Answer:
50% green-seed individuals vs. 50% yellow-seed individuals.
Explanation:
Mendel is known as father of genetics. He explained the concept of dominance, the law of segregation and the law of independent assortment while working on pea plant.
Green seed color is recessive and yellow seed color is dominant. A pure green line seed plant (ss) is crossed with heterozygous plant (Ss). The cross is as follows:
Parents ss (green seed) × Ss (Yellow seed)
Gametes s S, s
progeny: Ss, Ss, ss, ss.
Here, Ss is yellow seed and ss is green seed.
50% green-seed individuals vs. 50% yellow-seed individuals are formed after the cross.
Thus, the correct answer is option (a).
Sauropod dinosaurs are more closely related to Aves than Ornithischian dinosaurs.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
TRUE
Explanation:
The Sauropods were the enormous herbivore dinosaurs that had a long neck and a tail, but the size of their head was relatively small. The fossil remnants of a previously existed unknown sauropod dinosaur species named 'Tataouinea hannibalis' were obtained from the rocks of the southern side of Tunisia.
From the fossil evidence, it was observed that a sizable opening was present in the ischium, which actually opens into a large air chamber. This observation supported the theory that considers the presence of abdominal air sacs in this type pf dinosaur species that are similar to the respiratory system of Aves (birds).
Thus, the Sauropods and Aves are closely related to one another.
Hence, the above statement is TRUE.
What feature distinguishes male embryo from female at eight weeks of age?
a. males have a Y chromosome
b. males have well developed primary reproductive organs
c. male testes have descended into the scrotum
d. in males, the ovaries have degenerated
e. all of the above
Answer:
A, B & D
Explanation:
It is not possible to distinguish the sex of a fetus below seven (7)weeks. At this stage only observation of chromosomes through karyotype can determine the sex. The male fetus will have an XY sex chromosome pair while females will have an XX chromosome pair. After the eighth weeks internal and external genitalia begins to differentiate. The testes and ovaries (the primary reproductive organs) begin to develop in males and females respectively. In males the paramesonephric ducts regresses while the mesonephric ducts begin to develop into testes. In females the mesonephric ducts regresses while the paramesonephric ducts begin to develop into ovaries.
Describe the key steps in the semiconservative replication of DNA.
Answer:
Semi-conservative replication is meant for the description of DNA replication and it i s called so because parent DNA helix produces two copies of original DNA, one of which consist of original DNA.
The three main steps in DNA replication includes Initiation, Elongation and Termination.
In the initiation phase, replication begins at origin of replication where helicase enzyme breaks the hydrogen bonds between base pairs and tends to unwind the double helix where the topoisomerase stabilizes the newly formed single strand DNA. DNA polymerase allows elongation to occur in leading direction and catalyses the addition of new nucleotide to new single strands. short sequences of RNA called primers paired to template strands with the help of primase. replication of both strands occurs at the same time one in continuous (3'-5') and other in discontinuous (5'-3') direction, which are called leading strands. new nucleotides added in 3' end and moving to replication fork while discontinuous synthesis occur on parent strand (5'-3') called lagging strand and completed in segments called okazaki fragments. Then primase add primers ahead at 5' end of the lagging strand. DNA polymerase ||| adds short sequences of nucleotides to the primer. During termination, exonuclease replaces DNA primer and DNA nucleotide and DNA ligase helps in making bonding between fragments and replaced nucleotide. Another exonuclease helps in proofreading the newly formed DNA and corrects the errors in sequences. At the end of the parent strands, telomeres are present which keeps on catalyzing by telomerase and completes, the formation of copies of parent DNA.
The semiconservative replication of DNA is a process where each new DNA molecule consists of one parental and one new strand. This process includes unwinding the DNA, helicase creating replication forks, binding proteins stabilizing single strands, and enzymatic actions such as Primase synthesizing RNA primers, DNA polymerase elongating new strands, and DNA ligase sealing the strands.
