Answer:
d) "Tell me more about your fears and concerns."
Explanation:
Statement a) implies the nurse would be imposing her choice on the patient, instead of considering the patient’s concerns and assisting her in deciding a better treatment procedure to undertake.
Statement b) cannot be the best response from the nurse because, the suggested less invasive surgical operation procedure is limited in scope and may not adequately get all the affected tissues removed. The stage of the cancer and how severe it is should inform the type of treatment the patient can be advised to undergo. A combination of treatments might also be needed depending on the stage and nature of the cancer to be treated.
Statement d) is a better response compared to c) and b) and a). Getting to know the fears and concerns of the patient would help enable the nurse to ascertain if the patient has full knowledge about the scheduled procedure as well as address, adequately, the areas that needs further clarification and remove all fears and doubts the patient is having towards the procedure she has decided to undergo.
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Which of the following blood vessels would have the highest blood pressure?
A. A dilated vessel with high blood volume
B. A constricted vessel with high blood volume
C. A dilated vessel with low blood volume
D. A constricted vessel with low blood volume
B because it is constricted vessel that has the highest blood volume or pressure.
The highest blood pressure would be found in a constricted vessel with high blood volume due to increased resistance combined with a large volume of blood.
The blood vessel that would have the highest blood pressure is B. A constricted vessel with high blood volume. Blood pressure, which is the force exerted by circulating blood on the walls of blood vessels, is influenced by several factors including vessel diameter and blood volume. A constricted vessel reduces the lumen size through which the blood can flow, resulting in increased resistance. Combined with high blood volume, this resistance further elevates the blood pressure within the vessel. By contrast, dilation of a blood vessel allows for more space and therefore less pressure for the same volume of blood.
An important difference between glycosidic linkages in polysaccharides and the linkages between monomers in proteins and nucleic acids is _____.
Answer:
the location and geometry
Explanation:
Proteins and nucleic acids are formed between the same locations in the monomers, but this is not true for glycosidic bonds.
The location and geometry of the glycosidic bonds can vary greatly between polysaccharides and can sometimes produce branched chains that are not seen in nucleic acids or proteins.
An important difference between glycosidic linkages in polysaccharides and the linkages between monomers in proteins and nucleic acids is cellulose.
Explanation:An important difference between glycosidic linkages in polysaccharides and the linkages between monomers in proteins and nucleic acids lies in the nature and function of these bonds.
Polysaccharides, such as cellulose, glycogen, starch, and chitin, are composed of monosaccharide monomers linked together by glycosidic bonds, which could be α-1,4, β-1,4, or α-1,6 glycosidic linkages, depending on the type of the polysaccharide. These bonds contribute to the structural properties and biological functions of these polysaccharides.
On the other hand, monomers in proteins and nucleic acids are linked together by peptide bonds and phosphodiester bonds respectively. A peptide bond is a covalent bond between two amino acids, while a phosphodiester bond is a type of covalent bond that occurs between the sugar of one nucleotide and the phosphate of the next.
These bonds play a vital role in the formation of the secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structures of proteins and the double-helix structure of DNA.
Therefore, glycosidic linkages in polysaccharides and the linkages in proteins and nucleic acids are different in their chemical nature, function, and contribution to the structure and properties of these large macromolecules.
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Almeda’s skin has lost some flexibility and the lens of her left eye is beginning to cloud. She is concerned that the normally separate protein fibers that make up her body’s connective tissue are forming bonds with one another. You can tell Almeda that she can reduce cross-linking by: .
Answer: Eating a healthy diet
Explanation:
Connective tissue is characterized by varying amounts of extracellular matrix, which surrounds various cell types. This tissue is also called support tissue, since it is related to the epithelial and muscular tissues to which it gives support and fills the spaces between cells and organs. Also, the eye's outer layer is made of dense connective tissue, which protects the eyeball. In addition, the connective tissue transports nutrients from the blood capillaries to the various tissues and, conversely, also mobilises waste products from metabolism into the blood.
