Answer:
Genetic drift
Explanation:
In the given question, out of ten dark-colored birds, 2 dies and out of five light-colored birds 3 dies. This produces only the dark-colored birds in the next generation but no light colored birds.
From this, we can observe that the gene pool of the small population has changed due to chance event or random event.
Since in the given situation, the small population of birds is taken into account in which the gene pool has changed due to a random event is known as the Genetic drift.
The genetic drift is the phenomenon which is associated with the shift or drift in the gene pool therefore is the answer.
The change in the bird population's phenotype, with all offspring being dark brown, can be attributed to genetic drift following the random death of light brown birds.
Genetic drift is an example of how allele frequencies in a small population can change drastically due to random events, which in this case is the death of the light brown birds before they could produce offspring. Because the light brown allele is lost due to chance, the remaining dark brown allele becomes fixed in the subsequent generation.
Genetic drift is particularly potent in small populations, where random events can have a large effect on the genetic makeup of future generations. This differs from directional selection, which occurs when environmental changes favor one phenotype over another, leading to a shift in allele frequencies based on those selective pressures, as was seen in the peppered moth example due to industrial pollution.
Hundreds of years ago, it was believed by many that our solar system was Geocentric. This means that Earth is at the center of the solar system, with the Sun and other planets orbit around it. Today, the solar system is now thought to be Heliocentric. What does this mean?
Answer:
This means that Earth is at the center of the solar system, with the Sun and other planets orbit around it. Today, the solar system is now thought to be Heliocentric.
Diane wanted to demonstrate which pruning technique was best for controlling the growth of certain types of shrubs. She selected ten shrubs of the same type and randomly assigned each one to receive one of ten different pruning methods. Two weeks after pruning, she measured the regrowth, in inches, of the shrubs; the pruning method that minimized regrowth was recommended as the best method. Which of the following best describes why this is not a well-designed experiment?
A. The shrubs were not randomly selected.
B. Pruning methods were not randomly assigned to shrubs.
C. Each pruning method was used on only one shrub.
D. Each shrub did not receive all ten pruning methods.
E. Only two treatments should be used in an experiment.
Answer:
C. Each pruning method was used on only one shrub.
Explanation:
Reproducibility is one of the most important factors contributing to the reliability of scientific research. The researcher must be able to achieve the same results two to three times. In biological research, this is usually done in the from of triplicates i.e. one experiment is repeated three times. This is done for two reasons:
Producing reproducible resultsRuling out false positives (a negative result that presents as positive due to error) and negatives (a positive result that presents as negative due to error)Triplicates rule out the possibility that the observed change was caused by another factor or through mere chance. Therefore, in the current scenario, each pruning method should have been applied to multiple (at least 3) samples of a shrub.
Taxol is a drug that stabilizes microtubules and prevents them from depolymerizing. Consequently, cells treated with taxol fail to complete mitosis. What is the last stage of mitosis that taxol-treated cells are likely to complete?
Answer:
Metaphase
Explanation:
Taxol is an anti-mitotic chemical which is used to treat cancer.
The taxol act by binding the microtubules which act as cytoskeletal structure. The microtubules are involved in the segregation of the chromosomes during the division of the cell.
The microtubules allow the movement of the chromosomes in the dividing cell during anaphase.
If the cells are treated with the taxol then the cells will be observed at the metaphase in which the chromosomes are aligned in the equatorial line. The microtubules will separate the chromosomes after the metaphase or during the anaphase but since the taxol prevents the depolymerization of the microtubules, therefore, cells are found in the metaphase.
Thus, Metaphase is correct.
Assume that 357,250,000 kilocalories are available at the producer level in this Chesapeake Bay ecosystem. Calculate the amount of usable chemical energy available at each level in the pyramid. Show your work.
Answer:
357,250,000 -> 35,725,000 -> 3,572,500 -> 357,250 -> 35,725
Explanation:
only 10% of the energy at one level gets passed to the organism in the next level.
hope this helps :)
At every level in the energy pyramid, 10% of the energy reduces from producers to quaternary consumers.
