Answer:
B. control/cure
Explanation:
It is known that there are medical conditions which are difficult to deal with, that is why it is necessary that patients undergo an appopriate control in order to have a better quality of life. One example of these conditions can be diabetes which requires an entire change in lifestyle and a suitable control in order to enhance the patient's life.
Sometimes Kianna wants to become a lawyer and focuses her attention on school work. Other times she finds playing with children so fun and spends most of her time as a volunteer at a preschool. Kianna's change of interests is an example of Erikson's_______________.
Answer:
Kianna's change of interests is an example of Erikson's identity vs confusion stage.
Explanation:
The identity vs confusion stage is the 5th stage of Erikson's theory. This stage is during the teen years and is a time of personal exploration that allows the person to construct his or her identity through different experiences. The person learns about what he or she likes and dislikes and thinks about the future. During this process, the teen might be confused at times because he or she is learning about him or herself.
Jamal's therapist has suggested that Jamal should "act as if" he is confident, even though he feels insecure and shy. Which social psychological theory would best support this suggestion, and what might the therapist be hoping to achieve?
Answer:
Cognitive dissonance theory. The therapist is hoping to create a cognitive dissonance in Jamal in order to make him change how feels and readjust his behavior to build his confidence level as against his usual feeling of insecurity and shyness.
Explanation:
Cognitive dissonance is a social psychology concept that as developed by Leon Festinger. The theory states that, an individual tends to experience inconsistency and becomes tensed when the individual is exposed to beliefs that contradict their values or beliefs. The individual begins to experience dissonance. To solve this internal conflict, the individual would have to react in certain ways in order to return to consistency and establish a level of comfort.
The therapist suggestion that Jamal should “act as if” he is confident would create cognitive dissonance within Jamal. In order for Jamal to establish a consistency between what he believes about himself initially and what he is being told by the therapist, he would act confident, thereby realigning his values and beliefs with his action. The therapist would succeed in making Jamal view himself as a confident person .
Final answer:
Self-efficacy theory supports Jamal's therapist's suggestion to "act as if" he is confident, aiming to create a positive feedback loop that enhances Jamal's belief in his ability to succeed and thus, his confidence.
Explanation:
The social psychological theory that best supports Jamal's therapist's suggestion for him to "act as if" he is confident is self-efficacy, as proposed by Albert Bandura. Self-efficacy refers to one's belief in their ability to succeed in specific situations or accomplish a task. The goal of the therapist might be to enhance Jamal's belief in his own capabilities, which could lead to an actual increase in confident behaviors and decrease in feelings of vulnerability.
By acting with confidence, Jamal could experience a positive feedback loop where successful enactment of confidence leads to increased self-belief and further confident actions. The theory suggests that as Jamal continues to engage in behaviors associated with confidence, his general self-efficacy in social situations is likely to improve.
This method is also associated with the concept of "cognitive restructuring," where a person changes their pattern of thought to alter emotional states and behaviors. Thus, by acting confidently, Jamal might start to think and feel more confident as well.
A patient comes into the emergency department. During the physical exam, you note that a clear fluid is leaking from the nose. You notice that this is cerebrospinal fluid. Which bone has been likely fractured to allow for leakage?
Answer:
The skull.
Explanation:
The cerebrospinal fluid is a clear fluid that serves as a nutrient delivey system for the brain, it also removes waste and acts as a cushion surrounding the brain and spinal cord. Its leakage from the nose usually happens when there is a fistula between the dura and the skull base after a trauma. This kind of fractures can lead to meningitis and surgery is needed.
I hope you find this information useful and interesting! Good luck!
The bacteria that causes the bubonic plague is carried by______ Fleas bite rats
Answer:
Xenopsylla cheopis (the rat flea)
Explanation:
Bubonic plague is mainly spread by infected fleas from small animals namely, rats. It is a result of exposure to the body fluids from a dead plague-infected animal. In the bubonic form of plague, the bacteria enter through the skin from a flea bite and travel through the pymphatic system in humans
Answer:
bacteria
Explanation:
cuz
Which of the following is a true statement: Group of answer choices Reversal designs should always be used over an alternating treatments design whenever possible Reversal and alternating treatments designs should not be combined within an experiment Reversal and alternating treatments designs could be combined within an experiment Reversal and alternating treatments are synonymous
Answer:
The true statement is: Reversal and alternating treatments designs should not be combined within an experiment
Explanation:
Reversal and alternating treatments are not the same because one is just another treatment to use and the other is a possible treatment that could work.
However, these both cannot be used together without its pertinent experiment because it could cause a crossed effect, also, the secondary effects should be consider.
Reversal and alternating treatments designs could be combined within an experiment. Reversal designs establish causality by removing treatments to see changes, while alternating treatments allow comparison of different treatments within the same subject over time.
The true statement among the options provided is that reversal and alternating treatments designs could be combined within an experiment. Reversal designs, also known as ABA designs, involve introducing a treatment and then withdrawing it to see if the dependent variable reverts to its baseline level, which helps to establish causality. On the other hand, alternating treatments designs are used within single-subject or within-subjects designs, where multiple treatments are alternated to determine their effectiveness across different conditions or time points. The combination of these designs can provide robust data on the efficacy of the interventions and the possible variables affecting outcomes.
Additionally, two-group experimental designs, like pretest-posttest control group design and posttest-only control group design, are simpler forms of true experimental designs and do not necessarily include reversal or alternating treatments. It is important to note that experimental research spans both true experimental designs, which involve random assignment and treatment manipulation, and quasi-experimental designs, which may not include random assignment.
A client is admitted for an exacerbation of emphysema. The client has a fever, chills, and difficulty breathing on exertion. What is the priority nursing action based on the client's history and present status?
1. Checking for capillary refill
2. Encouraging increased fluid intake
3. Suctioning secretions from the airway
4. Administering a high concentration of oxygen
Eric is demanding and disobedient, has no respect for the property or rights of others, and is impulsive, immature, and out of control. According to Baumrind, it is MOST likely that his parents are engaged in _____ parenting.
Answer:
Options ?
Explanation:
Which of the following would be considered a monoculture?
a-a 100-acre field that is planted with a variety of crops for use in feeding farm animals
b-a garden plot planted with 10 tomato plants
c-a 100-acre field, all of which is planted with the same variety of corn
d-a two-acre field planted with a variety of foods intended to support several families for the year
Answer: c- A 100-acre field, all of which is planted with the same variety of corn.
Explanation:
Monoculture in agriculture practice can be defined as the practice of producing or growing a single kind of crop, livestock species, plant or breed in a field of farming. Annually planting the same kind of crop over the same agriculture field is likely to deplete the nutrients from the earth on which the plant relies upon. The soil becomes weak and unable to support the growth of crops.
C. is the correct option this is because the entire agriculture field is utilized to grow the same kind of crop that is the same variety of all corn plants.
Final answer:
A monoculture is an agricultural approach where a large area is dedicated to a single crop, which in this case is represented by a 100-acre field planted with the same variety of corn.
Explanation:
The concept of monoculture refers to the agricultural practice where a single crop is grown on a large area of land, often employing uniform methods of planting, irrigation, and harvesting. This approach is known for its efficiency in the utilization of farming machinery but also for the risks it poses to biodiversity and soil health.
The correct choice that represents a monoculture is a 100-acre field, all of which is planted with the same variety of corn. Monocultures like this can deplete soil nutrients and may attract plant pests since genetic diversity is diminished.
A friend of yours has a sudden onset memory loss and also doesn't seem to be able to make new memories for a few hours as they keep asking you the same questions repeatedly. What kind of amnesia is your friend suffering from?
Answer:
He is suffering of Transient global amnesia , anterograde and retrograde amnesia.
Explanation:
Transient global amnesia is sudden and temporary loss in the memory. As the people having this problem can not store the new memories and it can not be related with any common neurological problems.
anterograde amnesia is the loss of patient ability to create new memories after the event due to which amnesia occurs which will result in complete inability to recall the recent past event and memories.
Retrograde amnesia is the inability to recall past memories
Think about a sport, exercise, or physical activity that you enjoy. What is the activity? Which of the locations you described in part a would be a good place to do your activity? Why is the location a good choice? Explain the pros and cons. You might need to choose a different location that you did not describe above. If so, describe that location here. Explain its pros and cons. (I chose basketball)
Answer: Ballet is my favorite physical activity. The best location for ballet is the ballet studio. The ballet studio is a good choice because it is designed specifically for ballet's requirements. The pros are there are marley floors, ballet barres, mirrors, and air conditioning. The cons are that you are not outside and there is generally not a lot of air flow in ballet studios so there tends to be an odour of some sort.
Hope this helps! :)
Explanation:
Eating foods that boost levels of the neurotransmitter serotonin serves to
Answer:
Improve mood
It also helps with sleep, memory, digestion, appetite.
Explanation:
It has been demonstrated that the consumption of food with high levels of tryptophan, an amino acid that plays a major role in serotonin production in the brain, improves the mood considerably and other benefits as well.
Serotonin is a neurotransmitter and chemical that plays a role in mood, memory, behavior, appetite, digestion, sleep, amongst many other activities. It is also known as the key neurotransmitter for happiness. The absence of this neurotransmitter could lead to severe disorders, such as depression.
Therefore, eating foods that boost levels of serotonin, such as salmon, spinach, and nuts, serve to improve mood, sleep patterns, memory, etc.
After suffering a brain injury in a motorcycle accident, Arotza cannot form new memories. He can, however, remember events before the accident. Arotza's memory difficulty most clearly illustrates____________.A. retroactive interferenceB. the misinformation effectC. amnesiaD. déjà vu
Answer:
amnesia
Explanation:
Amnesia because when there is sudden impact, either part of your brain is damaged, or is overworked so you start to forget.
Arotza's condition, where he cannot form new memories after a brain injury but can remember past events, is indicative of anterograde amnesia. Anterograde amnesia is an aftermath of brain trauma affecting the hippocampus, preventing the transition of information from short-term to long-term memory.
Explanation:Arotza's condition exemplifies anterograde amnesia. This is a type of amnesia where a person is unable to form new memories following an event that caused brain damage, such as a motorcycle accident. However, previous memories, especially long-term ones that were formed before the event, remain intact. In context with Arotza's symptoms, he can recall events that occurred prior to his accident, but cannot remember new information.
Anterograde amnesia generally results from brain trauma that impacts the hippocampus, which hampers the ability to transfer information from short-term to long-term memory, thus, preventing the consolidation of memories. Despite the inability to form new episodic or semantic memories, those suffering from anterograde amnesia often can still develop new procedural memories.
Learn more about anterograde amnesia here:https://brainly.com/question/34356629
#SPJ3
A 74-year-old is being seen in the mental health clinic. The client has never fully regained the level of activity the client had prior to the death of the client's spouse. The client continues to have symptoms of depression and has not been able to work or volunteer. In addition, the client complains of "anxiety attacks" that occur nearly every night. What type of grief reaction is this client exhibiting
Answer:
Complicated grieving reaction.
Explanation:
Anxiety attack might occur when the individual has a fear that something bad is going to happen with them. The feeling of fear, worry and symptoms of depression are shown by individual.
Complicated grieving reaction or disorder might occur due to the loss of the loved one and unable to hide their emotions and feelings. These individual require comprehensive mental health assessment for their treatment and proper mental support.
Thus, the answer is complicated grieving reaction.
Final answer:
The client is likely experiencing complicated grief or persistent complex bereavement disorder, exhibiting symptoms of major depression and anxiety. Given the client's old age, these symptoms may be exacerbated by increased isolation. Treatment may involve anti-depressants and therapy, tailored to individual grief experiences.
Explanation:
The client described in the mental health clinic scenario seems to be exhibiting symptoms of complicated grief or persistent complex bereavement disorder. This condition goes beyond normal grief as the client has never fully regained the level of activity had prior to the death of their spouse and continues to suffer symptoms of depression, including inability to work or volunteer, as well as nightly "anxiety attacks". These symptoms align with major depression characteristics such as intense sadness, mental slowing, loss of concentration, and agitation. Furthermore, the physical symptoms mentioned, like hormonal disruptions, are also in line with those of major depression. Anti-depressants and therapy could be considered as part of a treatment plan to address these symptoms.
An older adult is seen in the emergency department for a fall. The client has bruises on the upper arms and appears depressed. The client is accompanied by a grandchild, who is unkempt and glassy-eyed and whose breath smells of alcohol. What is the priority action?
Answer:
The priority is an older adult and whether he lives in a safe environment or not.
Explanation:
It seems like an older adult has been beaten by his grandson. Considering the fact that he has bruises on arms, it indicates that someone has been grabbing him. He was accompanied by his grandson, because he wanted to make sure that his grandpa would not tell the whole story and would say that he fell. The grandson was under the influence of alcohol, and sometimes when people drink it, they get aggressive, they sometimes forget what they've done, their vision changes, their behavior changes, everything changes. The stuff should make sure that this older gentleman lives in a healthy home with no violence and aggression.