There are many protein fibers found in connective tissues such as collagen which provide strength to the tissue, preventing it from being torn. So, formation of connective tissue proteins like is affected by a nutrition deficiency.
A healthy, balanced diet, including the proper amounts of protein, can prevent the skin and vision problems she has.
An organ system consists of An organ system consists of a. a group of coordinated tissues. b. blood, lymph, and other body fluids. c. organs that collectively perform a vital body function. d. a collection of similar cells.
An organ system consists of organs that work together to carry out a vital body function. These systems include groups of organs that coordinate with various cells and tissues for the survival of the organism.
Explanation:An organ system in the context of biology refers to c. organs that collectively perform a vital body function. This organ system comprises different organs working in harmony, which, in turn, coordinate with various cells and tissues. These organs collectively perform a specific function that is crucial to the survival of the organism. For instance, the digestive system, including the stomach, small intestine, and large intestine, works together to break down food, absorb nutrients, and eliminate waste.
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While attempting to capture the scorpion, the mouse's heart rate increases, and there is an increase in epinephrine in the mouse's blood. What nervous system division is responsible for the mouse's physiological state? Please use the following information to answer the questions below. The southern grasshopper mouse feeds regularly on the Arizona bark scorpion, the most venomous scorpion in the United States. While attempting to capture the scorpion, the mouse usually gets stung multiple times by the scorpion but does not seem to be affected. While attempting to capture the scorpion, the mouse's heart rate increases, and there is an increase in epinephrine in the mouse's blood. What nervous system division is responsible for the mouse's physiological state?a.sympatheticb.parasympatheticc.sensoryd.enteric
Answer:
a. sympathetic nervous system
Explanation:
The sympathetic nervous system is part of the autonomic nervous system that is specifically responsible for the “fight or flight” response of the body when exposed to stress or threat. These responses to danger or stress are often involuntary. It is characterized with increased heart rate, constriction of blood vessels, profuse sweating, increased blood pressure etc.
When the sympathetic nervous system is activated in he presence of stress or a threat, epinephrine is released, initiating various reactions in the body against such threat or stimulus.
The mouse's increased heart rate and high epinephrine level during scorpion hunting is controlled by the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system, which drives the 'fight or flight' response.
Explanation:The physiological state of the mouse, characterized by high epinephrine levels and a high heart rate while hunting the scorpion, is primarily governed by the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system. This part of the nervous system enacts the "fight or flight" response, mobilizing the animal's resources to respond to threatening situations. Functions controlled by the sympathetic nervous system include faster heart rate and inhibited digestion, all aiming to prepare the organism for physical strain required to confront danger or escape it.
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Which of the following disorders affects men and women in equal numbers and is characterized by a chronic, progressive chorea (involuntary and irregular movements that flow randomly from one area of the body to another)?a. Huntington's diseaseb. AIDSc. Alzheimer's diseased. Parkinson's disease
Answer:
Huntington's disease. (Ans. A)
Explanation:
Huntington's disease: It is known as the inherited disorder (degenerative) which cause the breakdown of the central nervous system.
Huntington's disease mainly causes functional abilities, and result in movements (such as slow eye movement, muscle problem like dystonia and rigidity), psychiatric (such as insomnia, feeling of sadness and loss of energy), and cognitive disorder (such as lack of action, and flexibility, slowness on finding words, etc.)
All but one of the following statements are true regarding the differences between early and late spermatids. Select the answer below that does not reflect a difference between early and late spermatids.
A) Early spermatids are round and have excessive cytoplasm.
B) Early spermatids have not undergone meiosis and are still diploid.
C) Early spermatids have not undergone spermiogenesis.
D) Early spermatids have not formed a flagella.
Answer:
B) Early spermatids have not undergone meiosis and are still diploid.
Explanation:
Spermatids are formed at the end of meiosis in the testes of male. Spermatids are haloid cells in which chromosome numbers are half as compared to their parent cells. An early spermatid has not undergone morphologic changes and is considered less mature than the late spermatid.
Late spermatids undergo morphological changes (spermiogenesis) and they transform into a spermatozoa which is ready to release in the lumen.
Why is energy lost when herbivores eat primary producers?
Herbivores lose energy when they eat primary producers due to the second law of thermodynamics and the conversion of energy to metabolic heat.
Explanation:Energy is lost when herbivores eat primary producers due to the second law of thermodynamics, which states that energy is lost whenever it is converted from one form to another. As organisms consume other organisms, a significant amount of energy is lost as metabolic heat. This results in a decrease in the amount of energy available to the herbivores at the next trophic level, which impacts the overall energy flow in the ecosystem.
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Cells in a large multicellular organism communicate with each other by chemical signals. These signals are passed from one cell to another. To receive and respond to a chemical signal, a cell must have a _________ for that chemical.
Answer:
Receptor
Explanation:
Cells in a large multicellular organism communicate with each other by chemical signals. These signals are passed from one cell to another. To receive and respond to a chemical signal, a cell must have a
receptor for that chemical.
Cells in a large multicellular organism communicate with each other by chemical signals. These signals are passed from one cell to another. To receive and respond to a chemical signal, a cell must have a receptor for that chemical.
Receptors are specialized proteins or molecules located on the cell's surface or within the cell that bind to specific signaling molecules (ligands) released by other cells. When a ligand binds to its corresponding receptor, it triggers a series of molecular events within the cell, leading to a cellular response. This communication process is vital for coordinating various activities within a multicellular organism and ensuring proper physiological functions. Receptors are specific to particular signaling molecules, enabling cells to selectively respond to the appropriate signals and maintain homeostasis in the organism.
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What type of division (meiosis or mitosis) does the diploid zygote of an animal have to go through (usually many times) in order to give rise to all of the cells in the adult body?
Answer:
Mitosis
Explanation:
A zygote is a fertilized egg. This zygote needs continuous growth in order to develop into a grown adult. The growth involves generating new somatic or body cells through cell division. A parent cell in the zygote divides to produce identical copies of itself. This way, genetic information is passed on the the new arising daughter cells. To do this, the parent cell must first replicate its DNA and the process of separating this duplicated DNA into two identical cells is known as mitosis.
Mitosis is a type of cell division that involves the production of daughter cells that are genetically identical copies of the parent cell and also the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell.
As cells divide, duplication occurs. As cell multiplies, growth is occurring in the organism. The zygote keeps undergoing growth division (mitosis) till it gives rise to all the cells in an adult.
On the other hand, Meiosis is also a type of cell division but it is a division mainly involved in reproduction not growth. Reproductive cells divide to give rise to daughter cells (gametes) that have a reduced number of chromosomes.
Bacteria and humans use the same DNA components, and both kinds of cells also perform transcription and translation. Which of the following choices is a potentially significant outcome of this shared mechanism?
a) Bacteria are able to transcribe and translate human DNA. thus, they could evolve into human's
b) Bacteria are able to transcribe and translate human DNA. and thus, they potentially could produce human proteins
c) Bacterial and human proteins are identical in amino acid sequence because the mechanism for producing them is the same
d) Bacterial and human DNA are identical in sequence because the method for producing them is the same
Answer:
The correct answer is b) Bacteria are able to transcribe and translate human DNA. and thus, they potentially could produce human proteins.
Explanation:
Bacteria could produce human proteins, but they don't need them, so their physiological mechanism produces only the proteins and secondary metabolites needed.
Bacteria can transcribe and translate human DNA due to the shared machinery between bacterial and human cells, allowing the potential production of human proteins in bacterial systems. This similarity supports the concept of common ancestry and is applied in biotechnology, such as the synthesis of human insulin in E. coli.
Explanation:The potentially significant outcome of the shared mechanism of transcription and translation between bacteria and humans is b) Bacteria are able to transcribe and translate human DNA, and thus, they potentially could produce human proteins. This shared genetic machinery allows for the possibility of expressing human proteins in bacterial cells, which is a foundational principle in the field of recombinant DNA technology. The commonality in cellular machinery is evidence of a common ancestor and underlies many modern biotechnological applications, like the production of insulin using E. coli. It's important to note that, although the mechanisms for DNA replication, transcription, and translation are similar, this does not mean that bacterial and human proteins are necessarily identical in amino acid sequence or that bacterial and human DNA are identical in sequence, as each organism has its own unique genetic code that specifies its individual protein sequence.
Bacterial ribosomes and the mechanism of protein synthesis share similarities with eukaryotic systems, which supports the idea of common ancestry. Additionally, both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells follow the central dogma of molecular biology, where genes along the DNA are transcribed into RNA and then translated into proteins. Although ribosomes in bacteria are slightly different in size compared to those in eukaryotic cells, they are functionally similar and capable of translating eukaryotic mRNA in certain conditions.
Why might a species' "optimal" phenotype remain unchanged for long periods of time, resulting in apparent evolutionary stasis?a. Directional selection b. Habitat tracking c. Gradual environmental change d. Saltational evolution e. Passive trends
Answer: Habitat tracking
Explanation:
The organism change their habitat based on the type of environment they are living in. The climate change so did the habitat and according to that the biota changed.
The number of species are always changing. As the environment change the resident population move to a place where there is a better suited environment for them.
The optimal phenotype in this case does not changes and this common response is called habitat tracking.
What minerals are formed when shale and basalt are exposed to low grade metamorphism
Answer:
Slate and Analcime minerals are formed when shale and basalt are exposed to low grade metamorphism.
Explanation:
As a result of metamorphosis of clay, shale and basalt a fine grained rock is formed that is unique slate texture. Slate is formed by low grade metamorphosis i.e low temperature and pressure.Slates are the older rocks perhaps in some places the recent formation can also be seen. It can be of various colours like black, blue, purple, red, green and grey.
Dark colour of the slate is due to the presence of more carbon material. Analcime is a white, colourless or can be grey tecto-silicate mineral. It consist of hydrated sodium aluminium silicate in cubic crystalline form. Analcime is similar to that of zeolite mineral with which it is sometime classed
Final answer:
Shale and basalt exposed to low grade metamorphism typically form minerals such as chlorite, muscovite, and biotite, while rocks like chlorite schist, mica schist, and amphibolite might be produced. The presence of index minerals like chlorite and kyanite can help determine the metamorphic grade and the pressure-temperature conditions of the rock.
Explanation:
When shale and basalt are subjected to low grade metamorphism, several new minerals can form as a result. With shale as the parent rock, we often see the development of minerals such as chlorite, muscovite, and biotite, which can lead to the formation of rocks like chlorite schist or mica schist. Furthermore, if garnets are present, a mica-garnet schist may be formed. On the other hand, when basalt undergoes low-grade metamorphism, chlorite and amphibole minerals are often prevalent, leading to the creation of chlorite schist or amphibolite. Index minerals such as chlorite and muscovite are indicative of the metamorphic grade experienced by these rocks.
During metamorphism, certain index minerals act as indicators for the temperature and pressure conditions. For shale-derived rocks, these index minerals may include garnet, staurolite, sillimanite, kyanite, and andalusite. The presence of kyanite and sillimanite usually indicates medium-pressure conditions, often associated with continent-continent collision, whereas andalusite together with sillimanite suggests low-pressure terranes, possibly in areas of divergent tectonic zones or unique ocean-continent collisions.
Contraction of a sarcomere, and thus contraction of the muscle as a whole, is accomplished by a cyclic sequence of interactions between actin (thin filaments) and myosin (thick filaments) in the sarcomere. Understanding this sequence of events is essential to understanding the mechanism of muscle contraction at the cellular and molecular levels.
Begin by considering a relaxed muscle. In this state, the myosin molecules of the thick filaments are not in contact with the actin of the thin filaments, and ADP and Pi are bound to the myosin heads. An action potential on the muscle cell plasma membrane initiates contraction of the sarcomeres from this relaxed state.
Rank the following events in the sequence in which they occur, beginning with myosin forming a cross-bridge with actin.
A) Myosin head forms a cross-bridge with actin
B) Myosin releases Pi
C) Myosin pulls actin toward center of sarcomere
D) Myosin binds ATP
E) Cross-bridge between myosin and actin is broken
F) Myosin hydrolyzes ATP to ADP and Pi
G) Myosin head extends.
Muscle contraction starts with the formation of a cross-bridge between myosin and actin. Pi is released, actin is pulled towards the center of the sarcomere, and the cycle continues. Hence the correct answer is option E
Explanation:The sequence of events in muscle contraction begins with the formation of a cross-bridge between the myosin head and actin. This is followed by the release of Pi and the pulling of actin towards the center of the sarcomere by the myosin head. Next, the myosin binds ATP, which leads to the breaking of the cross-bridge between myosin and actin. The myosin head then extends, and the cycle continues.
Hence the correct answer is option E
The nonmutant allele of the BRCA1 gene helps to suppress tumor formation in women who are heterozygous for the mutation. Women heterozygous for BRCA1 nevertheless have a 50% to 70% chance of developing breast cancer before age 70, and the usual reason is that the nonmutant allele is lost or inactivated in a lineage of cells. One possible mechanism for such "loss of heterozygosity" is:
A. germ cells in the affected individual develop a mutation in the nonmutant allele of BRCAL.
B. a somatic mutation in a breast cell inactivates the nonmutant BRCA1 allele.
C. a silent mutation occurs in the nonmutant BRCA1 allele.
Answer:
Option B
Explanation:
A silent mutation has no effect on the gene activity and function hence option C is incorrect. Germ cells would affect the gametes produced, not the body's proteins hence the answer would be B.
Which of the following statements about dominant traits is correct?a) They are observed three-fourths as frequently as heterozygous traits.b) The dominant trait is typically masked by the recessive trait.c) They are observed less frequently than recessive traits.d) They increase in frequency over evolutionary time.e) The dominant trait is the one which is expressed.
Answer:
Option E
Explanation:
A dominant trait is the characteristics associated with an allele which is expressed even if only one dominant allele is present in any allele pair.
For example - Let us say that “R” represents the allele for red colour and “r” represents the allele for white allele.
Also, red colour allele is dominant over white colour allele.
Thus in an allele pair “Rr” the colour expressed would be red as it is a dominant trait.
The white colour alleles in an allele pair would be expressed only when both the alleles are recessive.
Hence, option E is correct
The correct statement about dominant traits is that they are the traits which get expressed. This is because a dominant trait overrides the expression potential of a recessive trait and is observed in the phenotype.
Explanation:The statement that is correct about dominant traits is: e) The dominant trait is the one which is expressed. To understand this, let's first define what a dominant trait is in biology. A dominant trait is an inherited characteristic that appears in an offspring if one parent contributes it. The term dominant refers to the fact that the dominant trait overrides the potential influence of a recessive trait. The dominant trait is always expressed in an individual's physical appearance, or phenotype, while a recessive trait is only expressed if the individual has two copies of the recessive gene (is homozygous recessive).
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What genere of games involves gameplay that is designed to simulate real-world or fictionalized activities such as flying a plane or managing a city and often requires resource management?
Answer: The answer is Simulation Games
Explanation:
Simulation games are games that are designed to imitate or closely simulate real-world life activities. The players are able to control characters in the game, they are provided with a simulated environment in which they can play. The characters in the game copy real life activities such as flying a plane, managing a city as listed in the question, cooking, interacting with others, attending school or going to work, etc.
The genre of games that simulate real-world or fictional activities and require resource management is known as simulation games, including the likes of Second Life and Civilization.
Explanation:The genre of games that involves gameplay designed to simulate real-world or fictionalized activities, such as flying a plane or managing a city, and often incorporates elements of resource management, is typically known as simulation games. These games offer a sense of realism and challenge players to think strategically and make decisions as if they are in a real-life situation. Examples of simulation games include city-building games, flight simulators, and life simulation games like Second Life, wherein players create avatars and interact in a virtual world.
Simulation games can vary in complexity and scope. Some simulate a narrow set of activities, like running a farm in Farming Simulator, while others provide a broader canvas like managing an entire civilization in Civilization. The business models for such games can also be quite diverse, with some offering in-game purchases for virtual goods, which has turned playing into a potential source of income for some, as evidenced by the trend of buying, selling, and managing online assets for real money.
Parietal cells of the gastric glands in the stomach produce
Answer:
HCL and intrinsic factor
Explanation:
The oxyntic cells/ delomorphous cells also called as parietal cells. The cells are present in the gastric glands the fundus lining and cardia. These parietal cells are the epithelial cells. The cells secretes intrinsic factor and HCL (hydrochloric acid).
The hydrochloric acid secreted helps in converting inactive pepsinogen to active enzyme pepsin. This helps to break bond between amino acids. This process is called proteolysis. The intrinsic factor helps in vitamin B12 absorption from the intestine and absence of this factor is responsible for pernicious anemia.
Final answer:
Parietal cells in the stomach's gastric glands produce hydrochloric acid, which contributes to the stomach's acidity and activates digestive enzymes, and intrinsic factor, which is necessary for vitamin B12 absorption.
Explanation:
The parietal cells of the gastric glands are primarily located in the middle region of the gastric glands in the stomach. They are highly differentiated epithelial cells responsible for secreting both hydrochloric acid (HCl) and intrinsic factor. Hydrochloric acid plays a crucial role in maintaining the stomach's high acidity, with a pH range of 1.5 to 3.5, enabling the activation of pepsin, an enzyme crucial for protein digestion. The acidity also acts as a protective barrier by killing ingested bacteria and denaturing proteins for easier digestion. Intrinsic factor, on the other hand, is vital for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the small intestine, important for preventing pernicious anemia.
In humans, the trait of freckles exhibits simple Mendelian inheritance patterns. The allele for freckles is dominant (F), and the allele for no freckles is recessive (f). An individual who is heterozygous for freckles would have which of the following phenotypes?
A) Freckles
B) No freckles
C) Ff
D) FF
E) ff
Answer:
The correct answer is A) Freckles
Explanation:
Freckles is a genetic disorder that is controlled by the MC1R gene which is signified by the overproduction of melanin pigment on body and face. Freckles is controlled by the dominant allele so it show dominant inheritance pattern.
Therefore if an individual has even one freckle allele then this disorder will be seen in the phenotype. A person will not have freckles if it has both the recessive allele i.e., ff.
Therefore an individual who is heterozygous for freckles would have freckle phenotype because it contain one dominant allele for freckles which will express in the phenotype. So the right answer is A.
What is located in the postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe?
Answer: The primary somatosensory cortex is located in the post central gyrus of parietal lobe.
Explanation:
Post central gyrus is the gyrus of the parietal lobe which is one of the four major lobes of the human brain that house the primary somatosensory cortex which is the main receptive area for sense of touch. There is a map of sensory space found in this area called the sensory homunculus.
After finishing six pieces of toast with butter, Sally prepares a batch of brownies while eating large bowls of ice cream, yogurt, and cottage cheese. She then eats half a bag of cookies, an entire pizza, and three baked potatoes, even though she does not feel hungry. After eating, she feels guilty, ashamed, and sad but does not vomit or make any other efforts to eliminate the calories she consumed. Sally appears to meet criteria for
a. anorexia nervosab. bulimia nervosac. binge-eating disorderd. restrictive dieting
Answer: Binge-Eating Disorder
Explanation: Sally did not vomit the food away, and she ate way too much food in a short amount of time, which would be Binge-Eating Disorder.
Enchanted Rock State Natural Area is located in Central Texas. Enchanted Rock is a dome of granite. The area contains four easily identifiable communities. The table describes characteristics of each type of community in the area.
A student studying primary succession should focus on which of these communities?
A)
Open oak woodland
B)
Mesquite grassland
C)
Floodplain
D)
Granite rock
Answer:
D) Granite rock
Explanation:
Enchanted Rock is a dome of granite, so you would pick this answer choice.
I am joyous to assist you anytime.
For primary succession studies, focus on the Granite Rock community at Enchanted Rock State Natural Area. This demonstrates how life begins in an area with no soil or living organisms.
Explanation:A student studying primary succession should focus on the Granite Rock community at the Enchanted Rock State Natural Area. Primary succession is a sequence of ecological changes whereby life forms begin to inhabit an environment that previously had no life - typically a bare rock surface, like granite. In short, it's how life begins in an area with no soil or living organisms, therefore the Granite Rock community is the perfect example of primary succession happening as lichens and mosses break down the rock to form soil, promoting growth of more complex plant life.
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An individual accidentally transected (cut across) the spinal cord between T1 and L1. This would result in ________. An individual accidentally transected (cut across) the spinal cord between T1 and L1. This would result in ________.
paraplegia
quadriplegia
spinal shock
only hemiplegia
Answer:
a. paraplegia
b. paraplegia (it is repeated)
Explanation:
• Paraplegia T1-T9 (Requires assistance at least 3 hours a day). People with lesions from T1 preserve innervation and, therefore, the function of all upper limb muscles. They can achieve functional independence, not only in self-care and mobility activities, but also in certain light domestic activities. From this level of injury, an intensive training to carry the manual wheelchair through irregular terrain, slopes and ramps is feasible. From the T6 lesion the patients present a better trunk control. In addition, with proper training, they can make transfers from the floor to the chair. People with injuries between T2 and T9 can achieve prophylactic standing with parallel bitters, with the support of a walker or crutches.
• Paraplegia T10 L1 (Requires assistance at least 2 hours a day) Patients with injuries from T10 have normal breathing with normal vital capacity. As with T1-T9 lesions, they are independent in activities of daily living, sphincter care and transfers. This group of patients is able to perform independent standing and assisted therapeutic walking. Unfortunately for all these activities, energy expenditure is excessive and joint wear of the upper limbs is important. Patients remain dependent on a self-propelled wheelchair for travel.
A client with muscular dystrophy has lost complete control of his lower extremities. He has some strength bilaterally in the upper extremities, but poor trunk control. Which mechanism would be the most important to have on the wheelchair?
a) Wheelchair belt
b) Antitip device
c) Headrest support
d) Extended breaks
Answer:
The “wheelchair belt” mechanism is the most important mechanism to have on the wheel chair.
Explanation:
As the patient have very poor control over his trunk so a belt will be perfect to prevent him from falling out of the wheelchair anytime. The other options doesn’t make much of important sense than a belt for the patient with muscular dystrophy needs, especially when lost control over the extremities. The wheelchair belt will help him in staying in the wheelchair freely without risk of falling off.which of these is NOT true of cells?a. they are much like empty rooms.b. they were first discovered in the 1600sc. they can be found in pond waterd. they contain a huge array of working parts
Answer:
The answer is a. they are much like empty rooms.
Explanation:
Cells are pretty much the opposite of empty rooms. There are many organelles and processes happening in them, so there's no space for empty rooms. Even when there are spaces, which anyway would be full of liquid, these spaces have a purpose.
A Morton's (plantar) neuroma is a foot condition due to swelling of the common plantar digital nerve. It can cause excruciating pain felt between the third and fourth metatarsal bones when walking. Which of the following would NOT be a factor responsible for this disorder?
a) nerve compression
b) nerve irritation
c) nerve injury
d) nerve thinning
Answer:
Nerve thinning.
Explanation:
Morton's neuroma may be defined as the painful condition that affects the ball of the foot and the area between the fourth and third toes. This might occur due to the pressure or injury.
The Morton neuroma mainly occurs due to the thickening of the nerve that may cause nerve compression, irritation and might also cause nerve in the injury. The nerve thinning is not responsible for this condition. The thinning of the nerve might causes diseases related to eyes.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
Some mice have a range of fur color that goes from white to dark brown. If the white mice and the dark brown mice are selected for while the intermediate colors become less frequent, this is an example of
A. directional selection
B. disruptive selection
C. none of the above
D. stabilizing selection
Answer:
The correct answer is B. disruptive selection.
Explanation:
Disruptive selection, in this case, would drive the population to go to a white group and a dark brown group. This meaning that the population starts to divide ending up with two different populations.
The crown-of-thorns sea star, Acanthaster planci, preys on the flesh of live coral. If coral animals are attacked by these sea stars, then what actually provides nutrition to the sea star, and which chemical (besides the toxin within their nematocysts) do the corals rely on for protection?
A) medusae; silica
B) polyps; silica
C) exoskeleton; calcium carbonate
D) polyps; calcium carbonate
Answer:
d) polyps; calcium carbonate
Explanation:
The Acanthaster planci It is a kind of invasive starfish, which destroys corals: it has poisonous spines and feeds on coral polyps at the expense of the reef.
On the other hand, CO2 reacts with water, forming carbonic acid and reducing the available calcium carbonate, an essential element so that marine organisms, from clams to hedgehogs, can form their skeletons and shells.
Answer: The correct answer is : D) polyps; calcium carbonate
Explanation: This starfish feeds exclusively on hard corals. It can be brown, dark gray, purple, orange or red, the difference in color lies in the food they eat. It has its body covered with thorns that uses them as a means of defense.
Robert Sternberg distinguished among analytical, creative, and _____ intelligence.
Please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button.
spatial
musical
practical
interpersonal
The correct answer to Robert Sternberg's three types of intelligence—analytical, creative, and the missing type—is practical intelligence.
Explanation:Robert Sternberg distinguished among three types of intelligence in his triarchic theory of intelligence: analytical, creative, and practical intelligence. Analytical intelligence relates to the ability to analyze, evaluate, judge, compare, and contrast. Creative intelligence involves the ability to create, design, invent, originate, and imagine. The correct answer to the student's question is practical intelligence, which is sometimes likened to 'street smarts' and involves the ability to use knowledge and experience to handle everyday tasks and solve real-world problems effectively.
"In Graves disease, thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins (TSI) contain an active site that can mimic the active site of TSH to stimulate thyroid hormone production. One would expect TSI to cause:"
The question is incomplete. The complete question is:
"In Graves disease, thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins (TSI) contain an active site that can mimic the active site of TSH to stimulate thyroid hormone production. One would expect TSI to cause:"
A. An increase in thyroid gland size because of the trophic effect of TSH.
B. A decrease in thyroid gland size because of competitive inhibition with TSH.
C. No change in thyroid gland size because antibodies only recognize foreign particles.
D. An immune response against TSH molecules.
Answer:
A. An increase in thyroid gland size because of the trophic effect of TSH.
Explanation:
Thyroid-stimulating hormone is a trophic hormone and is released by the anterior pituitary gland. It targets the thyroid gland and stimulates it to release the thyroid hormones. Graves disease is an autoimmune disorder in which the person produces antibodies such as thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins that mimic the action of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).
These antibodies continually stimulate the thyroid gland to grow and produce thyroid hormones. The result is an abnormally enlarged thyroid gland. The affected individuals also develop peculiar edema behind the eyes that causes the eyes to protrude.