Answer:
codes for no amino acid.
Explanation:
A stop codon is meant for translation termination and does not specify any amino acid. There are three stop codons named UAA, UAG and UGA. These are also known as non sense codons. If any of these are encountered while translation is going on, the translation immediately stops. So if there are 100 codons including stop codon in an mRNA then only 99 amino acids will get incorporated.
A stop codon signals the end of protein synthesis without coding for an amino acid. Three such codons exist: UAA, UAG, and UGA. The AUG codon is unique and serves as the start codon, initiating translation and setting the reading frame.
Explanation:A stop codon is a sequence of three mRNA nucleotides that does not encode an amino acid but signals the termination of protein synthesis. The three stop codons are UAA, UAG, and UGA. These codons are also known as nonsense codons, and they are recognized by protein release factors rather than tRNA molecules. There is no tRNA that recognizes these codons, and so no amino acid is added when a stop codon is encountered. Instead, the presence of a stop codon leads to the release of the newly synthesized polypeptide from the translation machinery.
While most stop codons simply end translation, there is an exceptional case with the UGA codon, which can sometimes signal for the incorporation of the amino acid selenocysteine into a protein, but this requires a special mRNA hairpin loop structure and is not the norm.
The codon AUG has a dual role; it encodes for the amino acid methionine and also serves as the start codon to initiate translation. This sets the reading frame for mRNA translation, which proceeds by reading nucleotides in groups of three until a stop codon is reached, terminating the process.
The cell cycle results in the production of ______. four diploid cells, each with the same amount of genetic material and the same genetic information two diploid cells, each with the same amount of genetic material but with different genetic information two diploid cells, each with the same amount of genetic material and the same genetic information a diploid zygote four haploid cells, each with the same amount of genetic material but with different genetic information
Final answer:
The cell cycle through meiosis results in the production of four haploid daughter cells, each with half the genetic material of the parent cell and different genetic information, due to processes like crossing over and random assortment.
Explanation:
The Cell Cycle and Meiosis
The cell cycle, specifically through the process of meiosis, results in the production of four haploid daughter cells, each with half the amount of genetic material compared to the parent cell, and with different genetic information. During meiosis, a single diploid cell undergoes one round of DNA replication followed by two successive rounds of nuclear division to form four haploid cells. These haploid cells are genetically unique due to the random assortment of chromosomes (maternal and paternal) and crossing over that mixes DNA segments between chromatids.
Initially, the parent cell has 46 chromosomes (23 pairs), and after meiosis, each of the resulting haploid cells contains 23 chromosomes. These cells are destined to become gametes. Upon fertilization, the combination of a haploid sperm and a haploid egg results in the creation of a diploid zygote.
Therefore, the correct answer regarding the outcome of the cell cycle is "four haploid cells, each with the same amount of genetic material but with different genetic information." This differs from mitosis, which produces two diploid daughter cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell.
This study is replicated in the Appalachian Mountains with similar results. Which of the following is true? The number of days with poor flower availability increased. The number of days with poor flower availability decreased. Flower availability fluctuated wildly. There was no change in the number of days with poor flower availability.
Answer:
There was no change in the number of days with poor flower availability
Explanation:
When replicating a study, the researcher develops the exact same study (experiment/treatment) in different places (experimental unit). In this case, as the researcher replicates the study in the Appalachian Mountains and gets similar results, that means that there was no change in the number of days with poor flower availability.
The impacts of climate change on the timing of flowering in plants can affect their availability to insect pollinators. But without specifics from the related study in the Appalachian Mountains, it's impossible to say whether days with poor flower availability increased, decreased, remained the same or fluctuated.
Explanation:The answer to whether the number of days with poor flower availability increased, decreased, fluctuated, or didn't change based on a study replicated in the Appalachian Mountains isn't provided in your question. However, studies show that temperature and precipitation, which are impacted by climate change, play crucial roles in the geographic distribution and phenology of plants and animals. As seen in Great Britain, climate change can cause plants to flower earlier than in previous years.
This is pertinent because if the insect pollinators don't emerge earlier in sync with the flowers, there could be harmful ecosystem effects as a result of this mismatch of timing. Consequently, there might be days of poor flower availability for these insects. But without specifics pertaining to the study in the Appalachian Mountains, a definitive answer can't be given.