An injury caused by heavy pressure to the tissues, such as when an extremity is trapped under a fallen tree, that results in damage to muscle cells and the accumulation of waste products in the tissue is called a(n):
The injury caused by heavy pressure, leading to muscle cell damage and waste accumulation, is termed compartment syndrome.
The injury caused by heavy pressure to tissues, such as when an extremity is trapped under a fallen tree, resulting in damage to muscle cells and the accumulation of waste products in the tissue, is known as "compartment syndrome." This condition occurs when pressure within the muscles builds to dangerous levels, leading to restricted blood flow, decreased oxygen delivery, and the buildup of metabolic waste products like lactic acid. Compartment syndrome can cause severe pain, numbness, tingling, and even tissue death if left untreated. Prompt medical intervention, often including surgical decompression to relieve pressure, is necessary to prevent permanent damage and complications such as nerve and muscle dysfunction.
A 34-year-old woman presents with an abrupt onset of shaking chills, moderate to high fever, and a constant ache in her lower back. She is also experiencing dysuria, urinary frequency, and a feeling of urgency. Her partner states that she has been very tired the last few days and that she looked like she may have the flu. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer:
Acute pyelonephritis
Explanation:
Acute pyelonephritis is a kidney parenchyma bacterial infection which can endanger the kidney and/or life and quite often progresses to scarring of the kidney.
The bacteria have typically risen from the lower urinary tract in these instances, but can also enter the kidney through the bloodstream.
Acute pyelonephritis symptoms usually develop quickly over a couple of hours or a day. It might cause increased fever, urinary pain and abdominal pain that exudes to the back along the side.
Arnold is 56 years old and considers himself to be in good health. He has a family history of heart disease, stroke, and diabetes. He recently had a routine physical exam. He was told that his blood pressure was 130/85, his total cholesterol was 210 (LDL was 175 and HDL was 35), and his glucose levels were normal. Arnold was also informed that his weight of 190 pounds made him about 10 pounds overweight.What is the nature of the physician's concern?
a.Arnold's risk for diabetes.
b.Arnold's risk for heart valve problems.
c.Arnold's risk for obesity.
d.Arnold's risk for coronary heart disease.
The correct answer would be option D, Arnold's risk for coronary heart disease.
The nature of the physician's concern is Arnold's risk for coronary heart disease.
Explanation:
A coronary heart disease is a disease which builds up in a human body when the arteries of the heart become narrow. These are the coronary arteries, which becomes narrow due to this disease.
Coronary arteries are responsible for supplying oxygen and blood to the heart. So when these blood vessels become narrow, there will be problem in supplying oxygen and blood to the heart. The amount of oxygen and blood will decrease while passing through the narrow channel.
The Coronary Heart Disease is caused by high cholesterol levels, which gets stuck on the walls of the arteries and make them narrow. So because Arnold has a history of heart diseases, and also his cholesterol levels are not normal, and also he is over weight, so the physician is more concerned about the coronary heart disease.
Learn more about Coronary Heart Disease at:
brainly.com/question/3147927
#LearnWithBrainly
Miranda is physically fit. She has
a. an increased risk of osteoporosis
b. the strength, endurance, and flexibility to meet the demands of daily living
c. a greater need for vitamins and minerals than other women
d. None of tthe above is correct
Answer:
B. The strength, endurance, and flexibility to meet the demands of daily living.
Explanation:
The question states that Miranda is physically fit. Using common sense we can see that she will be strong and capable of meeting the demands of daily living, as that is essentially the definition of being physically fit. There is no evidence to suggest an increased risk of osteoporosis (no family history or explained lack of calcium in the diet), and there is no reason that Miranda would have a greater need for vitamins (no low vitamin levels mentioned) because she's healthy. The question said she is healthy, and the answer is- she's healthy.
A person’s blood volume (and blood pressure) can fluctuate based on intake of sodium and fluid, but is carefully regulated via several hormonal signals. Choose the statement below that correctly describes blood volume and osmolality.
Answer:
The distribution of water in one or another compartment is due to forces that drive the movement of the liquid. These forces depend on the concentration of solutes (particles, molecules and ions dissolved in the water of a compartment) present in the compartments because the water moves to the compartment where the concentration of solutes is higher. This force that determines the movement of water is the osmotic pressure.
In organisms the most important electrolytes from the point of view of their concentration, therefore, of their osmotic effect, are the sodium and potassium ions. But they predominate in different compartments. Potassium is the most important electrolyte in the cell compartment while sodium is in the extracellular compartment. The concentration of these cations in the compartments indicated is expressed as a characteristic called osmolarity (number of osmoles per liter).
It follows from the foregoing that the control of volume homeostasis depends on the control of osmolarity.
The regulation of volume homeostasis then allows a normal circulatory and blood function condition that is vital for normal cell functioning. If a situation of hypovolemia (decrease in blood volume) occurs due to dehydration or blood loss, a series of physiological and behavioral mechanisms appear to correct the imbalance. Hypovolemia is detected by baroreceptors present in the sasnguine vessels (aotic arch, carotid sinus, afferent renal arterioles). The first to respond are those of the aortic arch and the carotid sinus which send signals to the nucleus of the solitary tract, located in the brainstem. Signals from this nucleus reach the hypothalamus and act on the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei. These nuclei, which produce the hormone arginine-vasopressin (or vasopressin or antidiuretic hormone), increases its release. This hormone acts on the kidney causing an increase in water reabsorption, resulting in decreased urine flow.
Normal volemia is thirst. Hypovolemia not only represents a decrease in plasma volume but also an increase in the osmolarity of the extracellular compartment. A change in this parameter is a very efficient signal about thirst behavior, described as an intense motivation to seek, obtain and consume water. An increase in plasma osmolarity between 1-4% induces thirst behavior. The increase in osmolarity seems to act on specific cells sensitive to this type of stimuli, the osmorreceptors, which have been located in the vascular organ of the terminal lamina, in the anterior hypothalamus. Other hyperosmolarity sensitive neurons are located in the subfornical organ, in the medial preoptic nucleus and also in the magnocellular cells.
But also hypovolemia stimulates the secretion of renin by the kidneys. This enzyme causes the formation in the blood plasma of a substance, angiotensin I, which is transformable in another molecule, angiotensin II. This is a peptide that acts as a potent vasoconstrictor, but at the same time stimulates the secretion of aldosterone, a hormone from the adrenal cortex that also acts on the kidney. In this organ it causes the reabsorption of Na +, which passes to the plasma where it acts as a water retention factor, contributing, therefore, to the restoration and / or conservation of plasma volume.
In the case of hyperosmolarity, another strategy that the body uses in addition to drinking and water retention, is to eliminate excess Na +. This is achieved through the participation of other hormones such as atrial natriuretic factor, which is synthesized by the heart at the atrial level. This peptide is released by the mechanical stimulus that means the atrial distention and the actions on the kidney stimulating the loss of sodium chloride.
The option (C) is correct because the statement that correctly describes blood volume and osmolality is hormones like aldosterone increase blood volume by promoting sodium retention.
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH), also called vasopressin, is released in response to high blood osmolality. It acts on the kidneys to increase water reabsorption, thus reducing urine output and increasing blood volume. Aldosterone promotes sodium retention by the kidneys, which leads to water retention, increasing blood volume. Atrial Natriuretic Hormone (ANH) reduces blood volume and pressure by promoting sodium and water excretion.
The other options are incorrect because:
The option (A) is incorrect because increased sodium intake typically leads to increased blood volume and osmolality, as the body retains water to balance the sodium.
The option (B) is incorrect because decreased fluid intake would decrease blood volume and increase osmolality, due to reduced water content in the blood.
The option (D) is incorrect because drinking more water increases blood volume and decreases osmolality by diluting the blood, not decreasing its volume.
The complete question is:
A person’s blood volume (and blood pressure) can fluctuate based on intake of sodium and fluid, but is carefully regulated via several hormonal signals. Choose the statement below that correctly describes blood volume and osmolality.
A) Increased sodium intake decreases blood volume and osmolality.
B) Decreaed fluid intake increases blood volume and decreases osmolality.
C) Hormones like aldosterone increase blood volume by promoting sodium retention.
D) Drinking more water decreases blood volume by diluting blood osmolality.
The textbook suggests that people with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) have a more sensitive emotion-processing limbic system than other people do. Based on this information, the function of the _____ may be different among people with PTSD than among other people.
Answer:
limbic system
Explanation:
Sara has intense problems with leaving her house. She often refuses to do so, and in cases when she will go out, she simply must be by her mother's side at all times. This goes as far as requiring her mother to be in physical contact with Sara (holding hands, clinging to her mother's clothing) whenever they go shopping. Sara also refuses to go to a peer's house for a play date unless her mother stays the whole time and is never more than one room away. Sara may be diagnosed with:
a. generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)b. oppositional-defiant disorderc. specific phobiad. separation anxiety disorder
Answer:separation anxiety disorder
Explanation:
Myasthenia gravis is a disease resulting from an autoimmune attack on the ach receptors of the motor end plate. Binding of antibodies to the ach receptors results in generalized muscle weakness that progresses as more ach receptors are destroyed. Which medications would help alleviate the muscle weakness?
