All scientific investigations are initially founded upon

Answer:

D. Intravenous ceftriaxone

Explanation:

Intravenous ceftriaxone

This patient's presentation is suggestive of a UTI. Given the ill appearance, vital signs, and white count, Upper tract disease (pyelonephritis) should be strongly considered. A parenteral (IV/IM) third-generation cephalosporin is the best choice of those listed for pyelonephritis, given its excellent gram negative coverage (except for Pseudomonas).

Answer: INTRAVENOUS CEFTRIAXONE

Explanation: To understand the question very well,let's critically look at the age of the infant and the presenting signs and symptoms.

The infant has a history of poor feeding,emesis(vomitting) and also there is history of irritability.there is also fever.when you look at all these,it is closely related to the signs and symptoms presented by infants with UTI ( urinary tract infection) but when you consider the vital signs of the infant (Temperature: 39.2°c, Respiratory: 40bpm,and Blood pressure: 80/50mmHg), the white blood cell count and the I'll looking appearance of the infant,

Upper tract disease that is (pyelonephritis) should be considered more because the signs and symptoms indicative of pyelonephritis are more strong than that of UTI.

Looking at the age of the infant and the severity of the presenting signs and symptoms, parenteral drug administration(intravenous/intramuscular) will act faster and will be easily absorbed and as well as easily accepted by the infant than enteral adminstration.

Looking at the options listed in the question,ceftriaxone is a third generation cephalosporin (a class of antibiotics used to treat varieties of bacteria infections) and it is so far the best drug in the treatment of pyelonephritis and also the best from the options given in the question,it's effectiveness is seen in the fact that it's gram negative coverage is excellent except in the case of pseudomonads where there is no encouraging gram negative coverage.

Explanation:

Answer:

1. B - Aa x Aa = 25% chance AA, which is the only genotype that results in sickle-cell. Aa is called "sickle-cell trait'; it isn't the full disease.

2. A - Aa x aa = we know will produce no homozygous dominant

3. B - RR x Rr = 1/2 chance of Rr (same problem as #5)

4. A - Bb x Bb = 1:2:1 ratio

5. B - WW x Ww = 1/2 chance of Ww

6. D - AABbCC has 5 dominant alleles, which is the most out of the four options

7. C - the one with the fewest dominant alleles will be the most green and the most successful in the environment

Answer:

The correct answer is case-control study.

Explanation:

In a case-control study, two groups of the population are used, in which one group is kept as control, and the other is known as the experimental group that encounters with a specific disease or an outcome. With the help of this study, one can expose the groups to various or single outcomes.  

In the given case, a study is done in which an advertisement on a ban on smoking is encouraged by the non-smokers at the alcohol sale points but not by smokers, in the process a random digit dialing method was used. This random digit dialing method is an illustration of a case-control study, in which the survey of the individuals is done regarding the ban on smoking.  

A study conducted via a random-digit dialed survey in Long Beach, California, assessing attitudes toward smoking bans among smokers and nonsmokers, exemplifies a cross-sectional study design.

The study described in the city of Long Beach, California, where a random-digit dialed survey reported that a greater proportion of nonsmokers endorsed a ban on smoking in alcohol-serving establishments compared to smokers, is an example of a cross-sectional study.

This type of study design involves analyzing data collected from a population, or a representative subset, at a specific point in time. In this case, the survey aimed to assess attitudes toward smoking bans among different groups within the population at a single point in time, without following up with participants over time. Cross-sectional studies are particularly useful for assessing the prevalence of behaviors or opinions in a population.

Answer:

The correct answer is "short RNA primers; Okazaki fragments".

Explanation:

The missing information of this question is as follows:

"Replication of the lagging strand of dna is accomplished by repeatedly making __________ followed by 1,000-2,000 nucleotide segments called __________"

The correct answer is "short RNA primers; Okazaki fragments".

DNA replication always occurs from 5' to the 3' end, in what is known as the directionality or the end-to-end chemical orientation in molecular biology. This fact makes difficult the synthesis of the lagging strand of DNA. In order to achieve this short RNA primers are bound to  segments of DNA (serving as the 5' end available for the DNA polymerase to synthesize), which leads to the discontinuous synthesis of Okazaki fragments that are later linked together by the enzyme DNA ligase.

