Answer:
Option (1), (3) and (5).
Explanation:
Parkinson disease may be defined as the neurological disorder that can cause the stiffness and shaking of the hand. This disease gets worse with the increasing age.
A nurse must take care a Parkinson's patient that has been referred to the home. The orthostatic changes like blood loss, blood pressure and pulse of the patient must be measure and necessary steps must be taken to bring the normal physiological condition of the body. The patients should remembered and should provide the adequate meals. The strengthening exercise must be prescribed to the client.
Thus, the correct answer is option (1), (3), and (5).
If a conditioned stimulus (CS) is presented without further pairings with the unconditioned stimulus (US), the CS will gradually lose its capacity to elicit the conditioned response. This is the definition of:
Answer:
This is the definition of respose extinction.
Explanation:
For example, you taught your dog to sit everytime you grab his leash to go for a walk. Over time you started to let him run in the backyard to exercise, and you show him the leash to just call his attention. One day you grab the leash to take him for a walk, and you realize he does not sit anymore at the stimulus. This is a case of response extinction.
Extinction is the gradual weakening and disappearance of the conditioned response when a conditioned stimulus (CS) is presented without further pairings with the unconditioned stimulus (US).
Explanation:Extinction occurs when a conditioned stimulus (CS) is presented repeatedly without being paired with an unconditioned stimulus (US). As a result, the CS gradually loses its capacity to elicit the conditioned response. In classical conditioning, the conditioned response weakens and eventually disappears when the CS is presented alone, without the presence of the US.
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The nursing instructor is preparing a class presentation covering the various hormones and their functions during pregnancy. The instructor determines the class is successful when the class correctly matches which function with hCG?
Answer:
continues progesterone production by corpus luteum
Explanation:
hCG is the acronym for human chorionic gonadotropin hormone. This is a pregnancy-specific hormone that is incredibly important to women who are pregnant, but it doesn't matter much to those who aren't. HCG is the hormone responsible for all the early symptoms of pregnancy, which causes millions of women around the world to wonder if they are pregnant or not, many of them even before having a pregnancy test. Breast tenderness, feeling a little emotional (sensitive), nausea and fatigue, all these symptoms are due to hCG in the body. The main function of this hormone is to continue the progesterone production by the corpus luteum.
What ethical principle underlies the statement in the National Federation of Licensed Practical Nurses (NFLPN) Code for Licensed Practical/Vocational Nurses, "The practical nurse provides health care to all clients regardless of race, creed, cultural background, disease, or lifestyle"?
Answer:
Justice
Explanation:
The ethical principle of justice refers to the particularity of what is fair and right, such as respect for the equality of all citizens, for example. An example of this is a statement from the National Federation of Licensed Practice Nurses Code that states "A practical nurse provides medical care to all clients, regardless of race, creed, cultural background, illness or lifestyle".
According to Aristotle, the term justice denotes both legality and equality. Thus, the one who obeys the law (justice in the strict sense) and the one who realizes equality (justice in the universal sense) is just.
The ethical principle of justice underlies the NFLPN Code for Licensed Practical/Vocational Nurses' statement, emphasizing fairness and equality in patient care regardless of personal characteristics. It is accompanied by other core principles such as autonomy, beneficence, and nonmaleficence, and is reinforced by cultural competence in nursing practice.
Explanation:The ethical principle underlying the statement in the National Federation of Licensed Practical Nurses (NFLPN) Code for Licensed Practical/Vocational Nurses, "The practical nurse provides health care to all clients regardless of race, creed, cultural background, disease, or lifestyle," is grounded in the concept of justice.
Justice, in the context of nursing ethics, mandates that nurses treat all patients equitably, without discrimination based on personal characteristics or conditions. This principle is essential in ensuring that all individuals receive high-quality care regardless of their race, creed, cultural background, disease, or lifestyle, hence promoting fairness and equality within healthcare settings. Other core ethical principles that guide nursing practice include autonomy (respecting a patient's right to make their own healthcare decisions), beneficence (acting in the best interest of the patient), and nonmaleficence (doing no harm to the patient).
Cultural competence also plays a critical role in fulfilling this ethical obligation by equipping nurses with the knowledge and skills to provide care that respects diverse cultural backgrounds. As the U.S. population becomes increasingly diverse, nurses are expected to extend their competencies to effectively serve patients from various cultures, thereby upholding the ethical principle of justice.
When discussing his relationship with his wife Amber, Travis says, "I have this very strong sense of commitment and tranquility." Researchers have suggested that the neurophysiological basis of this feeling may be due to brain chemicals related to
Answer: Morphine
Explanation: Morphine is a medicational drug that is used for the relieving the pain of the body under the prescription.It is prescribed to be taken in limited amount otherwise overdose cause cause serious damage to the body.
According to the neurophysiology, morphine can affect the brain by inducing plasticity.Thus, the Travis is stating about his calmness and commitment feeling in his mind.
________ can be thought of as the effective rules of the game
Answer: Business Culture - It can be thought of as the effective rules of the game, the boundaries between competitive and unethical behavior, and the codes of conduct in business dealings.
JoAnn has an infection. Choose the correct way to complete each sentence.
JoAnn has a cold. She is coughing up mucus (a respiratory secretion) from her lungs. JoAnn is the in the chain of transmission. The mucus from her cough is the in the chain of transmission.
Hi !
Answer:
- JoAnn is the reservoir in the chain of transmission. The mucus from her cough is the portal of exit in the chain of transmission.
Answer:
JoAnn is the reservoir in the chain of transmission. The mucus from her cough is the portal of exit in the chain of transmission.
Explanation:
Infection can be defined as the penetration and development or multiplication of an infectious agent in the body of man or another animal. The infection may trigger some clinical manifestations, being in this case called infectious disease.
A reservoir in the transmission chain can be understood as the habitat of an infectious agent in which it lives, grows and multiplies. In this case, as the infectious agent is using JoAnn's body as a habitat to develop, we can say that in the chain of infection JoAnn is the reservoir.
The exit portal in an infection transmission chain is where the body expels the microorganism that is the infectious agent. In this case, the exit portal is JoAnn's sneeze and cough.
Iris, usually involved with her friends, has become withdrawn and isolated. she has stopped taking showers and changing her clothes. when asked what she is thinking, she describes, in scattered phrases, a frightening inner world of demons and threats. these symptoms illustrate which phase of schizophrenia?a. prodromalb. reactivec. residuald. active
Answer: D) Active
Explanation: It is the phase where the disease is triggered, they are called outbreaks or crises, the symptoms that occur are the positive ones (hallucinations, delusions, thought disorders) and disorganization. The intervals between outbreaks, depending on the characteristics of the person, can vary between months and several years and are generally of the same duration in the same person.
Iris's symptoms suggest she is in an active phase of schizophrenia, characterized by both prominent positive symptoms such as hallucinations and negative symptoms such as social withdrawal and poor hygiene.
Explanation:The described symptoms of Iris in the scenario given, such as social withdrawal, poor hygiene, disorganized thoughts, and frightening hallucinations or delusions, are indicative of an active phase of schizophrenia. This phase is characterized by a worsening of psychotic symptoms, which can include both positive symptoms (like hallucinations and delusions) and negative symptoms (like withdrawal and poor hygiene).
During the prodromal phase, symptoms are less obvious and may gradually develop, while the reactive and residual phases refer to periods following an active phase, typically marked by a reduction of symptoms and a movement towards baseline functioning. Iris's experiences as outlined particularly point to an active phase due to the presence of stark psychotic features, such as her description of a world with demons and threats along with significant functional impairment.
________________ is becoming a common practice of raising clients’ level of function before surgery to assist with their recovery and limit their decline from normal function after the surgery.a. Rehabilitationb. Preventative habilitationc. Pretherapyd. Prehabilitation
Answer:
d. Prehabilitation
Explanation:
Prehabilitation is becoming a common practice of raising clients’ level of function before surgery to assist with their recovery and limit their decline from normal function after the surgery.
Which Of the statements below, the accurate statement regarding nutrition and cellular health is
a. obese individuals are generally nutritionally healthy.
b. the body can generally produce elements essential for nutritional balance.
c. deficient cellular uptake by one cell type may contribute to excess nutrient delivery to other cell types.
d. a normal BMI indicates nutritional health.
Answer:
D. a normal BMI indicates nutritional health.
Explanation:
The nursing instructor is teaching students about Alzheimer's disease. The instructor informs the students that clients with this illness experience problems with memory and thinking. The reason that this happens is which?
Answer:
Hippocampus cells get damaged.
Explanation:
This cells are associated with learning, they are the first damaged. So, in some way, learning stops. When these cells continue damaging, the information allocated is slowly lost.
When Abdallah met Aimee for the first time he was struck by three things: she was pretty, she was tall, and she kept backing away from him. Aimee also was struck by three things: Abdallah was handsome, he was tall, and he stood really, really close to her—uncomfortably close, as a matter of fact. Why would some of their initial impressions be so similar yet others be so different?
Answer:
Appropriate conversational distance is a norm that varies from culture to culture
Explanation:
During adolescence, young people are often too embarrassed to ask their parents about sexuality, and, at the same time, parents are ambivalent about their children's developing sexual nature.
True / False.
I would say true....
Answer:
true
Explanation:
Usually, young people don't ask their parents about their sexuality.
On a health history, a client reports no visual disturbances, last eye exam two years ago, and does not wear glasses. The nurse notices that the client squints when signing the consent for treatment form and holds the paper close to the face. What should the nurse do next?A. Document the findings in the client's recordB. Perform both the distant and near visual acuity testsC. Test the pupils for direct and consensual reaction to lightD. Obtain a referral to the ophthalmologist for a complete eye exam
Answer: B. Perform both the distant and near visual acuity tests.
Explanation:
Visual acuity test is done to examine the fact that how well the eyes can observe the details of the symbols or letters from a specific distance. It is the ability of the eyes to discern the details as well as the shapes which the eyes see.
According to the given situation, the visual acuity tests is a correct approach to judge the visibility of the patient.
According to the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP), which of the following would be considered adequate evidence of immunity to varicella, indicating that administration of varicella vaccine is unnecessary?a) Patient self-reported case of chickenpox.b) Patient self-reported case of herpes zoster.c) Birth in the United States after 1990.d) Diagnosis of chickenpox by a health care provider.
Answer:
a) Patient self-reported case of chickenpox
Explanation:
Varicella, or chickenpox, is an infectious disease caused by the varicella-zoster virus. Highly contagious but usually benign, it was one of the most common childhood illnesses before the advent of the vaccine. Once acquired the virus, the person is immune for life. However, it will remain in the body and in the future may cause a condition known as herpes zoster, or shingles. Because of this immunity, we can conclude that adequate evidence of varicella immunity, indicating that administration of varicella vaccine is unnecessary is a case reported by the chickenpox patient.
When working with young children, adults often provide assistance, instruction, and other support. As children demonstrate they can do more for themselves, Vygotsky recommends that adults begin to withdraw these supports. This demonstrates the concept of
Answer: Scaffolding.
Explanation: According to the theory of Vygotsky , scaffolding is the technique that helps the students or children to achieve the aim of learning something with the guidance of elder like parents, teacher, grandparents etc.
The theory describes that peer should be instructor to provide guidance so that children would be able to perform task in wider range but they should peer should also know proper implementation way of scaffolding.
They should withdraw their guidance at time for children to perform some activity on their own so than they can also develop their mind and can have independent learning.
When an individual strives to increase their muscular strength, they will be focused on creating maximum force for a single effort. This conditioning has the potential impact to increase the overall mass of a muscle, which is also known as:__________
Answer:
Functional training
Explanation:
Functional training is nothing more than a training method whose main objective is to improve the individual's performance in a specific activity, whether in their daily activities, in any sport or bodybuilding. For this reason, we can state that a conditioning that has the potential impact of increasing the total mass of a muscle, also known as functional training.
Functional training exercises do not only work on the muscles, but according to the activity for which the individual is trained the training may include proprioception, balance, agility, coordination, and any other skill required by the activity for which the individual is trained.
You have responded to a park where you find a 23-year-old female sitting on a bench near a running trail. She states that she has been running for the past 30 minutes, and all of a sudden she cannot catch her breath. She states that this has never happened before and she usually runs 5 miles a day. Your assessment reveals that she is flushed, her pulse is fast and weak, her respirations are fast and she is wheezing, and she has hives on her arms and chest. She is most likely suffering from which of the following?
A.Anaphylaxis
B.Heat stroke
C.Allergic reaction
D.Hyperventilation syndrome
Answer:
The correct answer is option A. Anaphylaxis.
Explanation:
Anaphylaxis is a very serious allergic reaction that can be life-threatening if not get emergency help immediately. This allergic reaction occurs due to venom, medication or food, generally because of a bee sting or the food allergy like peanut or mushroom. Some people also allergic to pollens so it can be specific to the person.
Anaphylaxis has several symptoms such as nausea, face seeking, short and difficulty in breathing, vomiting, rashes, wheezing, low blood pressure and several other symptoms. Anaphylactic shock is one of the major symptoms.
Thus, the correct answer is option A. Anaphylaxis.
Lactose is composed of glucose and galactose and is a naturally occurring carbohydrate. Unfortunately, many individuals cannot tolerate lactose and develop gastrointestinal symptoms after ingesting it. These individuals would do best eating what dairy food?
Answer:
Greek Yogurt
Explanation:
Greek yogurt contains less lactose than regular yogurt. The probiotics found in the yogurt will help further break down the lactose.
(this is the answer i found, but there are other examples as well)
The methods of scientific and clinical psychologists are quite different from those of layfolk, who sometimes rely on an unreliable body of knowledge known as
a)critical thinking.
b)learning.
c)past history.
d)common sense.
Answer:
d) common sense.
Explanation:
According to my research on studies conducted by various psychologists, I can say that based on the information provided within the question this unreliable body of knowledge being mentioned is called common sense. This is basically making smart or sound judgment on different practical matters mostly based on past experiences. This is sometimes unreliable because perception and emotion affect these judgments a lot instead of actual facts and research.
I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.
Select the incorrect statement.
a) LSD is classified as a phenylethylamine type of hallucinogen.
2) MDMA has both stimulant and hallucinogenic effects.
3) High doses of anticholinergic drugs can cause hallucinogenic effects.
4) Hallucinogens can cause the user to become aware of thoughts and feelings that had been forgotten or repressed.
Answer:
a) LSD is classified as a phenylethylamine type of hallucinogen.
Explanation:
LSD-25 or LSD (Lysergic Acid Diethylamide), popularly known as "sweet" or "acid", is a synthetic hallucinogen that causes mood swings and hallucinations. It is commonly consumed in nightclubs and parties and is therefore used most often by the teenage and young adult audience. Because it is derived from lysergic acid, LSD cannot be classified as a hallucinogen phenylethylamine.
This illicit drug, that is, for prohibited use, is produced in laboratories from the substance ergot, obtained from the fungus Claviceps purpurea (ergot), which develops in rye and other grains. Unlike other drugs, LSD has no color, smell or taste. And their consumption can be very varied - mostly made orally or sublingually, in the form of paper (filter paper or stamps) or drops. However, although less frequent, the drug may be injected, inhaled or smoked.
Individuals that are heterozygous for the sickle-cell anemia allele are more resistant to malaria than those that do not have a sickle-cell allele. Why does the sickle-cell allele not become fixed in the population?
Answer:
The character of sickle cell anaemia does not get fixed in the population Because it has more disadvantages than advantages
Explanation:
Any character will get fixed in the population if the character provides the progeny certain advantage to reproduce better.The rate of malaria infection is low, but such people may have breathing difficulties and organs may fail due to the wrinkled RBC's not able to flow smoothly in the arteries and hence causing blockages. the character may be recessive but again the amount of oxygen carried per healthy RBC is less and that makes breathing difficult . so as a character its a disadvantage for the person who is a career and hence not being selected to be fixed.
A 23-year-old patient with a recent history of encephalitis is admitted to the medical unit with new onset generalized tonic-clonic seizures. Which nursing activities included in the patient's care will be best to delegate to an LPN/LVN whom you are supervising? (Choose all that apply).A Document the onset time, nature of seizure activity, and postictal behaviors for all seizures.B Administer phenytoin (Dilantin) 200 mg PO daily.C Teach patient about the need for good oral hygiene.D Develop a discharge plan, including physician visits and referral to the Epilepsy Foundation.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
It should be monitored the onset of these events and the behaviour of the patient after the event. We must not administer treatment without the real cause identified.
Source:
Prakash Giri V, Prakash Giri O, Haque A y col. Journal of Clinical and Diagnostic Research 10(7):FC01-FC04, Jul 2016.
A 12-year-old child at a soccer game grabs their chest and begins to make wheezing noises. After you obtain consent to provide care, the child’s parent informs you that the child has a history of asthma, but does not have an inhaler nearby. What care should you provide?
a) Wait 20 minutes to see if the breathing difficulty goes away.
b) Summon more advanced medical personnel and place the victim into a position that helps
c) breathing.
d) Tell the victim to use an inhaler borrowed from a bystander.
e) Give 5 back blows.
Answer: Summon more advanced medical personnel and place the victim into a position that helps breahing.
Explanation: In the event of someone falling and banging their head it is imperative that you check them and make sure they show signs of life, e.g. breathing, they need to breathe to sustain life
The other thing is never move a patient from the scene unless there is immediate danger, its best to summon medical assistance, but first you must check their ABC,
A - Airway, is it blocked, put your fingers in their mouth and check for any foreign objects which may cause choking,
B - Breathing, are they breathing, there isn't much point moving someone or doing anything else unless they are breathing.
C - Chest compressions, start chest compressions to restart their breathing - make sure you read up on this and know how to place your hands over the victims chest though I think just recently that has been scrapped and its just a case now of pumping an adults chest with your hands best way possible to get their breathing going again. (this step should be done by trained personnel as this can cause rib breakage)
Billy hates it when his upstairs neighbor wakes up early to take a shower. He is typically abruptly awakened when the water starts, but then he gets used to the noise and goes back to sleep. In this example, Billy is showing learning through _______.
Answer:
habituation
Explanation:
Whenever we come across a new stimulus, our attention is mobilized for a longer time. After a few repetitions, the stimulus loses its ability to mobilize us as before. Thus, habituation happens. It is an automatic decrease in the intensity of a response to a repetitive stimulus. Based on this, we can conclude that you went through the learning process based on habituation to the noise your neighbor made while taking a shower.
Fever ________.
A) is a higher-than-normal body temperature that is always dangerous
B) decreases the metabolic rate of the body to conserve energy
C) production is regulated by chemicals that reset the body's thermostat to a higher setting
D) causes the liver to release large amounts of iron, which seems to inhibit bacterial replication
Answer:
A) is a higher-than-normal body temperature that is always dangerous
Explanation:
An older adult client is being treated for hemorrhoids and asks the health care practitioner whether her topical ointment cream will interact with her other medications. What can the health care practitioner tell her?
Answer:
the medication should have no interaction with the client's other medications, because this is absorbed locally at the site of the hemorrhoids
Explanation:
Drug interactions are one of the most common drug-related problems. Seeking information about this problem is essential for the efficiency of pharmacological treatment and to avoid health damage caused by the use of medicines.
Topical ointments are creams that are used on the skin and are absorbed where they were applied, so there is a very low risk that these ointments interact with other medicines, as these interactions occur with medicines that enter the bloodstream. Therefore, we can conclude that in the case of the patient described in the question, the drug should not interact with the client's other drugs, because it is absorbed locally at the hemorrhoid site.
The health care practitioner should advise the client to consult with her healthcare provider or pharmacist regarding potential interactions between her topical ointment cream for hemorrhoids and her other medications.
Explanation:The health care practitioner can inform the older adult client that there is a possibility of drug interactions between the topical ointment cream for hemorrhoids and her other medications. Since we don't have the specific medications she's taking, it's important for her to consult with her healthcare provider or pharmacist. They can review her medications and provide guidance on potential interactions and any necessary precautions.
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"Dr. Chen studies several traits that distinguish one person from another. Dr. Doherty investigates how people grow and change during late adolescence and young adulthood. Dr. Chen is a ________ psychologist; Dr. Doherty is a ________."
Answer: Developmental psychologist and Personality psychologist
Explanation:
Developmental psychology is defined as the scientific study of why and how human beings change over the period of their lifetime.
It is originally concerned about the development, aging and entire lifespan.
Personality psychologist observe the social situations and how they are influenced by individual emotion and conduct.
They tend to express the behavior of person under stress conditions, attraction, aggression, persuasion.
A psychological scientist asks study participants to indicate whether the green line at the front corner of the wall pictured here is longer than, shorter than, or equal in length to the green line at the back corner of the wall. Participants regularly say that the front line is shorter than the back line (even though the two are perfectly equal in length). The participants’ brains are using ___________ to guide perception.
Answer:
contextual cues about depth
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it seems that the participants' brains are using contextual cues about depth to guide the perception. This can be said because the brain is subconsciously measuring both lines in relationship towards each other as well as various objects around the lines at different depths, which would lead to inaccurate measurements as opposed to comparing the lines together at the same depth perception.
I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.
Answer:
contextual cues about depth
Explanation:
The first exercise during Strength Endurance training involves a traditional strength exercise, such as a bench press, that is performed in a stable environment in order to elicit which of the following?a. Fixator strength
b. Antagonist muscle strength
c. Prime mover strength
d. Neutralizer strength
Answer:
c. Prime mover strength
Explanation:
Strength and endurance training involves a traditional strength exercise. These trainings are the main activities in fitness centers, besides contributing to muscle growth with the decrease of body fat and the increase of bone mass. Its constant practice leads to the harmonious transformation of the human physical constitution. The first exercise during Strength and Endurance training involves a strength exercise because it aims to promote the engine's main strength.
At the fireworks show, Michael is afraid and thinks his newborn sister is sick when she suddenly flings her arms and legs out from her body, then pulls them in tightly. Michael’s mom is not concerned because she knows that this is just the baby’s __________ reflex.
a) moro
b) rooting
c) grasping
d) tonic neck
Answer:
Moro.
Explanation:
Moro reflex may be defined as a type of the infantile reflex that occur during 30-35 weeks of the gestation. The evaluation of integration of central nervous system occurs at moro reflex.
The moro reflex causes the flings of the baby arms and her legs are out from her body. The baby spread the arms and causes arms adduction. Michaels' afraid of the sister response but her mother knows that this is a simple moro reflex of the baby.
Thus, the correct answer is option (a).