Explanation:Semiconservative Replication of DNAThe key steps in the semiconservative replication of DNA involve several critical actions and proteins to ensure that the DNA is copied accurately. The term semiconservative relates to the fact that each resultant DNA molecule consists of one old (parental) strand and one new (daughter) strand. The replication process can be described as follows:
DNA unwinds at the origin of replication.Helicase opens up the DNA, forming replication forks; these extend bidirectionally.Single-strand binding proteins coat the DNA strands to prevent them from rewinding.A short RNA primer is synthesized by Primase, which is necessary for DNA polymerase to begin synthesis of the new strand.DNA polymerase III attaches nucleotides to the 3'-OH group of the RNA primer, elongating the new strand.As synthesis proceeds, DNA polymerase continually adds new nucleotides to the growing strand in accordance with the base-pairing rules (A pairs with T, C pairs with G).Once the entire DNA molecule has been copied, DNA polymerase I replaces the RNA primers with DNA nucleotides.The DNA ligase enzyme seals the gaps between the newly synthesized DNA fragments, finalizing the strand.The result is two DNA molecules, each with one parental strand and one new strand - this conservation of the parental strand is why the process is known as semiconservative.How can a stem cell contain the same genetic information, yet specialize as bone cells nerve cells, muscle cells and connective tissue cells?
Answer: All cells in the body contain the same DNA, but different RNA, according to which proteins need to be synthesized.
Explanation:
DNA is the molecule that contains the genetic information necessary to generate proteins. This is due to the sequence of nucleotides, which are monomers of DNA. Each nucleotide contains a different base: Adenine (A), Timine (T), Guanine (G), Cytosine (C). But when the cell needs to synthesize proteins, DNA is not used directly but transcribed into RNA. This RNA is directed to the ribosomes, organelles where protein synthesis takes place, and according to the sequence of RNA (which is complementary to DNA), a different amino acids is coded. During translation, aminoacids are joined together to form proteins.
All cells in the body contain the same DNA, but different RNA, according to which proteins need to be synthesized. For example, a stem cell can give rise to any specialized cell in the body such as a nerve or muscle cell. All three have the same DNA but a nerve cell specializes in the transmission of impulses and neurotransmitters so it will replicate only the DNA genes that are necessary for this and this is how only part of the genetic material is replicated into RNA. The same goes for the muscle cell, which needs genes necessary for force and motion.
What is homeostasis? help me to understand homeostasis ?
Answer:
Explanation:
The mechanism in which internal conditions of the body are properly maintained and regulated.
Both plant and animal cells have a chloroplast.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Only plants have chloroplast.
This statement is FALSE. Only plant cells contain a chloroplast.
Hope this helps you
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Choose one property of water that makes it unique. Describe the property and explain the chemical or physical reason that causes water to have that property.
Answer:
Water has a pH value of 7. It is colorless and has a fixed boiling point at 100 Degree Celsius.
Explanation:
Answer: Water has many properties in it which makes it unique. This is because the reason water is known as universal solvent.
Explanation:
The water is considered as universal solvent because it has the ability to dissolve many solutes in it.
This ability of water is due to the presence of hydrogen bonding which dissolves different types of solutes in water.
The presence of hydrogen bonding in water provides it some more properties like surface tension, adhesion, cohesion.
ATP molecules from Glycolysis + Krebs cycle are _______________
a. 12 ATP
b. 28 ATP
c. 32 STP
d. 4 ATP
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-D.
Explanation:
Cellular respiration proceeds in four stages: glycolysis, link reaction, Krebs cycle and electron transport chain. ATP is produced in each step along with other reducing equivalents which gets reduced during the electron transport chain to form ATP.
In the given question, only ATP molecules formed during both glycolysis and Krebs cycle will be 4 ATP as 2 ATP are produced in glycolysis and 2 ATP are produced in the Krebs cycle per two molecules of pyruvic acid.
Thus, option-D is the correct answer.
Some of our neurons (cells of our nervous system) have ATP-gated calcium (Ca+2) channels in both their plasma membrane and nuclear envelope. (tricky
a. True
b. False
Answer:
The given statement is true.