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Which of the following is not a function of astrocytes? A) support and brace neuronsB) anchor neurons to blood vesselsC) guide the migration of young neurons, synapse formation, and helping to determine capillary permeability D) control the chemical environment around neuronsE) provide the defense for the CNS
Answer:
provide the defense for the CNS
Explanation:
Astrocytes are star shaped glial cells present in the central nervous system. These cells are known to perform important function in the organisms.
The different function performed by astrocytes are: the maintenance of extracellular ion,acts as a blood brain barrier and helps in synapse formation. Astrocytes do not provide defense for the CNS.
Thus, the correct answer is option (E).
Miguel's wife brought him to the emergency room because Miguel could not remember his name, the names of his family members, where he worked, or any other basic personal information. Extensive tests at the hospital indicated that Miguel's memory problems were not due to an injury, an illness, drugs, or any other physical or medical condition. A clinical psychologist suggested that Miguel might be suffering from:
Answer:
Dissociative Disorder
Explanation:
Dissociative Disorder, also known as conversion disorder, is a mental disorder in which the person suffers from a psychological imbalance, with alterations in consciousness, memory, identity, emotion, perception of the environment, movement control and behavior. A common symptom of this disorder is the non-recognition of family members, as well as a loss of memory of things that were done on a daily basis.
Miguel is showing this kind of symptom so there is a chance that he is suffering from dissociative disorder.
Which event takes place during anaphase II of meiosis II?
a. Sister chromatids separate.
b. Cytoplasm divides.
c. Spindle fibers disassemble.
d. Nuclear membrane breaks down.
Answer:
Sister chromatids separate.
Explanation:
Anaphase II is the stage of meiosis II where sister chromatids separate. This process is followed by cytoplasm division and the disassembly of spindle fibers.
Explanation:Anaphase II is a stage of meiosis II where sister chromatids separate. This occurs after the nuclear membrane has broken down and the spindle fibers attach to the centromeres of the chromatids. During anaphase II, the chromatids are pulled apart and move towards opposite poles of the cell.
After anaphase II, cytoplasm divides during cytokinesis, resulting in the formation of two daughter cells. The spindle fibers also disassemble during telophase II, marking the end of meiosis II.
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The type of bond that joins monosaccharides and is easily digested by enzymes in the human intestine is a __________. delta bond peptide bond beta bond alpha bond
Answer: alpha bond
Explanation:
The carbohydrates popularly called sugars are energy nutrients formed by carbon, hydrogen and oxygen atoms. It is the main energy source of the man and also has a structural or plastic role (formation of parts of cells such as the cell wall, or tissues, such as the exoskeleton chitin of the insects and crustaceans - crab). The small intestine's main mission is to complete the digestion of the chyme. In its passage through the duodenum, it suffers the action of pancreatic and intestinal juices and bile. In fact, it is in the duodenum that most digestive secretions are produced. The foods complexes are thus transformed into simple elements, easily assimilable by the body.
Enzymes are protein catalysts responsible for most of the chemical reactions of the organism, is found in all tissues. Amylase acts in the intestine hydrolyzing glucose polymers (starch, amylopectin, and glycogen). The bonds that hold the monosaccharides together and which are easily digested by pancreatic amylase in the intestine are known as alpha bonds. Some examples of sugars that have alpha bonds are sucrose, maltose, and starch.
The type of bond that joins monosaccharides and is easily digested by enzymes in human intestine is an alpha bond.
Further Explanation:
Carbohydrates are biomolecules which comprises of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen atoms. They mostly include starch, cellulose and sugars. This when consumed by an organism is broken down into its simplest form (monosaccharides) and used to produce energy. This action requires digestive enzyme amylase.
Monosaccharides are most simple sugars which are product of breakdown of complex carbohydrates. Breakdown of these carbohydrates are brought by digestive enzymes present in saliva and in small intestine. The enzyme responsible for this digestion is salivary amylase and pancreatic amylase.
These enzymes cleave the bond and giving rise to two monosaccharides. These bonds are alpha bonds that help in connecting two monosaccharides. The digestive enzyme amylase present in saliva and in pancreatic juices helps to bring down the digestion. The partially digested food reaches the intestine where the enzyme acts on it, this is called as chyme.