Answer:
Neostigmine
Explanation:
This medication should be ideal to alleviate the muscle weakness since it is a drug that binds to and inactivates acetylcholinesterase.
In the case there is an acute myasthenic crisis where the patient has the inability to swallow and breathe properly it can not be administered orally, the parenteral form which is known as neostigmine methylsulfate should be used.
A nurse is providing health teaching to a group of adolescent girls. The focus is urinary tract infections . One of the girls tells the nurse that she wants to know what is cystitis. Which statement by the nurse is the most appropriate response?
Answer:
Inflammation is where part of your body becomes irritated, red, or swollen.
Explanation:
Miguel woke up one morning in a strange hotel in Detroit. He has no memory of how he got there and cannot remember his name or where he is actually from. Based on this, Miguel is most likely experiencing dissociative a. amnesia.b. personality disorder.c. identity disorder. d. fugue.
A father brings his daughter to the community clinic for an annual physical exam. After the father steps out of the room, the adolescent informs the nurse that she is frightened by her father's behavior because "he yells at me every day and tells me I am a failure because I don't get good grades, and I am fat." The nurse recognizes the reported father's behavior as which type of maltreatment?
Answer:
I would imagine it would be Psychological abuse
Explanation:
Which reflex is triggered when a stranger suddenly grasps your arm?
Answer:
When a stranger suddenly graps your arm the reflex which is triggered is the crossed-extensor reflex
Explanation:
The above reflex is a medullary reflex, what it means that we can feel thanks to the receptors and the nerves present in the osea medula.
this reflex is responsible for keeping the body in position after a reflex in which there is flexion of a limb.
This reflex is due to the presence of inhibitory interneurons
The nurse is caring for a 13-year-old girl. As part of a routine health assessment the nurse needs to address areas relating to sexuality and substance use. Which statement or question should the nurse say first to encourage communication?
The type of fracture often seen in young children is one in which there is not complete ossification of the bone, and the bone bends and just partially breaks. What type of fracture is this
Answer:
Stable fracture:
In this type of fracture bones are partially break and broken ends of the bone are barely out of place.
Explanation:
Fractures
Bones are rigid structure but on applying force they may break apart.
Common types of fractures include:
Some of the common types of Fracture are
1) Stable fracture:
In this type of fracture bones are partially break and broken ends of the bone are barely out of place.
2) Open, compound fracture:
The skin in this type of fracture become ruptured by the bone and in some cases bones become visible in the wound. This is severe type of fracture.
3) Transverse fracture:
In this type, fracture appears in horizontal line. This may be same stable or open fracture but difference in direction of fracture.
4) Oblique fracture:
This type of fracture occurs an angled pattern.
5) Comminuted fracture:
In this type, fractures occurs in bone with three or more pieces.
Cause
The most common causes of fractures are:
Trauma:
Some kind of accident such as a fall, a car accident, or a during playing game.
Osteoporosis:
Osteoporosis is the disorder in which bones become weakens due to de-mineralization which makes bones more likely to break.
Overuse:
Too much utilization of the muscles make them tired and place more force on bone. This can result in stress fractures. This type of fracture most often occurs in athletes.
Answer:
fudge
kckbjfnchvcmvchvfnfi
An effective way to break the cycle of depression is to explain _____ events in terms that are specific and temporary.
Answer:
the
Explanation:
Answer:
stressful
Explanation:
A 2-week-old female is brought to the office for a well child visit. The physical examination is completely normal except for a clunking sensation and feeling of movement when adducting the hip and applying posterior pressure. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate next step? A. Referral for orthopedic consultation
B. Reassurance that the problem resolves spontaneously in 90% of cases, and follow-up in 2 weeks
C. Triple diapering and follow-up in 2 weeks
D. A radiograph of the pelvis
Answer:
Referral for orthopedic consultation
Explanation:
Answer:
A. Referral for orthopedic consultation
Explanation:
Developmental dysplasia of the hip: subluxation and dislocation of the newborn hip
Common in : firstborns, females, breech presentations, oligohydramnios and patients with a family history of developmental dysplasia