Answer:

The answer is below

Explanation:

1. A) The percentage increase in population in Hildago between 1997 to 2007 is:

Given that Hildago population in 1997 = 511, 324

Hildago population in 2007 = 726,604

Hence, the percentage increase is 726,604 - 511,324 = 215280

Then 215280 ÷ 726604 = 0.2962 ≈ 29.62%

1. B) For Willacy

Willacy population in 1997 = 19,332

Hildago population in 2007 = 20,600

Hence, the percentage increase is 20,600 - 19,332 = 1268

Then 1268 ÷ 20600 = 0.0615 ≈ 6.15%

2.  The problem a rapidly growing population posed to a watershed are:

A.  impaired water bodies

B.  percentage of surface waters impaired increases

C.  source of pollution

D.  number of waste water facilities draining into the water bodies.

Answer:

Explanation:

Here is the correct format of the equation in the question.

A subpopulation of plant, isolated from the main population, is found to obey the function below, describing the number of individuals (in thousands).

[tex]N_{(T)} = \frac{8e^{4T}-2T+5}{7+2e^{4T}}[/tex]

What is the ultimate fate of this subpopulation of plants? Justify your claim with the appropriate mathematics.

Answer:

the ultimate fate of this subpopulation of plants = 4

Explanation:

Given that:

[tex]N_{(T)} = \frac{8e^{4T}-2T+5}{7+2e^{4T}}[/tex]

Taking the limit of N(T) ; we have ,[tex]\lim_{T \to \infty} N(T)[/tex]

[tex]N(T) = \frac{8-\frac{2T}{e^{4T}}+\frac{5}{e^{4T}}}{2+ \frac{7}{e^{4t}}}[/tex]

where T is less than [tex]e^{4T}[/tex] ; which is written as :

[tex]T< e^{4T}[/tex]

∴  [tex]\lim_{T \to \infty} N(T )= \frac{8-2 \lim_{T \to \infty} \frac{T}{e^{4T}} +5 \lim_{T \to \infty} \frac{1}{e^{4T}} }{2+7 \lim_{T \to \infty} \frac{1}{e^{4t}} }[/tex]

= [tex]\frac{8}{2}[ \lim_{T \to \infty} \frac{T}{e^{4T}} =0 ; \lim_{T \to \infty} \frac{1}{e^{4t}} }=0][/tex]

where; [tex][ \lim_{T \to \infty} \frac{T}{e^{4T}} =0 \ \ \ and \ \ \lim_{T \to \infty} \frac{1}{e^{4t}} } = 0][/tex]

Then, [tex]= \frac{8}{2}[/tex]

= 4

Thus, the ultimate fate of this subpopulation of plants = 4

Answer:

B. Brown Hair is dominant.

Explanation:

The dominant allele is represented with a capital letter, and a recessive allele is represented with a lower case letter.

Therefore, In this example brown hair is dominant. :)

Answer:

B; brown hair is dominant.

Explanation:

Alleles that are portrayed with uppercase letters are known to be dominant alleles. Brown hair is a darker color found commonly and is dominant over the blonde color which is overall lighter thus recessive.

So your answer would be B; Brown hair is dominant

Hope this helps!

Explanation:

The structure of prokaryotic chromosome differs from the structure of eukaryotic chromosome by following ways:

Prokaryotic chromosomes are circular and free in the cell cytoplasm, usually consisting of a singular chromosome. Alternatively, eukaryotic chromosomes are linear, located in the cell nucleus, and are organized into chromatin by proteins called histones.

The main difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic chromosomes lies in their structure and location within the cell. Prokaryotic chromosomes are circular and found free in the cell cytoplasm, they are not enclosed by a nuclear membrane and usually consist of a singular chromosome. On the other hand, eukaryotic chromosomes are located within the cell's nucleus, and are linear in structure. These cells contain more than one chromosome, which are organized and packaged in proteins called histones forming a structure called chromatin.

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Answer:

two of the gametes will Java chromosomes identical to the chromosomes found in the original diploid cell,while two of the gametes will have chromosomes that are different

The following questions are answered below.

Explanation:

1. The following statement is not true for the reproductive system is it includes both internal and external reproductive structures.

2. Fertilization of ovum most often occurs in the oviduct or fallopian tube.

3. The primary hormone is responsible for development and maintenance of female sex characteristics is estrogens.

4. The layer of the uterus from which tissue is sloughed during mensuration is the endometrium.

5. The cremaster muscle raises and lowers the testes to maintain proper temperature for sperm production.

6. The period of pregnancy during which the basics of all major organ systems appear is the first trimester.

7. The last major organ(s) to mature during fetal development is/are the brain.

8. After undergoing meiosis, an egg and sperm each contain 23 chromosomes, while a developing fetus contains 46.

Final answer:

The reproductive system is responsible for the production and transport of gametes, but it does not produce hormones like GH and ADH. Fertilization typically occurs in the fallopian tube, estrogen is key for female characteristics, the cremaster muscle regulates testes temperature, the fetus grows rapidly in the third trimester, organ systems appear in the first trimester, the lungs mature last, and post-meiosis, gametes carry 23 chromosomes each, combining to form a zygote with 46.

Explanation:

The reproductive system performs critical functions for the perpetuation of species, including humans. Let's examine the questions about it sequentially:

Answer

the answer would be... Mark!

Explanation:

Due to the Enhance fujita scale (EF) an EF 1 would do minor damage resulting in some downed trees, power lines, and some mobile houses off their structures. On the category side though a category 5 hurricane would cause catastrophic damage. If you look back to EF1 tornadoes and category 5 hurricanes you can see the damage it has done, a giant difference.

Have a great day (or night!)

Mark has the correct statement that a category 5 hurricane causes more damage than an EF-1 tornado.

Hurricanes and tornadoes are both natural disasters, but they differ in their size, duration, and destructive power. A category 5 hurricane is the most severe hurricane on the Saffir-Simpson scale and has sustained winds of 157 mph or higher, while an EF-1 tornado is a relatively weak tornado with wind speeds of 86-110 mph.

Hurricanes also have a much larger diameter and longer duration than tornadoes, which can cause more widespread damage over a larger area.

Learn more about hurricanes, here:

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Explanation:

5.HeLa cells (also known as "HeLa cells" or simply "Hela") are a particular type of cell culture cell, used in scientific research. It is the oldest and most frequently used human cell lineage.The HeLa cells turned out to be perfect for the polio vaccine, and that experiment and the vaccine saved millions of people.

 To develop it it was necessary for the virus to grow in the laboratory and for that human cells were required.

6. This protein is found in the nucleus of cells and plays an important role in the multiplication and destruction of cells. ... The p53 gene is a type of tumor suppressor gene.

Cell cycle arrest:

P53-mediated cell cycle arrest at the G1 / S checkpoint, when DNA damage is recognized, to prevent replication. It can be considered the main response when DNA damage occurs. The cell cycle arrest in the G1 / S transition is due to p53-dependent transcription of the CDKs inhibitor or also (CDC), cyclin-dependent kinase] called CDKN1A / p21. p21 inhibits CDK-cyclin complexes and prevents phosphorylation of pRb, so that transcription factor E2F remains inactive, and cell progression to the S phase (DNA synthesis) is prevented. This "pause" in the progression of the cell cycle gives time to repair DNA damage.

7.The Philadelphia syndrome or chromosome is an abnormality found on chromosome 22 of the body, and was discovered in 1960 by Philadelphia scientists Peter Nowell and David Hungerford; Both scientists worked in two different laboratories, but both were in the city of Philadelphia, and that is why this syndrome is named after the city in which they both discovered it.

This anomaly is linked to cancer because when presenting this anomaly of chromosomes 9 and 22, there seems to be a relationship with chronic myeloid leukemia. The truth is that, according to numerous studies carried out on patients with chronic myeloid leukemia, 90 percent of patients with this disease presented the anomaly of the Philadelphia syndrome.

The Philadelphia chromosome genetic defect consists of a phenomenon known as translocation, that is, a chromosomal break occurs in two specific regions of chromosome 9 and 22 (translocation 9-22), exchanging their positions. Specifically, the breakpoint occurs in the ABL gene (Abelson) on chromosome 9 (region q34) and in the BCR gene (Breakpoint Cluster Region, ) on chromosome 22 (region q11), giving rise to an altered chromosome 9 and a chromosome 22 also altered (Philadelphia Chromosome), but characterized by the fusion of these two genes (BCR-ABL), which encode a chimeric protein. The ABL gene takes its name from "Abelson," the name of a virus that causes leukemia, a precursor to a protein similar to that produced by this gene.

References

Zheng, Xiaomin; Güller, Saskia; Beissert, Tim; Puccetti, Elena; Ruthardt, Martin (November 7, 2006). "BCR and its mutants, the reciprocal t (9; 22) -associated ABL / BCR fusion proteins, differentially regulate the cytoskeleton and cell motility". BMC Cancer 6 (1): 262. ISSN 1471-2407. PMC PMC1637115 | pmc = incorrect (help). PMID 17090304. doi: 10.1186 / 1471-2407-6-262.

Answer:

C. competition eliminates species when disturbance is rare.

Explanation:

Intermediate disturbance hypothesis aims to explain the species diversity in an area. According to it, intermediate level of disturbance is required to maximize species diversity.

In case of high level of disturbance like deforestation or forest fire, all species are at risk of going extinct. In case of low level of disturbance, interspecific competition for resources increases due to which one species becomes dominant and another nearly extinct, thus reducing species diversity. Hence, an intermediate level of disturbance is required to maximize species diversity.

Tidal bulges are created by the gravitational interaction between the Earth and the Moon, resulting in a differential force that affects the Earth's oceans. This results in two tidal bulges - one on the side facing the moon and another on the opposite side.

Tidal bulges are primarily formed due to the gravitational interaction between the Earth and the Moon. This interaction causes a differential force which affects the water in the Earth's oceans. On the side of the Earth facing the Moon, this differential force makes the water flow towards it creating one tidal bulge.

On the opposite side, gravitational force is weaker and the inertia of the water causes it to bulge out, forming the second tidal bulge. Effects from the Sun, rotational forces from the Earth, and the shape of the coastlines and ocean basins can further complicate tidal patterns.The tide-raising forces, acting over a number of hours, produce motions of the water that result in measurable tidal bulges in the oceans.

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Answer:

b. UDP

Explanation:

Uridine diphosphate glucose (UDP) is a nucleotide sugar involved in galactose metabolism. In this reaction, the galactose 1-phosphate uridylyltransferase (GALT) enzyme transfers a phosphate group from UDP-glucose to galactose 1-phosphate in order to convert galactose into glucose

Answer:

the REAL CORRECT answers are

A) it will increase the grass population

D) it will decrease the snake population

E) it wil increase the grasshopper population.

hope this helps.

Answer:

A chemical element with the symbol P and atomic number 15.

Explanation:

Phosphorus is a chemical element with the symbol P and atomic number 15. Elemental phosphorus exists in two major forms, white phosphorus and red phosphorus, but because it is highly reactive, phosphorus is never found as a free element on Earth.

Answer: a.

Explanation:

The proficiency to be more professional and confident using one hand instead of the other for activities such as writing and throwing a pitch is called handedness.

Handedness begins to develop before birth. Handedness is inheritable and  evident from early childhood. handedness is related to variations between the brain's right and left halves (hemispheres). The the left hemisphere regulates the action of right side of the body while right hemisphere controls movement on the left side of the body.

So in handedness, one half of the brain regulates more skilled motor action.

Hence, teh correct option is a.

Answer:

Inconsistencies in the data warrant further investigation

Explanation:

When you find something new and exciting in your field of study you should always investigate further to see if certain circumstances in the situation led to your findings. If you discover that all of the female amphibians in a pond lay a few days later in the spring and normally this wouldn't happen you should always see if another pond of amphibians lay around the normal time. The water temperature could affect the laying time, the predators that are around could affect laying time, the animals comfort and even that could just be when it happens for them. But double and triple checking is always ideal, so that you are able to publish and share accurate information to help other scientists  see and experience what is actually happening.

Answer:

The answer is B. They protect the burn from infection.

Hope this helps (:

Skin grafts are beneficial in treating third-degree burns by providing a permanent skin layer, protecting the burn from infections, and shortening the healing time. Option 1, 2 and 3.

The benefit of using skin grafts in treating third-degree burns is manifold. Firstly, skin grafts provide a permanent layer of skin for the burned area, which helps restore the skin's natural barrier function. Secondly, they protect the burn from infection, since burnt skin is highly prone to infections that can lead to severe complications. Thirdly, they contribute to a shorter healing time for the treated area. Timely application of skin grafts can reduce the likelihood of prolonged wound healing, which in turn can minimize scarring and improve functional and cosmetic outcomes.

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Answer:

A measure of how much water vapor there is in the air.

Explanation:

Dampness, especially that of the air.

The amount of water vapour in the air.

Hope it will help you :))

Answer:

C

Explanation:

Answer:

Explanation:

brain-

Glucose is the major fuel for the brain metabolism to supply energy for synaptic transmissions. Average of -120g/day.However during hypoglacemia, keto bodies can be used by the brain for energy supply.

the fuel stores of the brain is very low because of high biochemical activities of the brain  which need to  be supplied with  contant fuel.Although it stores little Glycogen, most fuel supply to the brain is from the circulating glucose in the blood.

Heart.

the high  energy consuming  activities of the heart ensured that molecules with abundant energy supply e.g fatty acids from lipids digestion is preferred. Keto bodies, acetoacetate and lactate can also be fuel . Glucose is last on the scale of preference for the heart  as fuel.

It does not reserve or export any fuel.

Liver.

the complex metabolic  and multi functional activities  of the liver required constant supply of energy in all available forms. Thus  glucose, Amino acids and fatty acids are sources of fuel for the liver.

The liver fuel reserve is in the form of glycogen which is stimulated by glucagon to convert to glucose during condition of hypoglycemia. Triacylglycerols is another fuel reserve.

Generally as products of metabolic activities in the liver, fatty acid from lipid metabolisms, Glucose from gluconeogenesis, and glycogensis, and ketone bodies are the export sources.

Answer: b. axon hillock.

Explanation:

Neurotransmitter are the chemical substance which acts as a signal for neurotransmission. At a region called the axon hillock the axon emerges from the soma. At axon hillock, nerve impulses are produced by the plasma membrane; the axon pushes these impulses away from the soma, or dendrites towards other neurons.  

All the synaptic inputs are summed up at the axon hillock which further stimulates neurotransmitter release. Axon hillock is called as the trigger zone.

Hence, the correct option is b. axon hillock.

Answer:

is one in which blood flows through two capillary beds before being sent back to the heart.

Explanation:

A portal system can be defined as a system of blood vessels having a capillary network at each end, meaning that the blood vessel starts and ends in capillaries, before finding its way back to the heart. The blood draining through the capillary bed flows via the larger vessel to supply the blood to the another structure's capillary bed.

Answer:

Evolution is the process by which different kinds of living organisms are thought to have developed and diversified from earlier forms during the history of the earth. Coevolution is the influence of closely associated species on each other in their evolution.

Explanation:

Final answer:

Evolution is the gradual change within a species over time, while coevolution is the mutual evolutionary influence between two interdependent species, such as in predator-prey relationships or mutualistic interactions like flowering plants and their pollinators.

Explanation:

The difference between evolution and coevolution is that evolution refers to the changes that occur within a species over time due to environmental changes, natural selection, and genetic drift, among other factors. In contrast, coevolution involves two or more species influencing each other's evolutionary path, typically because they are interdependent, such as in symbiotic relationships or predator-prey dynamics. For instance, the coevolution between flowering plants and their pollinators, where the plant evolves specific traits to attract certain pollinators, and the pollinators evolve adaptations that allow them to more effectively access the flowers' nectar or pollen. A notable example is the close relationship between some insects and flowering plants; insects have developed specialized body structures to reach nectar, while flowering plants have evolved unique shapes and colors to attract these insects.

Answer:

Phenotype

Explanation:

I just took the test

Answer:

✨Phenotype ✨

Explanation:

hope y'all have a fantastic day

Answer:

One possible reason why concerns about the environment did not emerge in marine science until the late twentieth century is that the study of marine science was initially focused on understanding the ocean's physical and biological processes, rather than its environmental impact. Another reason could be that the environmental issues and concerns related to the ocean were not as visible or apparent as they are today, and it was only after the negative effects of human activities on the ocean became more evident that marine scientists began to focus on environmental issues.

Explanation:

Answer:

B. Codominance

Explanation: