Answer:
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Autosomal dominant inheritance is a type of inheritance in which a parent has a 50% chance to pass on the mutated allele. An individual only needs one mutated allele to have the disease. Male and female can be equally affected by this pattern, in contrast to X-linked dominant inheritance.
In X-linked dominant inheritance, only one mutated copy is required to have the disease, but because it affects X chromosome, men are more likely to have the disease, because they only have one X chromosome.
1. A brain hemorrhage within the region of the right internal capsule results in paralysis of the left side of the body. Explain why the left side (rather than the right side) is affected.
2. A brain hemorrhage within the region of the right internal capsule results in paralysis of the left side of the body. Explain why the left side (rather than the right side) is affected.
3. Motor neurons undergo decussation (crossing over) in the thalamus on their way to the periphery.
4. Motor neurons carry the signal to the left side of the body because the neurons on the right side were damaged by the brain hemorrhage.
5. Sensory neurons undergo decussation (crossing over) in the thalamus on their way to the periphery.
6. Motor neurons undergo decussation (crossing over) in the medulla oblongata on their way to the periphery.
Paralysis of the left side of the body after a right-side brain hemorrhage is due to decussation, where motor neurons in the right hemisphere cross over in the medulla oblongata, controlling the left side of the body.
Explanation:These symptoms are a result of the way the brain and the nervous system are wired. Specifically, the reason for this left-side paralysis after a right-side brain hemorrhage is due to a phenomenon called decussation. Decussation is a process in which nerve fibers from the right hemisphere of the brain cross over in the medulla oblongata, a part of the brainstem, and control the left side of the body and vice versa.
In the case of motor neurons, this crossing over occurs in the medulla oblongata. This is why damage to the right side of the brain or right internal capsule can result in paralysis on the left side of the body, because the motor neurons carrying signals from this part of the brain are responsible for controlling movement on the left side of the body.
Learn more about Decussation here:https://brainly.com/question/31560019
#SPJ6
Which documentation on a woman’s chart on postpartum day 14 indicates a normal involution process?
A. Moderate bright red lochial flow
B. Episiotomy slightly red and puffy
C. Fundus below the symphysis and nonpalpable
D. Breasts firm and tender
Answer:
C. Fundus below the symphysis and nonpalpable
Explanation:
A client is seen in the primary care provider’s office with reports of polydipsia and polyuria without polyphagia. An assessment notes very edematous ankles and an elevation of blood pressure. These data support which diagnosis associated with the adrenal cortex?Hyperal dosteronismAdrenocortical hyperfunctionAndrogen-producing tumorsAdrenal hyperplasia
Hyperaldosteronism is the diagnosis that is supported by the given data.
Explanation:
Adrenocortical hyperfunction due to increased activity of adrenal cortex and overproduction of aldosterone leads to hyperaldosteronism.
Aldosterone is the key hormone that regulates sodium and potassium levels and water balance in the body.
Overproduction of aldosterone leads to increased retention of sodium (hypernatremia) and flushing of potassium (hypokalemia), which in turn increases fluid accumulation. Fluid accumulation results in high blood pressure and edema of the ankles.
Primary aldosteronism or Conn’s syndrome causes nephrogenic diabetes insipidus that causes polyuria, nocturia, and polydipsia.
Bacterial encephalitis and meningitis are difficult to treat because
Answer:
Explanation:
meningitis and encephalitis, cause different issues in the Brain and thats the reason to be avoided at all cost. Different measures can be taken to stay away from them. At the point when one contracts one of the infections, medications are accessible to help fix them, yet the medicines don't have a 100 percent achievement rate. As a result of its viral and bacterial inclinations, anti-biotics are utilized now to attack the diseases as are various vaccines to help prevent contraction of the diseases.
Due to its tendency to be both a viral and bacterial disease, meningitis can prove difficult to treat. Its dual tendencies also mean that various methods are used to attack the disease.
Bacterial encephalitis and meningitis are difficult to treat primarily due to the protective blood-brain barrier, which prevents most antibiotics from reaching the brain. Treatment typically requires the use of specific antimicrobial drugs that can cross this barrier.