Explanation:
Some of the neurons possess ATP-gated calcium channels in both their nuclear envelope and plasma membrane. The majority of the ion channels are ligand-gated and stays in their position, which shows that they do not move from one membrane to another.
However, the ATP gated calcium channels have been located in both the nuclear envelopes of some of the neurons and plasma membrane, which signifies that the channel may socialize between the two compartments.
Tuberculosis is caused by the pathogen Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which currently latently infects nearly a third of the world's population. It is thought that host fatty acids can serve as a sole carbon source during infection. How does M. tuberculosis most likely metabolize fatty acids as an energy source?
A) By converting the fatty acids directly to glucose, which is then oxidized via glycolysis and the citric acid cycle
B) By a process called beta-oxidation, in which two carbon groups are removed to form acetyl-coA that enters the citric acid cycle and is oxidized to form ATP and reducing power.
C) By substrate level phosphorylation that removes phosphate groups from the fatty acids and transfers them to ADP to form ATP.
D) By reducing them and taking the electrons and protons and entering them into the electron transport chain to set up a proton motive force to generate ATP via ATP synthase.
Answer:
Option B is correct.
Explanation:
By a process called beta-oxidation, in which two carbon groups are removed to form acetyl-coA that enters the citric acid cycle and is oxidized to form ATP and reducing power.
If a disease is continually present in a population in small amounts, it is considered an endemic disease.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
TRUE
Explanation:
Endemic diseases are the diseases or infections that are persistently present in the population of a particular geographical area.
An endemic infection or disease does not increase at an exponential rate and also does not get eliminated entirely. Therefore, such an infection is constantly maintained without any external outputs and thus reaches the endemic steady state.
The final product of the Calvin cycle is:
a. RuBisCo
b. ATP
c. CO2
d. G3P
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-D
Explanation:
Calvin cycle or C₃ cycle is a set of a cyclic reaction which takes place in the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis. Calvin cycle proceeds in three phases: carboxylation, reduction and regeneration.
The cycle produces two molecules of Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P) molecule during the reductional step of the cycle. Out of these two molecules, one G3P undergo for the regeneration of RuBP and one G3P undergo for the formation of a glucose molecule.
Thus, option-D is the correct answer.
Chorionic villus sampling is a prenatal test usually performed in the second trimester.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
b. False
Explanation:
Chorionic villus sampling test is used to determine the genetic disorder or chromosomal disorder in a fetus. Chorionic villus test is done by the PCR or by FISH. This test can take place usually performed in 10 to 12 weeks gestation i.e. first trimester, before amniocentesis. Chorionic villus can be removed by a needle. Pregnancy loss in CVS (Chorionic villus sampling) is 2-3 percent. So it is highly accurate.
Chorionic villus sampling is a prenatal test performed in the first trimester, specifically at 10-12 weeks of pregnancy, not in the second trimester. It is used to diagnose genetic abnormalities and determine the sex of the fetus, offering an earlier alternative to amniocentesis.
Explanation:The statement that chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is a prenatal test usually performed in the second trimester is false. CVS is an alternative method of prenatal diagnosis to amniocentesis and is typically performed earlier in pregnancy, between 10-12 weeks, during the first trimester. This procedure involves extracting a small amount of placental tissue, either through the abdominal wall or through the vagina, which provides cells for testing. The extracted cells can be used to diagnose over 100 genetic abnormalities, including chromosomal abnormalities like Down syndrome, enzymatic defects, and determining the sex of the fetus.
Unlike amniocentesis, which is done after 14-22 weeks and involves extracting amniotic fluid to obtain fetal cells for analysis, CVS allows for earlier detection and the possibility of a simpler process if an abortion is considered. Moms-to-be are also advised to avoid substances that can be fetotoxic as these can cross the placenta and affect the developing fetus, potentially leading to disorders like Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorders (FASD).
In evolution, why is it important that individuals vary from each other?