What is energy pyramid?Energy pyramid is the flow of energy.
What is reduces?Reduces mean decreases.
What are producers?Producers are the plants which can prepare food by themselves.
What are quaternary consumers?Quaternary consumers are the top most predators which consumes tertiary consumers.
So there are five energy levels in a pyramid. they are producers in which the energy is 357,250,000 KC, primary consumers (35,725,000 KC), secondary consumers (3,572,500 KC), tertiary consumers (357,250 KC) and quaternary consumers ( 35,725 KC).
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What is true for both prokaryotic and eukaryotic gene expression?
Answer:
Several Things
Explanation:
Both have a flagella, plasma membrane, cell division, cytoplasm, ribosomes, and chromosomes.
Food chains demonstrate the flow of ______ and materials through ecosystems
Answer:
energy
Explanation:
What is a biomoleclue composed of amino acids connected you peptide bonds
Which of the following correctly lists the parts of the water cycle?
a Evaporation, condensation, temperature, precipitation, collection
b Condensation, build-up, runoff, precipitation, collection
c Runoff, precipitation, evaporation, melting, condensation
d Evaporation, condensation, precipitation, runoff, collection
Answer:
D
Explanation:
The following sections of the water cycle are correct: Evaporation, condensation, precipitation, runoff, and collection are in Option D as the water cycle is the continuous movement of water in ecosystems.
What are the steps of the water cycle in the ecosystem?The steps of the water cycle consist of evaporation, where water from oceans, lakes, rivers, and even soil is converted into water vapor; condensation, where water vapor rises and cools; and precipitation, where clouds become heavy with water droplets. Then Precipitated waters flow into rivers, and this water can also be collected in man-made structures such as reservoirs and lakes.
Hence, the following sections of the water cycle are correct: Evaporation, condensation, precipitation, runoff, and collection are in Option D as the water cycle is the continuous movement of water in ecosystems.
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An Emergency Medical Responder reports that a male patient, injured while playing football, has bruising to the lumbar area of the back. Based on this statement, the EMT should expect to find bruising in which area?A) Upper back
B) Neck
C) Lower back
D) Buttocks
Answer:
C) Lower back
Explanation:
The lumbar area is located between the chest, the spine and the sacrum. This area corresponds to the lower back and has five vertebrae: L1-L5. According to this, the answer is that based on this statement, the EMT should expect to find bruising in the lower back.
How far in advance is weather forecasting most accurate?
So far weather forecasts are only accurate from three to five days in advance despite all the computing power, communications and data available.
Answer:
ONE WEEKExplanation:
ONE WEEK
Which of the following is associated with the planarian's nervous system?
regeneration
flame cells
diffusion
ganalia
Answer:
ganalia
Explanation:
What is responsible for holding the lungs to the thorax wall?
Answer:
surface tension from pleural fluid and negative pressure in the pleural cavityExplanation:
Each lung enclosed in two membranes called the pleurae . The outer membrane is called parietal pleura , and the inner membrane is called visceral pleura , which closely invest the lungs . A very narrow space exist between two pleura i.e., known as pleural cavity that contains pleural fluid secreted by the pleurae . Pleurae cause the production of pleural fluid and create cavities that seperates organ . Mesothelial cells of both pleural layer secretes fluid and cause lubrication on the surface . These lubrication mimize the friction between pleural layer to prevent the difficulty in breathing and creates surface tension that is responsible for holding the lungs to the thorax wall . Generally , pressure within cavities present between pleural layers is less than atmospheric pressure i.e., negative pressure in the pleural cavity which is also responsible for holding the lungs to the thorax wall .
Which of the following statements is false ?
A. Spermatozoa can generally be found in the vagina of a living female three days after sexual intercourse.
B. Semen is unequivocally identified by the presence of spermatozoa.
C. Semen will contain the enzyme p30.
D. The likelihood of finding seminal acid phosphatase in vaginal swabs decreases with time.
Answer:
Option A, Spermatozoa can generally be found in the vagina of a living female after three days
Explanation:
The average life of spermatozoa in the female reproductive tract after ejaculation determines the fertility. Sperm survive for a longer period of time after it reaches the cervix. A spermatozoon (motile sperm) survives for nearly 2.5 hours in the vagina and 48 hours in the oviduct.
