following statements provides a reasonable explanation for the evolution of this new species of plant?
Answer:
Explanation:
An error in cell division occurred in the known species, leading to the development of an autopolyploid tetraploid offspring that evolved into the new species.
A promoter and a start codon are similar in that both are sequences of__________ that are required to start important processes, and both determine the sites where the process will begin. The key differences are that the promoter is needed to start_____and the start codon is needed to start________. Also, the promoter is a________ sequence only, and the start codon is a sequence found within a(n)_______.
Answer:
The answers are: NUCLEIC ACID, TRANSCRIPTION, TRANSLATION, DNA, AND MRNA.
Explanation:
A promoter and a start codon are similar in that both are sequences of____NUCLEIC ACID______ that are required to start important processes, and both determine the sites where the process will begin. The key differences are that the promoter is needed to start__TRANSCRIPTION___and the start codon is needed to start____TRANSLATION____. Also, the promoter is a___DNA _____ sequence only, and the start codon is a sequence found within a(n)___MRNA.____.
Though some bacteria cause disease and illness in humans, the majority are harmless. Some bacteria are used to aid digestion, used in preparation of certain foods, used to battle infections or used by industry. Bacteria have many important roles in nature. All BUT ONE is a role of bacteria out in the world around us.
A) Some bacteria increase the soil fertility.
B) Bacteria carry out 60% of total nitrogen fixation in natural ecosystems.
C) Bacteria are responsible for converting sunlight into usable chemical energy.
D) Bacteria decompose organic matter, by decay and putrefaction, to keep our earth clean.
Answer:
C) Bacteria are responsible for converting sunlight into usable chemical energy.
**This is the role of producers, mostly plants and algae, on Earth. Producers start a food chain; decomposers like bacteria complete it.
Bacteria have many important roles in nature except being responsible for
converting sunlight into usable chemical energy.
Bacteria are organisms and are prokaryotes and have some beneficial
uses e.g in decomposition as well as non-beneficial uses e.g pathogens for
illnesses.
Bacteria however don't convert sunlight into usable chemical energy as this
is done by the primary producers such as plants. This process is regarded as
photosynthesis in which plants convert light energy from the sun to
chemical energy needed by the consumers.
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