A. Variation allows some individuals to do better than others, so those variations are selected for.
B. If variations or mutations are extreme enough, new species can result.
C. Variations are important because individuals have to change through time.
D. Variations are important because they're inherited.
E. Variation gives every individual an equal chance of surviving so they can be selected for.
Answer:
D. Variations are important because they're inherited.
Explanation:
A. False
Not all variations are just beneficial, there are variations that can be harmful, leading natural selection to eliminate these individuals.
B. False
Without some environmental pressure, that is, any change that drives the selection of an individual, mutation alone cannot generate a new individual. If this mutation is not selected as "beneficial" and is not passed on to future generations, this mutation will disappear in that individual.
C. False
Not necessarily. Genetic variations occur at random, so those species that survive are selected and able to adapt.
E. False
It does not give an equal chance of surviving.
Plant cells differ from animal cells because only plant cells have _________
a. Cell wall and chloroplasts
b. Cell wall and centriole
c. Cell membrane and mitochondria
d. Lysosomes and central vacuole
Answer:
a. Cell wall and chloroplasts
Explanation:
The cell wall in plants facilitates the retention of the cell shape during over-hydration. The chloroplasts are organelles in plants that carry-out photosynthesis and produce glucose.
What do climate change (see Concept 1.1 and Concept 3.2) and ocean acidification have in common?
The cause of climate change and ocean acidification are the same, i.e., burning the fossil fuels.
When animals and plants decompose, in the earth crust, over the years, it leads to formation of fossil fuels.
Burning of fossil fuels can cause an increase in the level of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, this results in the ocean acidification and climate change activities.
Long-term changes in temperatures and weather patterns, mostly brought on by human activity, most notably the combustion of fossil fuels, are referred to as climate change.
The term “ocean acidification” describes a long-term decrease in the pH of the ocean that is principally brought on by the absorption of carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere.
To culminate, burning of fossil fuels lead to changes in the temperature and pH of the environment, which result in the climate change and ocean acidification.
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Climate change and ocean acidification are primarily caused by increasing atmospheric carbon dioxide levels due to human activities. These processes have damaging effects on ecosystems, especially marine life, and are closely interrelated with each other.
Explanation:Climate change and ocean acidification share a common cause and consequence. They both are caused primarily by the increasing level of atmospheric carbon dioxide due largely to human activities. As the concentration of carbon dioxide increases in the atmosphere, it also increases in the oceans, causing the seawater to become more acidic, a process known as ocean acidification. This can have detrimental effects on marine organisms, particularly coral reefs which are highly sensitive to changes in pH. Similarly, the rise in carbon dioxide in the atmosphere contributes to global climate change, altering global weather patterns, and resulting in a worldwide increase in temperature.
Furthermore, both these phenomena have interconnected impacts. For instance, global warming due to climate change also causes ocean warming, making oxygen less soluble in seawater and exacerbating the impacts of ocean acidification. In conclusion, both climate change and ocean acidification are interrelated problems, primarily driven by rising atmospheric carbon dioxide levels, and have substantial implications on our ecosystems.
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The androgen-binding protein functions to
A. Confer responsiveness of certain cells to male sex hormones.
B. Transport androgens in the plasma.
C. Bind and maintain high concentrations of testosterone in the seminiferous tubules.
D. A and B.
E. A, B and C
Answer:
C. Bind and maintain high concentrations of testosterone in the seminiferous tubules.
Explanation:
Seminiferous tubules are present within the testis of male reproductive system. In adults, each testis is oval in shape and is about 4-5 cm in length. Each testis has about 250 compartments called testicular lobules. These compartments contain highly coiled tubules called seminiferous tubules.
Within the seminiferous tubules, the male gamete i.e sperms are produced. Seminiferous tubules are lined inside by two types of cells called male germ cells (spermatogonia) and sertoli cells.
Spermatogonia give rise to spermatozoa which are released into the lumen of the tubule. In between spermatogenic cells, sertoli cells or sustentacular cells or nurse cells are present which provide nourishment to developing spermatozoa.
One of the function of sertoli cells are to release androgen binding protein (ABP) which binds and concentrates testosterone with in the seminiferous tubules.
The hormone testosterone is produced by the interstitial cells of Leydig located around the seminiferous tubules.
Consider this pathway: epinephrine → G protein-coupled receptor → G protein → adenylyl cyclase → cAMP. Identify the second messenger.
a. cAMP
b. G protein
c. GTP
d. adenylyl cyclase
Answer:
a. cAMP
Explanation:
Secondary messengers are signaling molecules which are present intracellularly and play a great role in amplification of a signal during signal transduction pathway.
cAMP, DAG and IP3 are common secondary messengers in GPCR signalling. GPCR are largest family of cell surface receptors which are associated with various functions like control of blood vessel dialation, interstitial epithelial cells, glycogen breakdown, inflammation, photoisomerization reaction etc.
The second messenger in the given pathway is cAMP.
Explanation:The second messenger in the given pathway is cAMP. In this pathway, epinephrine binds to a G protein-coupled receptor, which activates a G protein. The G protein then activates adenylyl cyclase, an enzyme that converts ATP into cAMP. Therefore, cAMP acts as the second messenger in this pathway.
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Proteins are broken down into ___________ by the enzyme ____________
Answer: Proteins are broken down into amino acids by protease enzymes.
Explanation:
Protein is an essential nutrients which is needed for growth and development. Protein is the major constituent of hormones, enzymes, eyes, muscles e.t.c.
The protein sources are eggs,beans,meats, milk e.t.c.
Protein digestion start in the stomach. Once protein consume get to the intestine, hydrochloric acid and protease enzymes breakdown protein into amino acids.The Amino acids are linked together by peptides bond. The perform this by cleaving to the peptides bond within the protein by a process called hydrolysis.
Before Baby A was born, she was not sending much blood to her lungs. Instead, the blood passed through the septal defect into the left atrium, which sent it to the left ventricle and to her body. But why didn't the baby die if no blood was going through her lungs?
(A) She was so small that the small amount of blood that did go through her lungs was enough
(B) She was getting her oxygen from placenta, not from breathing
(C) Before the last trimester, babies use anaerobic respiration, so she did not need oxygen
(D) She sent her blood out into her mother's body and through her mothers lungs instead
The right answer is B.
The purpose of breathing is to do homeostasis, which means, to take CO2 out and get oxygen to our blood.
Babies live into the wound surrounded by liquid, so they don't need to breathe with their lungs.
All the things they needed to survive are taken from the mother thought the placenta.
Answer:
The correct answer is option (B) "She was getting her oxygen from placenta, not from breathing".
Explanation:
In order to get the oxygen we need to live is necessary that the blood gets through our lungs. If an unborn baby has a problem that does not allow her to get blood to her lungs, she is still able to survive because she could get her oxygen from placenta, not from breathing. Placenta has a respiratory function that allows the baby for fetal oxygen supply and fetal carbon dioxide removal.
Which gland of the cane toad produces poison?
a. parotoid gland
b. tympanic membrane
c. glottis
d. eustachian tubes
Answer:
The correct option is: a. parotoid gland
Explanation:
Cane toads, also known as Bufo marinus or Rana marina Linnaeus, are the giant old species of the terrestrial true toads. The female cane toads are longer than the male cane toads.
The skin of the cane toad is highly toxic. An adult cane toad has large parotoid gland behind each eye, which secretes a milky-white toxic fluid called bufotoxin.
A planet is inhabited by creatures that reproduce with the same hereditary patterns seen in humans. Three phenotypic characters are height (T = tall, t = dwarf), head appendages (A = antennae, a = no antennae), and nose morphology (S = upturned snout, s = downturned snout). Since the creatures are not "intelligent," Earth scientists are able to do some controlled breeding experiments using various heterozygotes in testcrosses. For tall heterozygotes with antennae, the offspring are tall-antennae, 46; dwarf-antennae, 7; dwarf-no antennae, 42; tall-no antennae, 5. For heterozygotes with antennae and an upturned snout, the offspring are antennae-upturned snout, 47; antennae-downturned snout, 2; no antennae-downturned snout, 48; no antennae-upturned snout, 3. Calculate the recombination frequencies for both experiments.
Answer:
For the first experiment, the recombination frequency is shown below. This experiment comprises the cross between the Tall and the Antennae.
Tall-antennae - 46% - Expected
Dwarf-no antennae - 42% - Expected
Dwarf-antennae - 7% - Recombinant
Tall-no antennae - 5% - Recombinant
Total = 100%
For the recombinants, the recombination frequency is:
= 7 + 5 = 12%
Thus, the recombination frequency between the T and A genes is 12%.
For the second experiment, the cross takes place between the heterozygous antennae and the upturned snout. The results are shown below:
Antennae-upturned snout - 47% - Expected
No antennae-downward snout - 48 % - Expected
Antennae-downward snout - 2% - Recombinant
No antennae-upturned snout - 3% - Recombinant
Total = 100%
The recombinant frequency is = 2 + 3 = 5%
Thus, the recombination frequency between the A and S genes is 5%.
Answer:
For experiment 1, the recombinant frequecy is 12%
For experiment 2, the recombinant frequency is 5%
Explanation:
please look at the solution in the attached Word file
Which of the following sequences in double-stranded DNA is most likely to be recognized as a cutting site for a restriction enzyme?
a. AAGG
TTCC
b. GGCC
CCGG
c. ACCA
TGGT
d. AAAA
TTTT
Answer:
b. GGCC
CCGG
Explanation:
Restriction enzyme cleaves DNA at the restriction site. Restriction site has 4-8 nucleotide base pairs which are recognized by the restriction enzyme. This site usually has a palindromic sequence which means that the sequence is read as same on both the strands in 5' to 3' direction. Palindromic sequence is used because it increases the chances that both the strands are cut. Enzyme is also able to recognize the sequence no matter from which side it approaches the DNA. The enzyme also works as homodimers sometimes so having the same sequence makes the dimers easier to recognize it. Here, the sequence is GGCC in 5' to 3' direction on both the strands making it a palindromic sequence. Hence it is most likely to be recognized as a cutting site for a restriction enzyme.
Select examples of energy changing forms. Select the THREE answers that are correct.
(A) From a high perch, a raptor dives toward its prey.
(B) An animal has stores of lipids in its fatty tissues.
(C) A green plant absorbs light to make sugar molecules.
(D) A seed remains dormant for an extended period.
(E) A human jogs down the street for exercise.
Final answer:
Examples of energy changing forms include a raptor converting potential to kinetic energy during a dive, a green plant transforming solar energy into chemical energy via photosynthesis, and a human converting chemical energy into kinetic energy while jogging.
Explanation:
Energy transformations are fundamental to biological processes and occur when energy changes from one form to another. Three examples of energy changing forms include:
(A) From a high perch, a raptor dives toward its prey: Potential energy stored due to the raptor's high position is transformed into kinetic energy as it dives towards its prey.(C) A green plant absorbs light to make sugar molecules: Solar energy is captured by photosynthetic organisms and converted into chemical energy in the form of glucose during the process of photosynthesis.(E) A human jogs down the street for exercise: Chemical energy stored in the body's molecules is converted into kinetic energy during physical activity.These instances illustrate how diverse organisms harness and convert energy to fuel their life functions, a concept centrally important to understanding biology.
The citric acid cycle occurs in the:
a. Golgi apparatus
b. Thylakoid lumen
c. Mitochondrial matrix
d. Across the inner membrane of the mitochondria
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-C.
Explanation:
Cellular respiration is a slow process which breakdown the food components via oxidation to convert them into energy molecules. The respiration proceeds in four stages: Glycolysis, pyruvate decarboxylation, citric acid cycle and electron transport chain.
All these processes take place in different compartments of the cell-like glycolysis takes place in the cytoplasm and citric acid cycle or Kreb cycle takes place in the matrix of the mitochondria. The matrix of the mitochondria provides the necessary environment to proceed the step of the respiration.
Thus, option- C is the correct answer.
In a hemoglobin variant known as hemoglobin Kansas, an Asparaginein
the beta chain is replaced by a Threonine. This results in
thedisruption of a hydrogen bond that normally stabilizes the
R-stateof hemoglobin. Which statement is FALSE regarding the effect
thisamino acid change has on the ability of hemoglobin Kansas to
bindoxygen?
a. Inhemoglobin Kansas, there is an increase in the amount of
R-stateand a decrease in the amount of T-state.
b. In hemoglobinKansas, there is a decrease in the amount of
R-state and anincrease in the amount of T-state.
c. The R-state inhemoglobin Kansas is less stable than
normal.
d. The presence ofless oxy-Hb in hemoglobin Kansas indicates this
type of Hb has alower affinity for oxygen.
e. The p50 forhemoglobin Kansas is higher than normal.
Answer:
The false statement is option a.
Explanation:
If there occurs a disruption of a hydrogen bond, which usually stabilizes the R-state of hemoglobin, there is not likely to be an elevation in the concentration of R-state due to the unsteadiness of the hydrogen bond. The R-state would either remain constant or will get slow down.
Thus, the statement, that is, in hemoglobin Kansas, there is an elevation in the concentration of R-state and a reduction in the concentration of T-state is false.
Which of these is not a feature that links "dinosaurs' to modern day extant birds"?
a. A furcula
b. Feathers
c. S-shaped neck
d. Nasal turbinates
e. The flight stroke
Answer:
The correct answer is option d. "Nasal turbinates".
Explanation:
Most mammals and modern day birds have nasal turbinates that perform two functions: improve the sense of smell by providing a wider area for airborne chemicals absorption and warm and moisten inhaled air while extracting heat and moisture during air exhalation. On the other hand, no evidence have been found that suggest that dinosaurs had nasal turbinates. Although most dinosaurs had nasal passages, they were too narrow and short to accommodate nasal turbinates.
Make connections Imagine you want to study one of the human crystallins, proteins present in the lens of the eye (see Figure 1.8). To obtain a sufficient amount of the protein of interest, you decide to clone the gene that codes for it. Assume you know the sequence of this gene. How would you go about this?
Answer:
In order to clone the sequence of the gene for one of the human crystallins found in the eye, there is a need for the application of polymerase chain reaction. In the process, the particular sequence of gene is denatured and then replicated various times to generate various clones of the gene sequence.
By producing various copies of the gene sequence for the human crystallin, that is, desirable, a scientist can examine various distinct characteristics of the protein as there is always more to examine with.
Prokaryotes used to be classified into one group, but now they are classified in the Domains Bacteria and Archaea.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
Three domains of life are prokarya, eukarya and archae. Prokaryotes are the organism that lacks the well developed nucleus and membrane bound cell organelle.
Earlier the prokaryotes are classified in the one group. But the prokaryotes are now further classified into the domains archaea and bacteria. As prkaryotic organism shows the similar characteristics with the archae and prokarya. To make the study more simpler, prokaryotes are splits into the domains of bacteria and archaea.
Thus, the answer is true.
During bacterial transformation, DNA that enters a cell is not an intact chromosome; instead it consists of randomly generated fragments of chromosomal DNA. In a transformation where the donor DNA was from a bacterial strain that was a+ b+ c+ and the recipient was a b c, 55% of the cells that became a+ were also transformed to c+ But only 2% of the a+ cells were b+. Is gene b or c closer to gene a?
Answer:
Gene c is closer to a.
Explanation:
The process by which the bacteria take up the genetic material which is foreign from the environment is called as bacterial transformation and it is a type of horizontal gene transfer. When during transformation there is a simultaneous transfer of two or more genes then such type of transformation called co-transformation.According to the question, there is co-transformation occurring for both the genes a and b as well as for a and c, however, the frequency of cotransformation of a and c is higher (55%) than a and b (2%).A higher frequency of co-transformation indicates that the two genes are located more closely on the chromosome and hence, are usually transferred together, thus a and c are much closer as compared to a and b.