However, spermatozoa irrespective of its motility or viability can be found after coital ejaculation in the cervix and vagina even after 12 and 9 days respectively.
Hence, option A is the correct choice of answer
Write the complementary DNA strand for each given strand of DNA.
ACTAACGGTAGCTAGC
____________________
GTCAGTCGATCATGCA
_____________________
ATCGTGCTGATCGTAC
_____________________
ATGCTGATACACCTGA
_____________________
TGGACTGATCCATCG
______________________
Answer:
1. TGATTGCCATCGATCG
2. CAGTCAGCTAGTACGT
3.TAGCACGACTAGCATG
4.TACGACTATGTGGACT
5.ACCTGACTAGGTAGC
Explanation:
Which of the following patterns is most likely to indicate a Foodborne illness
Patterns of foodborne illness
Explanation:
Patterns which may indicate a foodborne illness outbreak include various predominant symptoms of the illness, duration of the illness, population affected.
Differential clinical diagnosis of foodborne illness includes acute symptoms like nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration, abdominal pain, headache, fever etc. Microbial diagnosis needs to be done to identify the pathogen causing the foodborne illness.
Intensive surveillance needs to be done to detect serious outbreak of such foodborne illnesses. Diseases like typhoid, norovirus disease, hepatitis A, E. coli enteric diseases are caused to infection from contaminated food.
Answer: c
Explanation:Patterns which may indicate a foodborne illness outbreak include various predominant symptoms of the illness, duration of the illness, population affected.
Differential clinical diagnosis of foodborne illness includes acute symptoms like nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration, abdominal pain, headache, fever etc. Microbial diagnosis needs to be done to identify the pathogen causing the foodborne illness.
Intensive surveillance needs to be done to detect serious outbreak of such foodborne illnesses. Diseases like typhoid, norovirus disease, hepatitis A, E. coli enteric diseases are caused to infection from contaminated food.
Bone marrow can be found in the many hollow spaces in the
Bone marrow is found in the hollow spaces of spongy bone, which is located in the epiphysis of long bones.
Bone marrow can be found in the many hollow spaces of the spongy type of bone. The spongy bone, primarily located in the epiphysis of long bones, consists of tiny plates called trabeculae that add strength to the bone. Within the spaces of these trabeculae lies the red marrow, which is essential for the production of red blood cells, with a fascinating production rate of 2 - 3 million per second, and also produces various types of white blood cells.
what r the pros and cons of renewable energy resources
Answer: Pros: It is abundant, and can be used without interruption, cleaner than fossil fuel. Cons: Can result in air pollution, takes a lot of energy to produce, can be seasonable and competes with food production. Landfill gas, solid waste energy comes from harnessing the decomposition of organic material.
Explanation:
Final answer:
Renewable energy resources have pros, such as sustainability and reduced greenhouse gas emissions, but also cons, including lower efficiency and environmental impacts.
Explanation:
Renewable energy resources have several pros and cons. Some of the pros include:
Renewable resources can be replaced as quickly as they are used, making them sustainable in the long run.Renewable energy sources do not produce greenhouse gas emissions or other air pollutants, reducing the impact on climate change.Renewable energy can provide decentralized control over power, allowing homes and businesses to generate their own electricity without relying on a grid.However, there are also cons to consider:
Renewable energy sources tend to have lower efficiency and higher initial costs compared to fossil fuel technologies.Some renewable energy sources, such as wind and hydro, can have environmental impacts, such as habitat disruption and wildlife disturbance.Availability of suitable land, technological limitations, and competition with other energy technologies can affect the future deployment of renewable energy sources.Which quadrilaterals always have consecutive angles that are supplementary?
Answer:
The quadrilaterals which have supplementary consecutive angles are called Parallelogram.Explanation:
A parallelogram is a type of quadrilateral which has two parallel sides on each opposite sides which are equal and the opposite angles in a parallelogram are also equal.The consecutive angles of a parallelogram are supplementary meaning that the sum of the consecutive angles in a parallelogram is equal to 180 degrees. The overall sum of all the angles in a parallelogram is 360 degrees as it is a quadrilateral.The diagonals of the parallelogram bisects each other and divides the parallelogram into equal halves.Mango the parrot jumped very quickly toward an empty paper cup. When she hit the cup, it moved into the air and fell off the table. What happened when Mango hit the cup?
A. Energy was transferred from the cup to Mango.
B. Both Mango and the cup gained energy.
C. Both Mango and the cup lost energy.
D. Energy was transferred from Mango to the cup.
Answer:
try D. Energy was transferred from Mango to the cup.
Explanation:
Which mRNA sequence is the complement to the DNA sequence GATCAC?
1.CUAGUG
2.UAGUGA
3.AGUGAC
4.GUGAUC
Final answer:
The mRNA sequence that is complementary to the DNA sequence GATCAC is CUAGUG, corresponding to option 1 in the multiple-choice question provided. This is determined by pairing each DNA base with its RNA complement following the transcription rules.
Explanation:
The student's question asks which mRNA sequence is the complement to the DNA sequence GATCAC. The transcription process in biology involves creating a complementary RNA strand from a DNA sequence. Each DNA base pairs with a specific RNA base: adenine (A) pairs with uracil (U) in RNA, thymine (T) pairs with adenine (A), cytosine (C) pairs with guanine (G), and guanine (G) pairs with cytosine (C).
Using these pairing rules, we find the complementary RNA sequence for the DNA sequence GATCAC as follows:
DNA: G
mRNA: C
DNA: A
mRNA: U
DNA: T
mRNA: A
DNA: C
mRNA: G
DNA: A
mRNA: U
DNA: C
mRNA: G
Therefore, the correct mRNA sequence that is complementary to GATCAC is CUAGUG, which corresponds to option 1.
quizlt testing your comprehen 1. identify which anatomical plane-sagittal, frontal, or transverse-is the only one that could not show (a) both the brain and tongue, (b) both eyes, (c) both the hypogastric and gluteal regions, (d) both kidneys, (e) both the sternum and vertebral column, and (f) both the heart and uterus. understand anatomical
The sagittal plane, which divides the body into left and right halves, is the only anatomical plane that could not show both structures or regions like the brain and tongue, both eyes, hypogastric and gluteal regions, both kidneys, sternum and vertebral column, or the heart and uterus.
Explanation:To answer your question, let's first recall what each anatomical plane represents. The sagittal plane divides the body into left and right halves, the frontal (or coronal) plane divides the body into front (anterior) and back (posterior) portions, and the transverse (or horizontal) plane divides the body into upper (superior) and lower (inferior) halves.
Given this understanding, we can deduce that the sagittal plane is the only one that cannot show: (a) both the brain and tongue, (b) both eyes, (c) both the hypogastric and gluteal regions, (d) both kidneys, (e) both the sternum and vertebral column, and (f) both the heart and uterus. This is because these structures or regions are located on opposite sides of the body (left and right) and not vertically or anterior-posteriorly.
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True or false: An allele is a version of a gene?
Answer:
True
Explanation:
I will give an example. Two plants cross breeds. A pink flower and a red flower. The red flower has a gene for red color and the pink has a gene for pink color. Mix the two together and you have an offspring with two different genes, or alleles, that are either going to be mixed or the plant will be one or the other color.
A series of waves with decreasing wavelength labeled A, B, C, D, E, F, G from left to right as wavelength decreases. D is at a place with colored bands crossing the waves with dotted lines down to a colored spectrum from red to blue labeled in nanometers from 700 to 400. Use the drop-down menus to identify the electromagnetic waves. Label A: Label C: Label D: Label G:
Answer:
label A= radio waves, label C= infrared, Label D= visible Light, Label G= gamma rays.
Explanation:
Electromagnetic radiation consists of electromagnetic waves which has frequency of their oscillations. Here label A is radio waves, label C is infrared, Label D is visible Light, Label G is gamma rays.
What are designations of electromagnetic waves?Waves are usually transverse and longitudinal,electromagnetic waves are transverse wave. Electromagnetic spectrum is usually divided into 7 regions, i.e.,
Radio waves.Microwaves.Infrared (IR).Visible light.Ultraviolet (UV) light.X-raysGamma-rays.All these are in order of decreasing wavelength and increasing frequency.
Thus, here label A is radio waves, label C is infrared, Label D is visible Light, Label G is gamma rays.
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Before Alonzo prepares potatoes for dinner, he takes them out of the refrigerator and allows them to sit by a sunny window for about 30 minutes. To prepare them, he peels the potatoes, cuts them into small pieces, and boils them in water. Which of his actions can lead to losses of minerals from the vegetable?
A) Exposing the potatoes to sunlight
B) Cooking the potatoes at high temperatures
C) Storing the potatoes in the refrigerator
D) Using excess water to cook the potatoes
Answer:
D. Using excess water to cook potatoes
Explanation:
Using excess water to cook potatoes can reduce its mineral content.
Answer:
The action that can lead to losses of minerals from the vegetable is D) Using excess water to cook the potatoes.
Explanation:
Due to cooking many losses of minerals for example sodium, potassium, phosphorus, calcium, magnesium, iron, zinc, manganese, copper and various other food materials can be seen.Before and after cooking following changes take place in the mineral content of the vegetables.
(1) The mineral contents of cooked foods in mass cooking were on an average about 60-70 percent of those in raw or uncooked foods.
(2) Cooking losses were particularly high in minerals of vegetables.
(3) Among various cooking methods, loss of mineral was largest in squeezing after boil and in soaking in water after thin slice, followed by parching, frying and stewing.
(4) Cooking losses of minerals in meals cooked in home brought about the similar results as those by the mass cooking procedures.
The measures to prevent cooking loss are
(a) eating the boiled food with the soup
(b) addition of small amount of salt (about 1% NaCl) in boiling
(c) avoidance of too much boiling
(d) selection of a cooking method causing less mineral loss (stewing, frying or parching).
The ovarian cycle describes the monthly events of a post-pubescent ovary that causes a small number of primary follicles to grow, mature, and ovulate each month. what is the order of the events in one ovarian cycle? drag and drop the events below in the proper sequence.
Answer:
The ovarian cycle regulates endocrine tissue preparation, and egg release in female body.
The first half of the ovarian cycle as the follicular process. Slowly growing rates of FSH and LH are causing follicle development on the ovary surface. This cycle makes the egg primed for ovulation. As the follicles develop they start releasing estrogens and low progesterone levels. Progesterone locks the endometrium in order to help ensure pregnancy. It takes about seven days to travel ovum through the Fallopian tube and to get implanted in uterus. There are 30-60 cells at this point of evolution, called the morula. If there is no pregnancy implantation the lining would be sloughed off. estrogen levels increase after around 5 days, and the menstrual cycle enters the proliferative process. The endometrium starts to regrow, replacing the weakening blood vessels and glands at the end of the last cycle.
What distinguishes phytoplankton from other kinds of plankton? Why are phytoplankton important?
Answer:
Their ability to manufacture their own food
Explanation:
There are two main types of plankton. this includes phytoplankton and zooplankton. Phytoplankton are different from zooplankton in that these plankton are plant-like and undergo photosynthesis manufacturing their own food. They are also regarded as being autotrophic. They are important in that other organisms including the zooplanktons depends on them for food, hence they can also be categoriZed as producers.
"Phytoplankton are distinguished from other types of plankton primarily by their ability to photosynthesize. They contain chlorophyll and other pigments, which allow them to convert light energy into chemical energy through the process of photosynthesis.
This sets them apart from zooplankton, which are heterotrophic and must consume other organisms for energy, and bacterioplankton, which are primarily decomposers.
The importance of phytoplankton is multifaceted:
1. Oxygen Production: Phytoplankton contribute significantly to the oxygen in our atmosphere. It is estimated that about 50% of the global oxygen production is due to phytoplankton photosynthesis, making them crucial for the survival of aerobic life on Earth.