Glucose is the most abundant form of energy giving compound which undergoes respiration to form ATP which is a basic energy giving molecule in the entire living organism.
Learn More:
1. Learn more about carbohydrate monomer https://brainly.com/question/6947177
2. Learn more about lipid bilayer https://brainly.com/question/751529
3. Learn more about peptide bonds https://brainly.com/question/4657391
Answer Details:
Grade: High School
Subject: Biology
Chapter: Biochemistry
Keywords:
Biochemistry, monosaccharides, alpha bond, Bond, alpha linkage, enzymes, amylase, salivary amylase, pancreatic amylase, biomolecules, hydrogen, carbon, oxygen, energy, basic energy fuel, ATP, glucose, starch, sugar, cellulose.
A urine sample with more than 100,000 organisms is considered indicative of infection. A urine sample containing 5,000 bacteria, with a generation time of 30 minutes, sits for 3 hours before finally being assayed. How many bacteria will then be present within the sample?
Answer:
320 000
Explanation:
The generation time G is the time it takes a bacterial population to double.
If N₀ is the number of bacteria at the beginning of the experiment and N is the number at any time t,
N = Nₒ × 2ⁿ
where n is the number of generations
n = t/G
Data:
N₀ = 5000
G = 30 min
t = 3 h
Calculations:
t = 3 h = 180 min
n = 180 min/30 min = 6
N = 5000 × 2⁶ = 5000 × 64 = 320 000
There will be 320 000 bacteria in the sample.
Which statement is true of the genetic material in viruses? It is larger than cellular DNA. It can be DNA or protein. It changes very slowly. It can be DNA or RNA.
Answer:
C. It can be DNA or RNA
Explanation:
Viruses can be described as non cellular, microscopic, infective agent that are composed of genetic material ( DNA or RNA), which is surrounded by a protenaceous coat known as viral capsid.
It means that there can be RNA ( ribonucleic acid) and DNA ( deoxyribonucleic acid) based viruses.
To find the graphical solution when adding vectors, you can draw a(n) ____ from the starting point to the ending point.
Answer:
arrow (which creates the resultant vector)
Explanation:
When you use the graphing technique when adding vectors, you can use the head to tail method to draw the vectors. And from the starting point or the tail of the first vector you drew, you will draw an arrow touching heads with the head of the last vector drawn.
With that, you can use a ruler to measure the resultant vector's magnitude, and use a protractor to measure it's direction.
Below is an example:
Let:
V1 = Vector 1
V2 = Vector 2
R - resultant vector.
What is the binomial name of the tiny mammal of the family craseonycteridae
Answer:
It's name is:
Crase-onycteris tho-nglongyai
You should remove the - but else it won't let me post the name...
Answer:
Craseonycteris tho-nglongyai
Explanation:
Can i put hydrogen peroxide in my dogs ear
Answer: Yes you can
Explanation:A solution of one part hydrogen peroxide and one part water can be used to wipe out the canals of the ear with a cotton ball for a dog with a mild infection post-veterinarian approval. ... Hydrogen peroxide can kill forms of bacteria that can cause ear infections, which will leave your dog earache free.
While hydrogen peroxide can be used to clean a dog's ear due to its antibacterial properties, it needs to be diluted and used with care. It's always recommended to consult with a veterinarian before attempting this.
Explanation:Yes, you can put hydrogen peroxide in your dog's ear, but it should be used carefully and only when necessary. Hydrogen peroxide has antibacterial properties and can be used to clean wounds, including those inside a dog's ear. However, it should be diluted before use. A dilution of 1 part peroxide to 1 part water is generally considered safe. You should apply it using a cotton ball or soft cloth, making sure not to poke it deep inside the ear. Always consult with your veterinarian before attempting this procedure, as inappropriate usage could potentially harm your pet.
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Can mold grow inside of chocolate
Answer:
It is is almost impossible for chocolate to mold as it doesn't have any moisture, required for mold growth.
There are two types of bloom:
Sugar bloom -- wipe the chocolate with a wet finger, it will dissolve.
Fat bloom -- wipe the chococolate with a dry finger, it will feel waxy or greasy
Either tends to look like a chalky coating, not very thick, definitely not fuzzy (like mold).
Yes, mold can grow inside chocolate if it is exposed to warm, humid or damp conditions. It is important to store chocolate properly to avoid mold growth, as some molds produce harmful mycotoxins.
The answer is yes, mold can potentially grow inside chocolate under certain conditions. Molds are microscopic fungi that can grow on various foods, including fruits, vegetables, meats, and dairy products, and they can appear as a gray or green "fur."
In particular, chocolate that has been exposed to warm, humid, or damp conditions may become a breeding ground for mold. Although chocolate is less likely to mold than many other foods because of its low water activity, if moisture is introduced or the storage conditions are poor, mold growth is possible.
This is why maintaining proper storage conditions for chocolate is important to prevent mold contamination.
Some molds that grow on food can produce dangerous mycotoxins, which are harmful if ingested, leading to allergic reactions, respiratory problems and even toxic effects. It's critical to discard any chocolate that shows visible signs of mold to avoid health risks.
Two true-breeding stocks of pea plants are crossed. One parent has red, axial flowers and the other has white, terminal flowers; all F1 individuals have red, axial flowers. The genes for flower color and location assort independently. If 1,000 F2 offspring resulted from the cross, approximately how many of them would you expect to have red, terminal flowers?
a. 250
b. 750
c. 190
d. 65
e. 565
Answer:
565 is right answer of this quation
hich phylum is characterized by animals that have a segmented body?
A) Cnidaria
B) Platyhelminthes
C) Silicea
D) Arthropoda
E) Mollusca
Answer:
D) Arthropoda
Explanation:
Arthropods are from the invertebrate family. It is a very diverse group and there are few characteristics that are common to all. One of them is that they all have segmented bodies.
Classification of arthopods:
1. Chelicerata: this group is characterized by having two appendages (chelicers) at the sides of the mouth to eat. Spiders and scorpions are an example of this group.
2. Miriapoda: they are terrestrial and have the particularity of having many legs. Among them are the Centipedes and Millipedes.
3. Crustacea: they are generally aquatic and have branched limbs. The crabs and lobsters are in this group.
4. Hexapoda: those in this group have 6 legs. This includes insects such as flies and beetles.
What method(s) do plants use to obtain nitrogen? Select all that apply.
absorb it from the atmosphere
use bacteria to convert nitrogen to usable form
In obtain usable nitrogen compounds from the soil
absorb nitrogen from water taken in at the roots
Answer:
Plants can't use N2 as is so the first option is wrong. They do have relationships with bacteria that live in nodules of the root and convert the nitrogen into ammonia, a usable form for the plants. So the second option is correct. There are bacteria living in the soil as well that convert nitrogen to ammonia so technically option 3 is also correct. Again, nitrogen if present in water would be in the form N2 which is not usable by plants so 4 is wrong.
These are correct:
use bacteria to convert nitrogen to usable form
In obtain usable nitrogen compounds from the soil
Plants acquire nitrogen through natural processes. Nitrogen is introduced into the soil by fertilizers and animal and plant debris. Bacteria in the soil convert nitrogen into ammonium and nitrates. These are taken up by plants in the process of nitrogen fixation. Plants use this method to obtain nitrogen.
These are correct:
Bacteria convert nitrogen into a usable form
Extract available nitrogen compounds from soil
How do plants get nitrogen?Plants cannot get nitrogen from the air but rely primarily on the supply of fixed nitrogen in the form of ammonia or nitrates. This results from nitrogen fixation by free-living bacteria in the soil or symbiotic bacteria in the tubers in the soil. The roots of legumes arise from the soil.
How do plants absorb nitrogen from the atmosphere?Plants get the required nitrogen from soil that is already fixed by bacteria and archaea. Bacteria and paleobacteria in the roots of soil and some plants have the ability to convert atmospheric molecular nitrogen (N2) to ammonia (NH3), thereby breaking the strong molecular nitrogen triple bonds.
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Most genes come in alternative forms called
Most genes come in alternative forms called alleles. However, a process called alternative RNA splicing can result in one gene producing various protein products, adding another layer of complexity to gene expression and function.
Explanation:Most genes come in alternative forms called alleles. Alleles are gene variants that arise by mutation and exist at the same relative locations on homologous chromosomes. For some genes, there can even be more than two alleles within a population.
However, the complexity doesn't stop there. In the 1970s, scientists discovered a process called alternative RNA splicing, which allows a single gene to produce multiple protein products. During alternative RNA splicing, different combinations of introns (and sometimes exons) are removed from the mRNA transcript. This process can be strictly controlled or haphazard, and it acts as a mechanism of gene regulation, influencing the production of proteins in different cells or at different stages of development. Remarkably, it's estimated that 70% of human genes undergo alternative splicing, further increasing the diversity of possible proteins.
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Which properties of water plays an important role in the movement of water from the roots to the leaves in plants?Universal solventhigh specific heathigh heat of vaporizationcapillary action
Answer:
Capillary action
Explanation:
Capillary action is the ability of a liquid to flow in narrow spaces in opposition to forces like gravity.
The male trees of a plant with vascular tissue and cones have multiflagellated sperm. The female trees produce rotten-smelling fleshy seeds that contain butyric acid. Which of the following is the most logical conclusion about the classification of this plant?
a. It belongs to the phylum Coniferophyta.
b. It belongs to the phylum Cycadophyta.
c. It belongs to the phylum Gingkophyta.
d. It belongs to the phylum Gnetophyta.
Answer: C. Phylum Gingkophyta.
Answer:
c. It belongs to the phylum Gingkophyta.
Explanation:
The tree in question is Ginkgo biloba, a tree belongs to the phylum Gingkophyta. It is a conifer. This species is the last species of this phylum, so often Ginkgo is called as ‘living fossil’. The male plant bears the male cone which produces multiflagellated sperms. Since it is a memebr of gymnospserm, it has well developed vascular tissue. The female trees produce fruits. The fruits emit very bad smell when left on the ground to rot. The rotting fruit releases butyric acid from the fleshy fruit wall sarcotesta.
Plasma membrane of a skeletal muscle fiber - _________Extension of the sarcolemma that dives into the muscle fiber and surrounds - _________Modified smooth endoplasmic reticulum that wraps around the myofibrils and stores calcium ions - _________Point at which the sarcoplasmic reticulum swells where it meets a T-tubule - _________Rodlike bundle of contractile filaments found in muscle fibers - _________Long, filamentous proteins that constitute myofibrils - _________Myofilament composed of the contractile protein myosin - _________Myofilament composed of contractile protein actin and the regulatory proteins troponin and tropomyosin - ______
Answer:
1. Sarcolemma
2. T-Tubule
3. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
4. Terminal Cisternae
5. Myofibrils
6. Myofilament
7.Thick filament
8. Thin filament
Explanation:
These are all parts of the skeletal muscle and they are all involved in the contraction of your muslces.
The sacrolemma is also known as the myolemma. It is a specialized plasma membrane of the skeletal muscle cell. It is an excitable membrane that shares similarities to the cell membrane of a neuron cell.
The T-tubule extends from the sarcolemma to the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR). This is the smooth endoplasmic reticulum of the muscle cell. When the sarcolemma gets excited, it triggers the SR to release the calcium ions stored in it. The release of Calcium ions triggers the contraction of myofilaments.
There are two types of myofilaments, the thick myofilament and the thin myofilament. These myofilaments contain contractile proteins, actin and myosin. Thick myofilaments contain myosin where one thick myofilament contains 300 myosin molecules. Thin myofilaments contain contractile and regulatory proteins. These myofilamens make up myofibrils.
apex learning:
Antibiotics destroy a bacterial infection by disabling ribosomes in the bacteria. Eukaryotic cells contain mitochondria that themselves contain ribosomes while bacterial cells have no organelles and thus have uncontained ribosomes. How do chemists use this fact to create antibiotics that can destroy a bacterial infection without harming human cells?
Answer:
Different antibiotics work differently from each other, some attack bacterial cell wall, some attack proteins, some attack ribosomes and some attack DNA replication machinery.
Antibiotics that attack the ribosomes such as 'tetracycline' actualy inhibit the bacteria to grow by attacking their protein synthesis. Protein synthesis is accomplished in ribosomes, tetracycline cross the bacterial membrane and enter cytoplasm from there i binds on a single specific site on the ribosomes which result in the halting of RNA interaction that stops protein synthesis or extension. In humans, the accumulation of such antibiotics is not to such an extent that it damages the cell machinery.