Explanation:Bacterial encephalitis and meningitis are difficult to treat because of their location and the protective barriers around the brain. The brain and spinal cord are protected by the blood-brain barrier which prevents many medications, including most antibiotics, from entering.
This blood-brain barrier is essentially a 'tight' barrier which restricts the passage of substances from the bloodstream to the brain. While this does a great job at preventing harmful substances from reaching our brain, it also blocks many medicines.
Therefore, the treatment of these diseases poses a great challenge. Some antimicrobial drugs can cross this barrier and are used to treat infections, but the process is more difficult and takes longer than treating infections in other parts of the body.
Learn more about Blood-Brain Barrier here:https://brainly.com/question/32544970
#SPJ6
Why do many cancer patients undergoing chemotherapy lose their hair?
A. The cancerous cells take up too much of the body's available energy, leaving none available for hair growth
B. Most types of cancer start in the hair follicles
C. Chemotherapy treatments block the synthesis of keratin, the primary protein
component of hair
D. Chemotherapy treatments disrupt meiosis
E. Chemotherapy treatments stop cell division, and therefore have the most pronounced side effects on tissues that normally have the highest rates of cell division, such as hair
Answer:
Answer is E.
Explanation:
During chemotherapy, the medications are so strong and powerful that it target and stop all cells that undergo fast rate of division. Hair tissues are one of the fast dividing cells in the body so chemothrapic drugs stop its division resulting in hair fall.
Exposure to large quantities of carbon monoxide (CO) in a poorly ventilated space can be lethal. Unfortunately, this is a common occurrence during winter months because furnaces run the risk of emitting large quantities of CO. When inhaled, CO has a higher affinity for the heme group on hemoglobin than does oxygen, and will block the heme from becoming oxygenated. True False
It is true that CO has a higher affinity for the heme group on hemoglobin than does oxygen.
What is Hemoglobin?This is a protein in red blood cells that makes it possible for blood to transport oxygen throughout the body.
This protein has a higher affinity for CO than oxygen, thus blocking the heme from becoming oxygenated.
Read more about Hemoglobin here https://brainly.com/question/9872943
Carbon monoxide has a higher affinity for hemoglobin than oxygen, impeding the transportation of oxygen in the body. This can lead to carbon monoxide poisoning which can cause death. Treatment usually involves administering pure oxygen to displace the carbon monoxide.
Explanation:Yes, it is true. Carbon monoxide (CO) has a higher affinity for the hemoglobin than oxygen does. This means that CO binds more readily to hemoglobin than oxygen, effectively blocking oxygen from binding. The significance of this is that hemoglobin is a key component of red blood cells, responsible for transporting oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body. If CO is present in significant amounts and binds to the hemoglobin, it impedes the transportation of oxygen, leading to symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning and potentially causing death.
Carbon monoxide is colorless and odorless, making it hard to detect. It can be produced by any fuel-burning items like gas-powered vehicles, tools, and even home heating systems in poorly ventilated areas. This is particularly dangerous during winter months when heaters are commonly used.
For treatment, the administration of pure oxygen is used. This helps to speed up the separation of carbon monoxide from hemoglobin, allowing oxygen to bind and be transported to the rest of the body.
Learn more about Carbon Monoxide Poisoning here:https://brainly.com/question/30228380
#SPJ11
Some large arteries that are proximal to the heart are sensitive to the stretch of the blood vessels. This stretch indicates the blood's pressure.
Which of the following pairs of classifications below best fit the receptor type that is being described above?
- mechanoreceptors that are also interoceptors
- thermoreceptors that are also interoceptors
- mechanoreceptors that are also exteroceptors
- thermoreceptors that are also exteroceptors
Answer:
'Mechanoreceptors that are also interoceptors' is the pair of classifications that best fit the receptor type that is being described.
Explanation:
interoceptors are associated with sensory process of feelings like anger, hunger, sadness etc. They also include physiological sensations like muscle efforts, vasomotor sensation and mechanoreceptors act to the stimuli like touch, pressure or vibration.They also contain primary nerves which respond to mechanical displacements thus it is the best receptor type for the given situation.A cornea transplant involves the grafting of a donor cornea into a recipient’s anterior eye. The sutures to hold the graft in place must stay in place for a long period of time because the cornea is slow to heal. Explain why the healing process is so slow.
Answer: The cornea is avascular.
Explanation:
The cornea can be defined as the clear front membrane on the surface of eyeball. It lies in the front of the iris and pupil. It allows the light to enter the eye. A cornea transplant is recommended in patients who suffer from vision problems due to thinning of cornea, keratoconus, loss of vision and cloudiness of cornea.
It takes about 2 to 3 months to recover after surgery. The healing is slow because the cornea is avascular. The tissue of cornea does not provide blood vessels to deliver nutrients and oxygen which could aid in speedy recovery.
Which of the following is NOT an important function of the kidney?
a. Regulates blood volume and pressure
b. Control plasma ion concentrations such as sodium, potassium, and chloride
c. Regulate acid-case balance in the blood
d. Excretion of excess albumen
e. Reabsorb important nutrients such as calcium
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Which statement is correct regarding the relationship between the hypothalamus and pituitary gland?a) releasing hormones are secreted by the anterior pituitaryb) the hypothalamus is 'controlled' by the pituitary glandc) the posterior lobe of the pituitary secretes inhibiting hormonesd) the hypothalamus secretes releasing and inhibiting hormones that influence the pituitary gland
Answer:
Option (d).
Explanation:
Pituitary gland is known as the master gland of the body. Pituitary is divided into main regions - anterior pituitary and posterior pituitary. Various hormones are released from the pituitary gland.
The hypothalamus regulates the functioning of the pituitary gland. The hypothalamus releases different releasing and inhibiting hormones. These hormones works and stimulate the functioning of the pituitary gland. The pituitary gland releases different hormones under the influence of hypothalamus.
Thus, the correct answer is option (9).
Which of the following are considered aneuploidy?
a. Angelman's syndrome
b. Down's syndrome
c. Edward's syndrome
d. Jacob's syndrome
e. Prader-Willi syndrome
f. Turner's syndrome
g. Klinefelter's syndrome
h. Patau's syndrome
Answer:
The correct answer is: B, C, D,F, G, H.
Explanation:
Aneuploidy is a defect on the number of chromosomes a cell has. Human cells have 46 chromosomes, an additional chromosome (47) or a missing one (45) is an aneuploidy. Aneuploidy is usually due to a defect during cell division (chromosomes don’t separate). The following disease are examples of aneuploidy:
b. Down's syndrome (trisomy of chromosome 21)
c. Edward's syndrome (trisomy of chromosome 18)
d. Jacob's syndrome (a male with an extra Y chromosome)
f. Turner's syndrome (a female missing a X chromosome)
g. Klinefelter's syndrome (a male with an extra X chromosome)
h. Patau's syndrome (trisomy of chromosome 13)
In the list provided, Down's syndrome, Edward's syndrome, Jacob's syndrome, Turner's syndrome, Klinefelter's syndrome, and Patau's syndrome are considered aneuploid conditions, which means they have an abnormal number of chromosomes. On the other hand, Angelman's syndrome and Prader-Willi syndrome are not aneuploid, as they are caused by gene deletions or inactivation.
Explanation:Aneuploidy refers to a condition in cells where there is an abnormal number of chromosomes due to a non-disjunction event during meiosis, leading to offspring with an extra or missing chromosome. Examples of conditions classified as aneuploidy include:
Down's syndrome (Trisomy 21, an extra 21st chromosome) Edward's syndrome (Trisomy 18, an extra 18th chromosome) Jacob's syndrome (XYY syndrome, an extra Y chromosome) Turner's syndrome (Monosomy X, only one X chromosome) Klinefelter's syndrome (XXY syndrome, an extra X chromosome in males) Patau's syndrome (Trisomy 13, an extra 13th chromosome)
Contrarily, Angelman's syndrome and Prader-Willi syndrome are not considered aneuploidy as they are caused by deletion or inactivation of genes on chromosome 15, not an extra or missing chromosome.
Learn more about aneuploidy here:https://brainly.com/question/30970198
#SPJ12
While jogging on a trail you come upon a child who fell off her bike and has severe facial lacerations that are bleeding profusely. In order to most effectively curtail the bleeding, where would you put pressure (bilaterally)?
Answer:
The answer is a horizontal ramus of the mandible just anterior to the attachment of the masseter.
Explanation:
You would put pressure in ramus of the mandible just anterior to the attachment of the masseter.
Suppose that arteriosclerosis is narrowing the artery at the rate of dR/dt = −0.02 mm per year. Find the rate at which blood flow is being reduced in an artery whose radius is R = 0.03 mm with c = 500. [Hint: Find dV/dt, considering r to be a constant.
Answer:
0.6mm per year .
Explanation:
Please see attachment .
The rate at which blood flow is being reduced in the artery is 0.6 mm³/year.
To find the rate at which blood flow is being reduced in an artery, we first need to understand the relationship between the radius of the artery and the volume flow rate.
V = c(R²-r²)
[tex]\frac{dV}{dt} = \frac{d}{dt} c(R^2-r^2)[/tex]
Since c and r are constant, therefore:
[tex]\frac{dV}{dt} =c \frac{d}{dt} (R^2)[/tex]
[tex]\frac{dV}{dt} = 2 c R \frac{dR}{dt}[/tex]
We're given:
dR/dt = -0.02 mm/yearR = 0.03 mmc = 500Thus, dV/dt= 2*500*0.03mm*(-0.02mm/year) = -0.6mm³/ year =0.6mm³ reduction per year.
Therefore, the rate at which blood flow is being reduced in the artery is 0.6 mm³/year.
A benign tumor made up of newly formed blood vessels is known as a/an
Answer:
Hemangioma
Explanation:
A benign tumor made up of newly formed blood vessels is known as an hemangioma.
When noncancerous tumours (angioma) start forming blood vessels, they become hemangiomas. They occur more frequently in children and do not tend to cause any problems unless acompanied by bleeding or ulcers. These tumors usually subside without treatment after some time.
A benign tumor made up of newly formed blood vessels is called a Hemangioma. They are non-cancerous growths that typically present as a red or pink raised area on the skin.
Explanation:A benign tumor made up of newly formed blood vessels is known as a Hemangioma.
Hemangiomas are non-cancerous growths that form due to an abnormal collection of blood vessels. They are most commonly found at birth or develop in the first or second week of life. They can grow rapidly for up to a year, but most do not require treatment. They typically present as a red or pink raised area on the skin, and they can occur anywhere on the body.
Learn more about Hemangioma here:https://brainly.com/question/36471500
#SPJ12
Since insulin released from the pancreas is carried in the bloodstream to distant target cells, like muscle cells, it is considered to be a(n)a) local hormone.b) circulating hormone.c) paracrine.d) autocrine.e) neurotransmitter.
Since insulin released from the pancreas is carried in the loodstream to distant target cells, like muscle cells, it is consideret to be a:
b) circulating hormone, because its action doesn't take place in the pancreas or the neighboring cells, but in the distant target ones.
The subarachnoid space lies between what two layers of meninges?
- arachnoid and pia
- arachnoid and dura
- arachnoid and epidura
- dura and epidura
Answer:
- arachnoid and pia
Explanation:
when any individual met any accident due to which injury happened it separate the arachnoid and pia mater hence a space is created between them which is filled with fluid known as cerebrospinal fluid.
Meninges are said to be layer tissue that consist of three protective layer tissue namely, archnoid, pi and dura mater.
N.T., a 79-year-old woman, arrived at the emergency room with expressive aphasia, left facial droop, left-sided hemiparesis, and mild dysphagia. Her husband states that when she awoke that morning at 0600, she stayed in bed complaining of a mild headache over the right temple, was fatigued, and felt slightly weak. He went and got coffee, thinking that it was unusual for her to have those complaints, he went to check on her and found that she was having trouble saying words and had a slight left-sided facial droop.When he helped her up from the bedside, he noticed weakness in her left hand and convinced her to come to the emergency department. Her past medical history includes paroxysmal atrial fibrillation, hypertension (HTN), hyperlipidemia.
A recent cardiac stress test was normal, and her blood pressure has been well controlled. N.T. is currently taking flecainide (Tambocor), hormone replacement therapy, amlodipine (Norvasc), aspirin, simvastatin (Zocor), and lisinopril (Zestril). The physician suspects N.T. has experienced an acute cerebrovascular accident (CVA).CVA refers to the damage of some cells, which occurs due to the loss of supply of oxygen to the brain. It is commonly known as a Stroke. It is usually caused due to thrombosis, where there is formation of blood clot due to the disposition of calcium and cholesterol in the artery of the brain.
1. What role diagnostic tests play in evaluating N.T for a suspected CVA?
2. Explain how knowing the type of CVA is an important factor in planning care
Diagnostic tests are used to examine how the brain looks, works and obtains its blood supply. They can outline the injured area of the brain and sometimes determine the cause of the stroke.
Explain how knowing the type of CVA is an important factor in planning care.We need to know whether the stroke is ischemic or hemorrhagic because that can help determine the type of treatment. If the stroke is hemorrhagic, it is the most serious and neurosurgery needs to be contacted right away.
Medications to manage blood pressure need to be given to control bleeding because the body compensates immediately by increasing blood pressure and cerebral perfusion pressure. If it was an ischemic CVA.
Thus, it is very important to know what type of CVA it is in order to implement the appropriate treatment.
To learn more about CVA click here:
https://brainly.com/question/11456849
1. Diagnostic tests help in confirming a suspected CVA by identifying the type, location, and extent of brain damage.
2. Understanding the type of CVA (ischemic or hemorrhagic) is crucial for planning care because the treatment and management strategies differ significantly between the two types.
Explanation:1. Diagnostic tests such as CT scans, MRI, and angiography play a vital role in evaluating a suspected CVA by providing detailed images of the brain, identifying any blockages or bleeding, and assessing the extent of damage. These tests help confirm the diagnosis, rule out other possible causes, and guide treatment decisions.
2. Ischemic and hemorrhagic CVAs have distinct pathophysiological mechanisms and treatment approaches. Ischemic strokes are caused by blockages in blood vessels, while hemorrhagic strokes involve bleeding into the brain. Knowing the type of CVA is crucial for determining appropriate interventions, such as administering thrombolytics for ischemic strokes or controlling blood pressure and preventing rebleeding for hemorrhagic strokes.
Therefore, accurate diagnosis of the type of CVA is essential for optimizing patient outcomes and preventing further complications.
Which is the best definition of chylomicrons?
A. Enzymes synthesized in the intestines that transport cholesterol and fat‑soluble vitamins into epithelial cells
B ater‑soluble lipoproteins synthesized from triglycerides in epithelial cells and transported to the lymphatic system
C. fatty droplets containing lecithin that transport cholesterol and fat‑soluble vitamins into epithelial cells
D. fatty droplets removed from large globules of triglycerides by bile salts and transported to the lymphatic system
Final answer:
Chylomicrons are water-soluble lipoproteins that transport dietary lipids from the intestines to the body via the lymphatic and circulatory systems. They are formed in epithelial cells from triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol and enable the transportation of these lipids, including fat-soluble vitamins.
Explanation:
The best definition of chylomicrons would be the one that describes them as vesicles containing cholesterol and triglycerides that transport lipids out of the intestinal cells and into the lymphatic and circulatory systems. Specifically, chylomicrons are water-soluble lipoproteins that are synthesized from re-esterified triglycerides within epithelial cells after fat digestion and absorption. They transport dietary lipids such as triglycerides, cholesterol, and fat-soluble vitamins from the intestines throughout the body.
As free fatty acids and monoacylglycerides enter epithelial cells, they are reassembled into triglycerides, which are then mixed with phospholipids and cholesterol, and surrounded by a protein coat, forming chylomicrons. Chylomicrons then leave the epithelial cells by exocytosis, entering lacteals in the intestinal villi and eventually making their way into the lymphatic vessels. From there, they are transported to the bloodstream, where they can deliver fats to various parts of the body, including the liver and adipose tissue for energy use or storage.
What happens if reabsorption of a substance increases (and filtration and secretion stay the same)?
a. Increased excretion of the substance and an increased amount of the substance in blood
b. Decreased excretion of the substance and an increased amount of the substance in blood
c. Decreased excretion of the substance and a decreased amount of the substance in blood
d. Increased excretion of the substance and a decreased amount of the substance in blood
Answer:
The answer is Letter B
Explanation:
Decreased excretion of the substance and an increased amount of the substance in blood
Which of the following is not a true statement?a) most hormone systems function under a positive feedback systemb) secretion of hormones occurs in short burstsc) signals from the nervous system regulate hormone secretiond) chemical changes in the blood may determine concentration of hormone releasee) regulation of secretion prevents overproduction of a hormone
Answer: A.
Explanation:
This is because most hormone level in the body are usually controlled by negative feedback.
Acute on chronic respiratory failure with hypoxia icd 10
The ICD-10 code for Acute on chronic respiratory failure (ACRF) with hypoxia is J96.21
Explanation:
The ICD-10 codes ranging from J00-J99 stands for various respiratory system diseases and disorders. These respiratory failure disease codes are assigned based on their nature (acute, chronic, or unspecified) and the accompanying hypoxic or hypercapnic conditions.
The code J96.20 is the code for unspecified ACRF.
The code J96.21 is the billable and specific code for hypoexemic acute-on-chronic respiratory failure.
ACRF arises due to a sudden insult leading to quick emergent short-term exacerbation of the existing chronic respiratory failure. This results in sudden deterioration of the patient’s condition leading to hypoxemia.
Research on HIV by Rowniak (2009) found that a social transformation has taken place since the inception of improved treatments for AIDS that make it more of a manageable disease than an imminent killer. Specifically, the research found that the response to this "less than a death sentence" diagnosis has caused what some researchers refer to as _______________ that can lead to a rise in infection rates.
Answer:
Safe Sex Fatigue
Explanation:
This “less than a death sentence” diagnosis for AIDs is referred by researchers as safe sex fatigue. The researchers described safe sex fatigue as inability to maintain safe sex practices for e.g. use of condom. The concept of safe sex fatigue acknowledges the importance of other treatment options such as anti-retroviral therapy as a reason for abandoning safe sex practices.
A colorblind man and a woman whose genotype is c+c+ have children together. What percentage of their offspring are expected be colorblind?
A. Too little information given to choose an answer
B. 0%
C. 25%
D. 50%
E. 75%
Answer:
not enough information
Explanation:
Icd 10 code for acute respiratory failure with hypoxia and hypercapnia
Answer:
The answer Icd 10 code J96
Explanation:
Because J96 is used to code Hypoxia. It is a condition in which the body or some area is deprived from oxygen supply. It can be general or partial, and it is a pahtological condition.
Hypercapnia is a condition in which there is an elevate amount of carbon dioxide in the blood. It usually happens as a result of hypoventilation, which is a consequence of the Hypoxia.
In healthcare is everything that is illegal also unethical. True or False
The given statement i.e. in healthcare everything which is illegal is also unethical is true.
UnethicalThe work or a thing that is wrong in the thinking of nature and the environment is known as unethical.
IllegalThe work which is not done according to the law and order is known as illegal.
Now, the illegal practices in the healthcare include
False medical claims.Drug diversion.Insurance fraud.Improper billing.As the above-listed illegal practices are not right for the environment and nature by any means which means that they are unethical.
Therefore, the given statement is true i.e. all illegal activities in healthcare are unethical as they harm society in many ways.
Learn more about healthcare here-https://brainly.com/question/4784548
#SPJ2
What might the presence of rigor mortis tell us about the time of death? (Given that the body was found in extremely hot and humid conditions in July, is it even useful in this case?) Use Wikipedia for this
The presence of rigor mortis can help forensic investigators estimate the time of death by indicating that death occurred within a general timeframe. However, environmental factors, such as heat and humidity, must be accounted for as they can affect the onset and duration of rigor mortis.
The presence of rigor mortis can provide valuable information regarding the estimated time of death. Rigor mortis is a postmortem change that leads to the stiffening of the body's muscles after death due to the depletion of adenosine triphosphate (ATP). It typically begins within 2-6 hours postmortem, peaks at around 12-24 hours, and gradually dissipates after about 48 hours.
Considering the body was found in extremely hot and humid conditions, these processes would likely be accelerated. Therefore, while the presence of rigor mortis can indicate that death occurred within a certain timeframe, environmental factors such as high temperature and humidity must be considered when estimating the time of death as they may cause rigor mortis to occur more rapidly and resolve sooner.
Furthermore, it's crucial to assess whether any signs suggest that the individual might have been experiencing hyperthermia or hypothermia prior to death, as these conditions could alter the expected timeline of rigor mortis.
People under a great amount of chronic stress are no more prone to disease than those who are not.a) Trueb) False
Answer:
False .
Explanation:
Injury to the hypothalamus may result in all of the following EXCEPT ________. Injury to the hypothalamus may result in all of the following EXCEPT ________. dehydration sleep disturbances loss of fine motor control loss of body temperature control
An injury to the hypothalamus could lead to issues like sleep disturbances, dehydration, or loss of body temperature control. However, it should not lead to a loss of fine motor control. Fine motor control is governed by a different part of the brain, the cerebellum.
Explanation:The hypothalamus is located below the thalamus and is responsible for controlling the endocrine system by signaling to the pituitary gland. It maintains proper body temperature, regulates water and food intake as well as energy expenditure. The hypothalamus also controls circadian rhythms, or sleep cycles. When injury occurs to the hypothalamus, it may cause a range of issues such as sleep disturbances, dehydration, or loss of body temperature control.
On the contrary, the hypothalamus does not control fine motor control. This ability is primarily governed by the cerebellum, a different part of the brain. In the scenario of hypothalamus injury, therefore, there should not typically be a loss of fine motor control.
Learn more about Hypothalamus here:https://brainly.com/question/32900534
#SPJ6
A serologic test is being devised to detect a hypothetical chronic disease.Three hundred individuals were referred to a laboratory for testing. Onehundred diagnosed cases were among the 300. A serologic test yielded200 positives, of which one-fourth were true positives. Calculate thesensitivity, specificity, and predictive value of this test.
Answer:
sensitivity = 0.5
specificity = 0.25
Predictive value = 0.5
Explanation:
Given data:
Total number of cases = 300
Total number of positively predicted = 200
Total number of actual positive = 100
NOte : 1/4th yield true positives
confusion matrix for given condition is given below
predicted: yes predicted: NO
actual: Yes TP = 50 FN = 50 = 100
actual: NO FP = 150 TN = 50
= 200 = 100
TP - true positive
FP - false positive
TN - true negative
FN - false negative
sensitivity [tex]=\frac{TP}{TP +FN} = \frac{50 }{50 + 50} = 0.5[/tex]
specificity [tex]= \frac{TN}{TN +FP} = \frac{50 }{50 + 150} = 0.25[/tex]
Predictive value [tex]= \frac{TP}{TP +FP} = \frac{50 }{50 + 50} = 0.5[/tex]
Which one of the following is the best example of a student attributing success to an internal factor?A. Nita has just gotten an A on her final exam in world history and is feeling very grateful that the test was so easy.B. Renata has just gotten a good grade on her math test and is glad that her mother got her a math tutor.C. Polly's teacher has just told her that she will be the group leader for her reading group next quarter. Polly is glad her teacher is in a good mood today.D. Sue Ellen has just gotten a good grade on her geography test. She is proud that she did so well and glad that she studied hard.
I think the answer is D I hope I was of help