2. Basis of Marine Food Webs: As primary producers, phytoplankton form the foundation of the marine food web. They are consumed by zooplankton, which in turn are food for larger organisms, including fish, whales, and birds. Thus, they support the immense biodiversity of marine ecosystems.
3. Carbon Sequestration: Phytoplankton play a key role in the global carbon cycle. Through photosynthesis, they absorb carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. When phytoplankton die, some of their biomass sinks to the ocean floor, effectively sequestering carbon away from the atmosphere and mitigating climate change.
4. Regulation of Climate: Phytoplankton can influence climate patterns by affecting the heat distribution in the ocean. They can also impact cloud formation and albedo through the production of dimethyl sulfide (DMS), which can lead to the formation of clouds that reflect sunlight away from the Earth's surface.
5. Economic Value: Phytoplankton are the starting point for many commercially important fisheries. Their productivity affects the abundance and distribution of fish stocks, which are vital for the economies of coastal communities and the broader seafood industry.
In summary, phytoplankton are a critical component of Earth's ecosystems, influencing atmospheric composition, climate regulation, marine biodiversity, and human economies. Their health and abundance are indicators of the overall health of the world's oceans."
Donkeys have a somatic chromosome number of 62. Hybrids produced by crossing donkeys and zebras are called zonkeys, are sterile, and have many characteristics intermediate between the two parental species. If a zonkey has 52 chromosomes, what is the somatic chromosome number of zebras:
Answer:
42
Explanation:
The somatic chromosome of zebras will be 42.
During gamete formation prior to fertilization, reproductive cells divides by meiosis to give rise to haploid cells with half the number of chromosomes of the somatic cells.
During fertilization, two haploid gametes fuse together to give rise to a diploid zygote.
A donkey with 62 somatic chromosome will produce gametes with 31 chromosomes. Zonkey is a diploid organism and has chromosome number of 52, hence, the haploid gamete of zebra would have:
52 - 31 = 21 chromosomes.
Hence, the diploid (somatic) chromosome number of zebras will be:
21 x 2 = 42 chromosomes.
Do a timeline of the process of formation of fraternal twins started by the oogenensis
Answer:
The process of Faternal twins start when an ovum or egg split into two, and develop into individual babies which are known as faternal twins. Oogenesis is the formation of egg.
Explanation:
After the formation of ovum, it splits.
A gene encoding one of the proteins involved in the DNA replication has been inactivated by a mutatiion in a cell. In the absence of this protein the cell attempts to replicate its DNA for the very last time. What DNA products would be generated in each case if the following protein were missing / mutated? (a) primase(b) DNA ligase(c) DNA polymerase I
Answer:
primase - unwinded parental double helix DNA, no replication.
DNA ligase - new double helix DNA, one old strand and okazaki fragments
DNA polymerase 1 - original DNA strands, daughter strands with primers still attached.
Explanation:
The primase enzyme is responsible for the synthesis of RNA primer which binds with unwinded DNA strands at the origin of replications and serves as a starting chain for the daughter strands. Hence, their absence during replication will lead to the discontinuation of the replication process after the unwinding of the double helix structure by the helicase enzyme.
DNA ligase functions as to join fragments of DNA synthesized discontinuously (okazaki fragments) during replication. Okazaki fragments are generated after replication of the leading and the lagging strands have been complete. Hence, the absence of the DNA ligase will result in the lagging strands existing as a lone strand along with the okazaki fragments and a newly replicated DNA consisting of one old leading strand and its newly synthesized complimentary strand.
The DNA polymerase 1 is responsible for the removal of RNA primers and replacing them with DNA nucleotides after the elongation process. Hence, the absence of the enzyme will cause incomplete replication process.
How could a food web Based in water be connected to a good web based on land give examples?
Answer:
For an instance, an aquatic food web can be connected to a food web that is based on land. Planktons and algae are some of the main producers which are found in the marine ecosystem. These planktons are eaten by a tiny shrimp called krill. Whales, seals, squids and fishes feed on these tiny shrimps.
Explanation: