A nurse is teaching a client about nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
a. “This medication has a slower onset than a nitroglycerin pill that is swallowed.”
b. “I should take this medication as soon as pain begins.”
c. “I can crush this medication for faster relief.”
d. “This medication should completely dissolve within 15 minutes.”

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

The correct answer to this question: A nurse is teaching a client about nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?, would be: B: "I should take this medication as soon as pain begins."

Explanation:

Nitroglycering sublingual tablets, also known commercially as Nitrostat, are a type of medication used to help by reducing the tension in blood vessels on people who have certain heart conditions, like coronary artery disease. Essentially, when a person feels pain in the chest (angina), or knows it will happen because there will be exercise, caused by the increase in blood vessel tissue tension, which limits the flow of blood to the heart, they must take the tablet and place it under the tongue as soon as the pain sets in, while in the case of exercise, they should take the medication at least 10 minutes before the initiation of exercise. So, this is why, the answer is B, because it shows that the patient understood that as soon as he feels pain, he must take the tablet.


Related Questions

Name the 2 thyroid hormones with metabolic function.

Answers

Answer: Calcitonin and Thyroxine T4

Explanation:

Thyroid gland is found at the front of the neck, which makes the hormone whose main function is to control the metabolism of the body.

The hormone calcitonin is one of the hormone secreted from thyroid which functions by controlling the level of calcium and phosphate in the body. This hormone is secreted by the C-cells that is present in very small amount in the body.

Another hormone is T4 which is converted into T3 in organ and tissues of the body. This functions by controlling the metabolism of the body, such as digestion, body temperature, breathing, burning calories.

Mr Rogers is 2 days postoperative of a thoracotomy of removal of a malignant mass in his left chest. His pain is being managed via epidural catheter with morphine. As the nurse assumes care of Mr Rogers, he is alert and fully oriented and states that his current pain is 2 on a 1 -to-10 scale. His vital signs are 37.8-92-12, 138/82. What are benefits of epidural versus systemic administration of opioids? The nurse monitors Mr Roger’s respiratory status and vital signs every 2 hours. What is the rationale for this frequent assessments? The nurse monitors Mr Rogers for what other complications of epidural anelgesis?

Answers

Answer:

Any aggressive surgery, like this one, where there is affectation of various organs of the body, and irritation on the part of the tissues, as well as the risk of severe complications, requires both pain management and constant monitoring. In a thoracotomy, like the one Mr. Rogers underwent, most organs of the thorax, but most particularly the entire respiratory tract, suffers mostly from the intervention. As such, nurses must be aware of the care these patients need.

In answer to question 1, what are the benefits of Mr. Rogers having an epidural catheter, instead of a central line, for pain management with opioids, would be that aside from pain being managed more centrally, and more aggressively, as the opioid is delivered directly to the epidural lining, near the spinal cord, it also has been shown to reduce the risk of other complications, particularly pulmonary complications, like lung failure, or maltreatment of the airways due to intubation, that would be needed for central-line systemic pain management. It has also been shown to reduce heart risks, and a shorter time of stay of patients inside intensive care units. Finally, but not least of all the benefits, patients with this form of pain management show lesser chances of presenting stomach and intestinal bleeding,

In answer to question 2, why the nurse checks Mr. Rogers´ respiratory status and vital signs every 2 hours, that because aside from being protocol, when there is a chest surgery, like this one, where the respiratory tract has been manipulated, there is always the huge chance of respiratory failure and complications. In fact, the mortality and morbidity in cases like this, due to respiratory complications and adverse events, is pretty high, and therefore, requires that the nurse be aware of the vital signs that will show if any of the organs is presenting unusual activity.

In answer to the 3rd question, one severe problem of the epidural line for pain management is always the risk of infection, especially since the line connects directly to the epidural lining of the spinal cord. There should also be monitoring of possible oedema of the lower limbs, numbness in any portion of the lower body, bleeding, or if there is presence of cerebrospinal fluid anywhere where the catheter has been inserted. There also shouldn´t be the presence of drowsiness, or sleepiness in the patient. These are only a few things. It has been proven that epidural pain management presents less risks than the use of central lines for systemic pain relief.

Final answer:

Epidural administration of opioids allows for more specific and efficient delivery of pain relief with fewer systemic side effects. Frequent assessments help monitor for potential respiratory depression—a side effect of opioids—as well as complications such as infection, hematoma, or nerve damage associated with epidural analgesia.

Explanation:

The administration of opioids via an epidural catheter directly into the epidural space delivers medication directly around the spinal nerves. This provides benefits over systemic administration, particularly in terms of specificity and efficiency. Epidural administration generally results in fewer side effects such as nausea, drowsiness, and respiratory depression, and it can provide better pain relief with lesser amount of medication.

As for frequent assessments, the rationale for this is that opioids, such as morphine, can suppress the respiratory system, especially in high doses or when administered quickly. Monitoring Mr. Rogers' respiratory status and vital signs every 2 hours allows the healthcare team to ensure his safety and catch any potential issues quickly. It is also important to monitor for potential complications of epidural analgesia, which can include infection, epidural hematoma, or nerve damage.

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Which way would blood flow in:
·Patent ductus arteriosus?
·Transposition of the great vessels?
·Tetralogy of Fallot?

Answers

Answer:

1-) Patent ductus arteriosus: this duct normally must be closed two days after the baby is born, but if not, it will carry oxygenated blood to the pulmonary artery producing a mixture with oxygen-poor blood and producing a cardiac overload due to the large amount of blood that would reach the right heart.

2-) Transposition of the great vessels: In this defect, the oxygenated blood is collected throughout the body and taken directly to the right heart which returns to the poorly connected aorta (right ventricle) back to the body without oxygenation; on the other hand, the oxygenated blood returns to the left heart, then goes to the pulmonary artery (connected to the left ventricle) and back to the lungs.

3-) Tetralogy of fallot: It is a congenital anomaly that can present different defects at the level of the heart, such as:

 intraventricular communication, in which blood would go from the left heart to the right heart. Pulmonary obstruction, there is obstruction of the blood outlet by plugging the duct, which causes a decrease in blood flow to the body. Dextraposition of the aorta: The aorta is more deviated to the right and in union with the intraventricular (IVC) communication. Increased amount of bleeding to the pulmonary artery. Bad oxygenation of the blood due to the mixture thereof.

What is the meaning of the following suffix:
a. -oma
b. -phagia
c. -phasia
d. -logy
e. -algia
f. -phobia

Answers

Answer:

a.  -oma: to describe cancer or tumor

b. -phagia: to describe a condition of eating

c. -phasia: to describe a disorder of the speech

d. -logy: to describe a study of a particular subject

e. -algia: to describe pain

f. -phobia: to describe fear

Explanation:

Suffix is a group of letters written at the end of a particular word, in order to make a new word.

a. -oma

Meaning- suffix added to describe cancer or tumor of the affected body part.

b. -phagia

Meaning- suffix added to describe a condition of eating a particular substance or eating in a particular manner

c. -phasia

Meaning- suffix added to describe a disorder of the speech.

d. -logy

Meaning- suffix added to describe a study of a particular subject.

e. -algia

Meaning- suffix added to describe pain in the part of body.

f. -phobia

Meaning- suffix added to describe fear as a mental disorder.

Bone can respond to increased/decreased applied forces by increasing/decreasing bone mass or changing the external shape or internal structure.
a. True
b. False

Answers

Answer:

a. True

Explanation:

Bone can respond to increased/decreased applied forces by increasing/decreasing bone mass or changing the external shape or internal structure.

Bone can respond to increased/decreased applied forces by increasing/decreasing bone mass or changing the external shape or internal structure.

a. True

b. False

Icd 10 code for lumbar stenosis with radiculopathy

Answers

Answer:

Radiculopathy which was a nonspecific code of 724.4 now is covered with the following ICD-10-CM codes: M54.15 Radiculopathy, thoracolumbar region. M54.16 Radiculopathy, lumbar region.

Explanation:

Body Cavities:
For each organ below, identify the body cavities using the following: cranial, vertebral, thoracic, pleural, pericardial, peritoneal, abdominal and pelvic.
*Note: more than one term may be necessary to correctly answer the following below.
Stomach ________________
Ovaries _________________
Small intestine ___________________
Brain __________________
Kidneys _____________________
Lungs ____________________
Spinal cord _________________
Heart ________________
Urinary bladder _____________________
Liver _____________________

Answers

Answer:

The answer are:

 - Stomach: abdominal and peritoneal cavity

- Ovaries: pelvis and peritoneal cavity

- Small intestine: abdominal and peritoneal cavity

- Brain: cranial cavity

- Kidneys: abdominal and peritoneal cavity

- Lungs: thorax and pleural cavity

- Spinal cord: spine

- Heart: pericardic and thorax

- Urinary bladder: Pelvis and peritoneal cavity

- Liver: abdominal and peritoneal cavity

Final answer:

The stomach, small intestine, kidneys, and liver are located in the abdominal cavity and peritoneal cavity, the ovaries and urinary bladder are in the pelvic cavity, the brain in the cranial cavity, the lungs in the thoracic and pleural cavities, the spinal cord in the vertebral cavity, and the heart in the thoracic and pericardial cavities.

Explanation:

Body Cavities and Organ Locations

For each organ listed, the body cavity or cavities in which it is located are specified

Stomach: abdominal cavity, peritoneal cavity

Ovaries: pelvic cavity, peritoneal cavity

Small intestine: abdominal cavity, peritoneal cavity

Brain: cranial cavity

Kidneys: abdominal cavity, peritoneal cavity (technically, they are posterior to the peritoneum, in the retroperitoneal space)

Lungs: thoracic cavity, pleural cavity

Spinal cord: vertebral (spinal) cavity

Heart: thoracic cavity, pericardial cavity

Urinary bladder: pelvic cavity

Liver: abdominal cavity, peritoneal cavity

The body is divided into two main cavities: dorsal and ventral. The dorsal cavity contains the cranial cavity and the spinal (vertebral) cavity. The ventral cavity includes the thoracic body cavity (further divided into the pleural and pericardial cavities) and the abdominopelvic cavity (which further divides into the abdominal and pelvic cavities). The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominopelvic cavity by the diaphragm.

Sterilization of surgical instruments is a process that renders the items free of:
A. spores.
B. blood.
C. oil
D. dirt

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer to the question: Sterilization of surgical instruments is a process that renders items free of:___, would be, A: Spores.

Explanation:

Spores are a particularly difficult topic when talking about complete sterility, and an environment that is pathogen free, because spores, which are the inactive form that some bacteria take when they are attacked to be eliminated, are resistant to a lot of cleaning procedures, and once the circumstances are right, the spore will re-activate itself and infect. This is the reason why sterilization techniques have been developed, and improved; to be able to not just eliminate all living microorganisms on surgical equipment, but also spores. Without this, sterilization is incomplete, and infection to patients is possible.

Describe the effects of aging on joints.

Answers

Answer:

With the aging of the joints, wear on them occurs. The most affected joints are those with greater mobility and weight support, such as the knee, shoulders and elbows. The changes that occur most are:

- decrease in synovial fluid.

- reduction of intra articular space.

- joint stiffness.

The joint becomes arthrosic, that is to say a worn joint, which will manifest itself with pain, functional limitation and inflammation.

Which specific organ do the following hormones belong to:
a. Thyrotropin
b. LH
c. Gastrin
d. ACTH
e. Prolactin
f. ADH
g. Growth hormone
h. GnRH

Answers

Answer:

The given hormones belong to:

a. Thyrotropin: brain

b. LH: brain

c. Gastrin:  stomach, duodenum, and pancreas.  

d. ACTH: brain

e. Prolactin:  brain

f. ADH: brain

g. Growth hormone: brain

h. GnRH: brain

Explanation:    

a. Thyrotropin : This hormone is secreted by the anterior pituitary present in the brain.  

b. LH : Luteinizing Hormone is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland present in the brain.

c. Gastrin : This hormone is secreted by the stomach, duodenum, and the pancreas.

 

d. ACTH : Adrenocorticotropic hormone is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland present in the brain.

e. Prolactin : This hormone is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland present in the brain.  

f. ADH : Antidiuretic hormone is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland present in the brain

g. Growth hormone : This hormone is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland present in the brain.

h. GnRH : Gonadotropin-releasing hormone is produced by the hypothalamus gland present in the brain.

Which medical word is used to refer to cancer of the white blood cells?
a. leukemia
b. anemia
c. multiple myeloma
d. adenocarcinoma

Answers

Answer:

A, leukemia

Explanation:

Cancer of white blood cells is called leukemia. White blood cells are very important in the body as they fight infections. When a person has leukemia, his bone marrow produces abnormal white blood cells which don't function properly.

It is a form of blood cancer that starts in the bone marrow. Symptoms of this disease may include bleeding and bruising, feeling tired and being at higher risk for infections. The diagnosis is made during a blood test or a bone marrow biopsy.

Being overweight can contribute to high blood pressure primarily by increasing blood vessel length.
a. True
b. False

Answers

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Being overweight contributes to high blood pressure but the internal blood vessel length is smaller. The high blood pressure result is due to the obstruction of the vessels caused by the cholesterol accumulated in those vessels. If the cholesterol keeps obstructing the vessels, the heart must beat faster  getting hypertrophyed, by the time the vessels should become bigger because of the hypertrophy os the muscle but the lumen will be always smaller.

Answer:

b. False

Explanation:

We should be concerned about obesity because it is associated with a number of serious health problems. Obesity is known to be related to various types of cancer, orthopedic problems, varicose veins of the lower limbs, and especially the development of adult diabetes (type 2) and high blood pressure or high blood pressure. In relation to hypertension, obesity reduces the length of blood vessels, due to the excess fat that accumulates in these vessels.

Which word means elevated blood pressure?
a. hypercholesterolemia
b. hypolipidemia
c. hypertension
d. hypotension

Answers

The correct answer is C. Hypertension

Explanation:

In medicine, the tension or pressure blood generates on the walls of blood vessels is commonly known as blood pressure. Additionally, concerning blood pressure in medicine a low blood pressure is known as hypotension, considering "hypo" means under; while a high or elevated blood pressure is known as hypertension as  "hyper" means over or in excess. Indeed, hypertension occurs because there is excessive pressure on the wall of blood vessels which is a medical condition that can lead to diseases such as vision loss, artery disease, heart failures, among others. On the other hand, hypercholesteremia refers to high levels of cholesterol and hypolipidemia refers to low levels of lipids. Therefore, the word that means elevated pressure is Hypertension.

Why do the different skeletal muscle fiber types vary in the speed and duration of their twitches?
a) They vary in the flow of K* across the membrane.
b) They vary in the rate of hydrolysis of ATP
c) They vary in the removal of Ca+ from the cytosol
d) a & b
e) a & c
f) b & c
g) a, b & c

Answers

Answer:

The different skeletal muscle fiber types vary in the speed and duration of their twitches due to -

b) They vary in the rate of hydrolysis of ATP

c) They vary in the removal of Ca+ from the cytosol

Explanation:

There are mainly two types of muscle fibers , i.e.

a) slow twitching, long contraction duration( type I fibers)

b) First twitching but short duration of contraction. ( type II fibers).

Now think of the physiology of muscle. Two components are important, cytosolic Ca++ concentration and Availability of ATP. K+ is related to the action potential ( none or all law, there is no relation to the duration with respect to the potassium). For long contraction muscle fibers need a more steady supply of ATP, and also consistent high concentration of cytosolic Ca++ for muscle contraction to happen. So, these two factor is important for the duration of twitching. So the answer is option f .

Heritability describes the:
a. genetic composition for a trait in a particular population.
b. phenotypic variation of a trait in a particular population.
c. variation in a phenotype caused by the environment.
d. proportion of genetic contribution to a trait in a particular population.

Answers

Final answer:

Heritability describes the proportion of variation in a trait in a particular population that is due to genetic influences. It does not account for the direct influence of the environment on a phenotype, but rather the genetic contribution to a trait.

Explanation:

Heritability describes the proportion of variation in a trait in a particular population that is due to genetic influences. Thus, the correct answer is (d) the proportion of genetic contribution to a trait in a particular population.

The variation in a phenotype could be influenced by both genetic and environmental factors. However, heritability specifically refers to the degree to which genetic differences contribute to differences in the trait among people.

For instance, if we say the heritability of height is 0.6, it means that approximately 60% of the variance in height within a population can be attributed to genetic influences.

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Final answer:

Heritability describes the genetic contribution to a trait's variability within a population. It's a estimation of how much variability is due to genes or environment.

Explanation:

Heritability describes the proportion of genetic contribution to a trait in a particular population. It gives us an estimate of how much of the variation of a trait in a population is due to genes versus the environment. For example, if heritability of a trait like height is 0.6, it means that 60% of the variation in height in the population is due to genetic factors.

The alternative options a, b and c are different from heritability.

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Which branch of microscopic anatomy is the study of tissues?
A) Surgical anatomy
B) Histology
C) Cytology
D) Developmental anatomy
E) Embryology

Answers

Answer:

B) Histology

Explanation:

The histology studies the biological structures in his microscopic anatomy. The cytology also studies the structures at microscopic levels but looking only at cells. It is the histology that classfies the ephitelium and other tissues into a specialized classification. It is a great help beacause we can look at the microscopic changes in a disease in order to make a diagnosis.

The correct answer is B. Histology branch of microscopic anatomy is the study of tissues.

Histology is the branch of microscopic anatomy that deals with the study of tissues, including their structure, function, and composition. Tissues are groups of cells that perform specific functions in the body, and histology examines these tissues at a microscopic level to understand their organization and role in maintaining the body's homeostasis.

To clarify the other options:

A) Surgical anatomy is the study of anatomical structures with a focus on their relevance to surgical procedures. It is not specifically concerned with tissues at the microscopic level.

C) Cytology is the study of cells, including their structure, function, and pathology, but it does not specifically focus on tissues, which are composed of multiple cells.

D) Developmental anatomy is the study of the processes by which an organism forms and grows, including the development of tissues, organs, and systems, but it is broader than just the study of tissues.

E) Embryology is a subfield of developmental anatomy that specifically focuses on the development of an embryo from the time of fertilization until it becomes a fetus. While it involves the formation of tissues, it is not exclusively the study of tissues themselves.

Therefore, histology is the most appropriate term for the study of tissues at the microscopic level.

Symptoms of Salmonella food poisoning include?
a) Vomiting and nausea
b) Abdominal pain and Diarrhea
c) Both A and B

Answers

Answer:

C, both A and B

Explanation:

A salmonella infection is an  infection in the intestinal track. Some of the sources of the infection are contaminated water and food, meat, fertilizer and pets.

Symptoms of salmonella include abdominal pain with cramps, diarrhea, vomiting with accompanying nausea. Some people also experience chills and fever.

The illness usually goes away on its own but some patients may need hospital treatment.

Prevention of salmonella include hand washing, cooking well of all foods and avoiding contact with unknown animals.

Answer:

c)Both A and B

Explanation:

hope this help you answer your question

Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response icd 10

Answers

Answer

In some cases of afib, the fibrillation of the atria causes the ventricles, of lower chambers of the heart, to beat too fast.  This is called a rapid ventricular rate or response.  (RVR) if you have afib with RVR you'll experience symptoms, typically a rapid or fluttering heart beat.  

Explanation:

Most E. coll strains encountered in a lifetime are harmless and simply contribute to natural flora.
a) True
b) False

Answers

Answer:

a) True

Explanation:

It's true, most strains of E. coli with which we have contact are harmless. They are found in the intestines of healthy animals and humans forming part of our flora. However, there are strains that can make us sick if we ingest them. We can found them in contaminated water, poorly washed vegetables and raw meats.

What are the signs and symptoms of hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia? How would each be treated?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

Hyperglycemia

When the blood glucose level is more than 130 mg/ dL after not eating anything for 8 hours then this condition can be defined as Hyperglycemia.

After eating, if the level of blood sugar in blood is more than 180 mg/ dL

Symptoms: Trouble concentrating,Weight loss, increased thirst, fatigue, et cetera.

Treatment: Insulin, medication and regular exercise.

Hypoglycemia

When the blood glucose level is less than 70mg/dL then this condition is known as  hypoglycemia. This condition can be defined less than normal blood glucose level.

Symptoms: Dizziness, hunger, pale skin, fatigue.

Treatment: Food with high sugar content must be eaten( candy, chicken, tofu) to make the level normal and then proper medication should be continued as advised by the doctor.

Answer:

In relation to diabetes, hyperglycemia refers to chronically high blood glucose levels. Most medical professionals define hyperglycemia by using the blood glucose goals that you and your physician have established and combining those goals with the blood glucose target ranges set by the American Diabetes Association.   It’s important to understand that you’ll probably experience high blood glucose levels from time to time, despite your best efforts at control.  To treat hyperglycemia, you must:

Exercise: Physical activity can use excess glucose in the blood. However, if a person with severe hyperglycemia finds ketones in their urine, they should avoid exercise, as this breaks down more fats and might speed up ketoacidosis. Moderating the diet: Eating less during mealtimes and snacking less, as well as focusing on low-sugar foods, helps keep the amount of glucose at a level that the body can handle. A dietitian can help a person adapt their diet in gradual and healthful ways. Alter medications: A doctor may recommend changing the timings or types of medication and insulin a person is taking if they are not reducing blood sugar as they should.

Hypoglycemia refers to dangerously low blood glucose levels that drop below 70 mg/dL. Significant hypoglycemia is considered below 54 mg/dL. It is an acute complication of diabetes and occurs in individuals who use insulin or specific kinds of oral diabetes medication. If you use oral diabetes medications, ask your physician or diabetes educator whether hypoglycemia should be a concern. To treat hypoglycemia, you must immediately:

Check your blood glucose level to determine the amount of carbohydrate that is needed to raise your blood glucose to a safe level. Use the 15/15 Rule: Consume 15 grams of carbohydrate (4 ounces of regular juice or soda, 1 tablespoon honey, 2 tablespoons raisins, 7 Life Savers®, 9 Sweet Tarts®, or 3-4 glucose tablets) and retest your blood glucose in 15 minutes. If it is still below 70 mg/dL, you should consume an additional 15 grams of carbohydrate. Following the 15/15 Rule can help avoid over treatment and resulting hyperglycemia. If you are not planning to have a meal within one to two hours after treating a hypoglycemic reaction, eat a snack containing 15-30 grams of carbohydrate to prevent another episode of hypoglycemia.

Complications from Hypoglycemia

If hypoglycemia is not treated immediately, it can result in:

Severe confusion and disorientation Unconsciousness Seizures Coma Death

Explanation:

There are different levels of low blood sugar: mild, moderate, or severe. If your blood sugar drops low enough that you need help to recover, it is considered to be a low blood sugar emergency, or severe hypoglycemia.

Mild or moderate low blood sugar is common for people with type 1 diabetes, and can occur in people with type 2 diabetes who are using insulin. If not treated, mild or moderate low blood sugar can progress and become severe, requiring the help of someone else to recover. Let those close to you know what the possible signs are so they can be more prepared for an emergency.

What is the cause of bone fusion in joints damaged by rheumatoid arthritis?

Answers

Answer:

The cause of bone fusion in joints damaged by rheumatoid arthritis is due to the over activity of the synovium.

Explanation:

Synovium -

Synovium is a lining that covers the joints of the body , which is responsible for lubrication of the joints and to move easily .

The disorder rheumatoid arthritis is caused by the over activity of this lining , as it swells out and becomes inflamed , and hence, can destroy the joint and even the ligament and the tissues .

The weakening of these ligament can lead to deformities like claw toe or hammer toe.

Rolling friction is less than sliding friction.
a. True
b. False

Answers

Answer:

The given statement is TRUE

Explanation:

Friction is a force experienced by a body that resists its motion.

In other words, Friction is the force experienced by the two bodies (with uneven or rough surfaces) when moving against each other.

When an object slides on a surface, the surface area of the object in contact with the surface is more as compared to an object which is rolled on the surface. Therefore, the friction force experienced by the sliding body is greater than the rolling body.

Therefore, we can say that the rolling friction is less than the sliding friction.

The condition Marfan syndrome results from the production of abnormal elastin, the main protein component of classic fibers. Predict the potential consequences of defective elastic fibers.(Hint: Consider the organs and tissues in which elastic fibers are found. How would defective elastic fibers impair the function of those organs and tissues?)

Answers

Answer:

The potential consequences are cardiovascular problems, abnormal vision and skin problems.

Explanation:

Marfan syndrome may be defined as a type of genetic disorder that affects the various tissues of the body. The abnormal elastin is produced in the connective tissue in case of Marfan syndrome.

The consequences associated with defective elastic fibers are as follows:

Cardiovascular problems: This disease affects the connective tissue and may cause the aortic aneurysms and prolapse of mitral valve.

Abnormal vision: The eyes ciliary muscles get damage that may cause blurred vision and nearsightedness.

Skin problems: The elasticity of the skin is highly reduced in the Marfan syndrome that may leads to the development of skin loosening and various other skin related disease.

Why do you think people write one way and speak to people a different way?

Answers

Answer:

written and spoken language are different

Explanation:

Written and spoken language differ widely. Only some forms of writing are closer to speech. .During writing, the punctuation and layout of written texts often have no spoken equivalence. Technology is chaning this as, some forms of written language, like SMS instant messages and email, are getting closer to spoken language. (Think of the use of emoticons)

Still, written language will be more formal and follow the rules of the Grammar & Structures of any language. Spoken language will happen to be casual. While written words appeals more to a contemplative, deliberative style. Speeches can also be precise and indeed practice makes perfect.

People trained in speech or writing will communicate much more effectively.

Select the correct statement concerning the trachea, it:
A) conducts air from the larynx into the bronchi.
B) is lined with pseudostratified cillated columnar epithelum
C) is usually located posterior to the esophagus.
D) A and B are correct
E) A, B and C are correct.

Answers

Answer:

The answer is A conducts air from the larynx into the bronchi.

Explanation:

The trachea, component of the respiratory system is formed by cartilaginous rings and goes from the larynx in front of the esophagus to the middle of the chest, approximately where it is divided into the right bronchus and left bronchus.

The universal blood donor is:
A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type O
D. Type AB

Answers

Answer:

c

Explanation:

it is blood group o, it can donate to other group

Answer:

C. Type O

Explanation:

The universal blood donor is type O.

O can either be an O-Positive or an O-Negative blood type.

O-Positives typically are better for donation.

Whole blood for testing in clinical labs is usually collected from?

Answers

Answer:

Superficial vein

Explanation:

Whole blood for testing in clinical labs is usually collected from superficial vein.

Have a great day!

Which is the most numerous type of blood cell?
a. erythrocyte
b. plasma cell
c. leukocyte
d. macrophage

Answers

Answer:

A. erythrocytes

Explanation:

Erythrocytes are red blood cells. There are about 600x as many RBCs as there are white blood cells (leukocytes) in the blood. Plasma cells and macrophages are both types of leukocytes. If there's more RBCs than WBCs, there's definitely more RBCs than plasma cells or macrophages.

Final answer:

The most numerous type of blood cell is the erythrocyte, which is responsible for transporting oxygen to the body's tissues.

Explanation:

The most numerous type of blood cell is the erythrocyte, which is also known as a red blood cell. These cells are responsible for transporting oxygen to the body's tissues. In a healthy individual, there are about 4-6 million erythrocytes per microliter of blood.

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The adrenal medullarry hormones mimic the effects of sympathetic discharge because they increase:
A. glycogenolysis
B. lipolysis
C energy production
D. A and C
E. A, B, and C

Answers

Answer:

D. A and C

Explanation:

The adrenal medullarry hormones mimic the effects of sympathetic discharge because they increase glycogenolysis and energy production.

Renal failure may lead to:
a. nevous system problems
b. high blood pressure
c. azotemia or an increase in nitrogenous wastes
d. all of the above

Answers

Answer: Option D.

Explanation:

Renal failure can be defined as the condition of kidneys in which the functional ability of kidneys to remove waste and balance fluids is loss.

Renal failure can lead to azotemia, high blood pressure, and nervous system problems.

In renal failure, blood vessels of kidneys get narrower that increases the amount of force through the blood vessels and results in hypertension (high blood pressure), Uraemic toxins produced during chronic renal failure contribute to central nervous system (CNS) injury, and Azotemia is severe cause of renal failure that  allows elevation of blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine levels.

Hence, the correct option D.

Other Questions
For the wave of light you generated in the Part B, calculate the amount of energy in 1.0 mol of photons with that same frequency (1.21010 Hz ) and wavelength (0.026 m ). Recall that the Avogadro constant is 6.0221023 mol1. A researcher wants to observe preschoolers at a local public playground to evaluate levels of cooperation. The researcher will not interact with the children or record information in such a manner that the identity of the subjects can be readily ascertained. Which of the following statements is true? a.This research would require full committee review because it involves children. b.This research would be eligible for expedited IRB review because the researcher is not interacting with the children and the playground is public. c.This research would be eligible for exemption because the researcher is not interacting with the children and the playground is a public setting. d.This research would be eligible for expedited IRB review because the researcher is participating in the activities observed. he density of copper is 8.96g/cm^3 and the density of water is 1 g/cm^3. When a copper is submerged in a cylindrical beaker whose bottom has surface area 10 cm^2 the water level rises by 2 cm. The volume of the cylinder is the area of its base times its height. a) What is the specific gravity of copper?b) What is the buoyant force on the copper object?c) What is the buoyant force on the copper object?d) What is the mass of the copper object? What is the median of the data set given below?42, 20, 12, 15, 18, 15, 29, 33. 19. 15 Which of the following is the best example of a pioneer species?A. lichens growing on rocks after a volcanic eruptionB. grasses growing after a forest firec. oak trees replacing pine trees in a forestD. small mammals moving into a grassland You've already seen the value of 9.8 in this lesson. What's this value called? What quantity does it represent? Which of these sentences uses quotation marks correctly? Select one: a. When he saw the bird flying in the house he got angry and demanded to know, "who left the door open!" b. When he saw the bird flying in the house he got angry and demanded to know "Who Left the door open!" c. When he saw the bird flying in the house he got angry and demanded to know "who left the door open"! D. When he saw the bird flying in the house he got angry and demanded to know "who left the door open!" Which of the following was a result of the French and Indian War?A. Canadian independenceB. Decreased trade between Britain and the coloniesC. Increased British debtD. The first treaty signed in the New World A walking path across a park is represented by the equation y= -3x - 6 . A new path will be built perpendicular to this path. The path will intersect at the point (-3 , 3) . Identify the equation that represents the new path . WILL MARK BRAINIEST! Which of the following is NOT a requirement of the Combinations Rule, Subscript n Baseline Upper C Subscript requalsStartFraction n exclamation mark Over r exclamation mark left parenthesis n minus r right parenthesis exclamation mark EndFraction , for items that are all different? Choose the correct answer below. A. That r of the n items are selected (without replacement). B. That there be n different items available. C. That order is not taken into account (consider rearrangements of the same items to be the same). D. That order is taken into account (consider rearrangements of the same items to be different sequences). A 125-g metal block at a temperature of 93.2 C was immersed in 100. g of water at 18.3 C. Given the specific heat of the metal ( s = 0.900 J/gC), find the final temperature of the block and the water The claim is that the IQ scores of statistics professors are normally distributed, with a mean greater than 116. A sample of 20 professors had a mean IQ score of 121 with a standard deviation of 11. Find the value of the test statistic. Question 4(Multiple Choice Worth 5 points)(04.03 MC)What is the slope of the line joining (8, 1) and (24, 9)?1 H&M When liquid water is heated, it will eventually change to a gas through ................ . Gas particles move................ (faster, slower. or at the same same rate) and have..............( stronger, weeker, more magnetic) attractions between particles than liquid particles. Determine whether each statement is true or false in double-struck R3. (a) Two lines parallel to a third line are parallel. True False (b) Two lines perpendicular to a third line are parallel. True False (c) Two planes parallel to a third plane are parallel. True False (d) Two planes perpendicular to a third plane are parallel. True False (e) Two lines parallel to a plane are parallel. True False (f) Two lines perpendicular to a plane are parallel. True False (g) Two planes parallel to a line are parallel. True False (h) Two planes perpendicular to a line are parallel. True False (i) Two planes either intersect or are parallel. True False (j) Two lines either intersect or are parallel. True False (k) A plane and a line either intersect or are parallel. True False On a multiple-choice quiz, a correct answer is awarded 4 points, but an incorrect answer costs the student 1 point. Suppose each question on the quiz has 4 choices and no question has multiple correct answers. If a student were to guess on every question, what is the number of points the student should expect to get per question? What is a plank in a party's platform?Question 10 options:a controversial position that divides the partyan overall mission statement of the partya principle that guides the choice of candidatesa statement of position on one issue Which historical event explains the large number of refugees to the United States arriving from bosnia-Herzegovina, Serbia, and montenegro from 1999 to 2001 Write an equation for a line parallel to y=4x+5 and passing through the point (4,-21) The price of a pair of shoes is $52. This price is 15% lower than last week. What was the price of the shoes last week? Round your answer to the nearest cent