The "secondary survey" is preformed in the emergency room setting after the primary survey has been completed and all life-threatening conditions have been dealt with. What are the components of the secondary survey?
Answer: It involves inspection, palpation, auscultation, and percussion.
Explanation: The secondary assessment is undertaken after the primary assessment , it is assumed that all the life threatening conditions have been solved during the primary assessment.
The main components that is involved in the secondary assessment is that patients must be explored for any specific conditions.
It includes the components like inspection, auscultation, palpation, and percussion. It should always be documented properly.
The epiglottis is pushed downward and the larynx is lifted up to meet it when we swallow. True False
Answer:
The correct answer is true.
Explanation:
Swallowing of food is the process of passing the food from the mouth to the stomach through the way of the throat (pharynx) and esophagus. This process takes place in three stages: oral, pharyngeal, and esophageal stages
During the pharyngeal stage, epiglottis which is a leaf-shaped flap of cartilage located at top of the larynx (a muscular organ forming voice box) perform functions in response to the swallowed food as the larynx lift up or rises inside the neck to close the epiglottis while the epiglottis moves downward to cover it, providing more airway protection.
Thus, true is the correct answer.
Yes, when we swallow the larynx lifts upward and the epiglottis (which is attached to the thyroid cartilage and covers the trachea) swings downward. This prevents food or liquid from entering the trachea and directs it into the esophagus.
Explanation:Yes, it is true that the epiglottis is pushed downward and the larynx is lifted up when we swallow. The epiglottis, attached to the thyroid cartilage, is a very flexible piece of elastic cartilage that covers the glottis, the opening of the trachea. During the act of swallowing, the pharynx and larynx lift upward. This allows the pharynx to expand and the epiglottis of the larynx to swing downward, closing the opening to the trachea and preventing food and beverages from entering. At the same time, the larynx is pulled superiorly and the cartilaginous epiglottis folds inferiorly.
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Chemoreceptors in the circulatory system detect changes in circulating pCO2. If CO2 concentrations get too high, the rate of ventilation increases. Why does this make sense?
Answer: The more active cells produce more carbon dioxide.
Explanation:
When the cells are constantly working the amount of oxygen consumed and more amount of carbon dioxide is released by the cells.
Chemo receptors in the circulatory system increases the ventilation so that more carbon dioxide can go out of the cell and more oxygen can get inside the cell.
This is because the more active cells more carbon dioxide and there is a sudden increase in the concentration of carbon dioxide which need to be corrected by the help of ventilation.
A student designed an experiment to demonstrate an effect of the interaction between the atmosphere and water. Which of these best describes the experiment designed by the student?
Answer:
I would say B) Blow over water in a bowl to produce ripples.
The student's experiment illustrates various atmospheric interactions with water, such as evaporation, sublimation, transpiration, condensation, gravity's role, convection, and the water cycle, using a combination of visual representations and physical demonstrations.
The experiment designed by the student to demonstrate the interaction between the atmosphere and water involves multiple scenarios depicting processes such as evaporation, sublimation, transpiration, condensation, gravity, convection, and the water cycle. In each scenario, the student uses visual aids to represent the process and provides observations and rationales for the results, for example:
In evaporation, a lamp representing the sun dries up water in a tray, mimicking puddles drying after rain.Sublimation is shown with the sun causing ice to turn directly into water vapor without melting.Transpiration is demonstrated with water collecting on a plastic bag around a lamp-lit plant.Observation of condensation occurs with droplets forming on the outside of a jar with warm water and ice on top.A representation of the force of gravity is shown with a drawing of a waterfall.In the convection scenario, hot water rises and cold water sinks in a container, illustrated with colored ice and warm food coloring.The entire water cycle is demonstrated with a drawing of the sun causing puddles to evaporate, form clouds, and then precipitation.These activities collectively help the student and peers understand the complex interactions of heat energy from the sun, the transitional phases of water, and atmospheric phenomena that are part of the Earth's water cycle.
Once researchers identified DNA as the molecule responsible for transmitting heritable traits, they asked how information was transferred from the DNA in the nucleus to the site of protein synthesis in the cytoplasm. Which of the following statements correctly describes the mechanism of information transfer in eukaryotes that accomplishes this task?
A) Transfer RNA takes information from DNA directly to a ribosome, where protein synthesis takes place.
B) Histone proteins in the chromosomes transfer information from the nucleus to the ribosome, where protein synthesis takes place.
C) Messenger RNA is transcribed from a single gene and transfers information from the DNA in the nucleus to the cytoplasm, where protein synthesis takes place.
D) DNA from a single gene is replicated and transferred to the cytoplasm, where it serves as a template for protein synthesis
Answer:
C) Messenger RNA is transcribed from a single gene and transfers information from the DNA in the nucleus to the cytoplasm, where protein synthesis takes place.
Explanation:
DNA transfers the heredity information from parents to the offspring, via central dogma. DNA transcripts its information into messenger RNA, inside the nucleus via RNA polymerase and addition of base pairs.
This transcript of RNA carries the information encoded on it. It translates its information into proteins in the cytoplasm, According to the mRNA sequences the amino acid codons are created that form the specific peptides. This is how information is transferred from DNA in the nucleus and then to the cytoplasm.
Which of the following is characteristic of all leukocytes?
A. They are phagocytic.
B. They are the most numerous of the formed elements in blood.
C. They are nucleated.
D. They have cytoplasmic granules.
Answer: They are nucleated
Explanation:
That is the right answer, not all leukocytes have the other characteristics....
The characteristic of all leukocytes is - C. They are nucleated.
Leukocytes are the major part of the body's immune system that fights in body with infection and other diseases. Types of leukocytes cells are granulocytes, monocytes, and lymphocytes cells.
These cells leave the bloodstream to perform their defensive functions in the body's tissuesAll white blood cells are nucleated, unlike anucleated red blood cells and platelets.These cells do not have hemoglobin that carries oxygen in RBC.Thus, The characteristic of all leukocytes is - C. They are nucleated.
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Which of the following describes a phenomenon that occurs when we observe plants that wilt?
A. The xylem releases all its water.
B. The stomata close, cutting off transpiration and gas exchange.
C. The roots begin to rot, causing them to no longer uptake water.
D. The plant begins absorbing oxygen and releasing carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.
Answer:
The stomata close, cutting off transpiration and gas exchange. - B
Answer:A
Explanation:
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Which customers are typical for the Agriculture, Food, and Natural Resources career cluster? Select ALL that apply.
a power company needing solar panels
a local fresh market
a business working with trained animals
a person buying large quanities of wheat
a person learning about geography
a family on a camping trip
Answers:
a local fresh market ( second choice)
a business working with trained animals ( third choice)
a person buying large quanities of wheat ( fourth choice)
In Europe, approximately 4% of people are red-haired, mostly due to a recessive mutation in the melanocortin 1 receptor (MC1R). If the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what is the likelihood that a non-redheaded European is a carrier for the MC1Rr allele? (For the purpose of this problem, assume all redheads and carriers are mutant for the same MC1R allele).
A: 22%
B: 33%
C: 11%
D: 44%
Answer:
33%.
Explanation:
The 4% population is red-hair due to the recessive mutation in melanocortin 1 receptor (MC1R).
Since, the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equillibrium- laet the frequency of recessive allele with red - hair is 'q' and the frequency of dominant allele in the population is 'p'.
[tex]q^{2} =4\%[/tex]
[tex]q^{2} = 0.04[/tex]
q=0.2
According to hardy-weinberg equillibrium
(p+q)=1
p=1-q
p=1-0.2
p=0.8.
The total population with non red hair is calculated by
=[tex]p^{2} +2pq[/tex]
= 0.64 + 0.32
= 0.96
The percentage of the population with non red headed carrier for MC1Rr is calculated by:
=0.32/0.96*100
=33%
Thus, the correct answer is (B).
An extremely fractious cat has been admitted to the facility. Due to its disposition, you are unable to remove it from its carrier. What opioid normally given by injection can be given orally for sedation or analgesia?
Answer:
The correct answer is buprenorphine.
Explanation:
The efficiency of the pain medication and that for how long the pain will be monitored generally relies upon on how closely the drug will associate with a receptor. The drug buprenorphine exhibits both high avidity and high affinity for the opioid receptors, thus, making it a highly efficient medicine for pain for feline pain relief. The majority of the formulations of the drug only offers six to eight hours of analgesia.