Amoeba sister: video recap- pedigrees

Answers

Answer 1

Explanation:

Pedigree is like a recorded family tree with its past generations. In the pedigree, Circles represent females and Squares represent males. Now, the Roman numerals represent the generations. The long line (-) represents the marriange line and the bottom line under the parents, represent the line to the children. The shaded shapes are traits that are being tracked in the pedigree. An example of this are earlobes. Attached earlobes means that the recessive trait took over. Free unattached earlobes mean that the dominant trait took over.

That's as much as I can help with... Although, I do hope that this is helpful...

Amoeba Sister: Video Recap- Pedigrees
Answer 2

A video recap by Amoeba Sisters explaining pedigrees, summarizing essential concepts related to family inheritance patterns and genetic traits.

In the video recap on pedigrees, they likely delve into the understanding of pedigrees as a visual tool used in genetics to trace the inheritance of traits within a family.

A pedigree is a diagram that shows the occurrence and relationships of a particular genetic trait or disease across several generations in a family. It uses standardized symbols to represent individuals and their relationships, allowing for a clear representation of genetic patterns.

In the video, the Amoeba Sisters would likely cover how to interpret the symbols in a pedigree, like squares for males, circles for females, shaded symbols for affected individuals, and so on.

They may explain how pedigrees can demonstrate whether a trait is dominant or recessive, and how it can provide insights into the likelihood of a child inheriting a particular trait.

Understanding pedigrees is crucial in fields like genetics and genetic counseling, where it helps professionals trace the occurrence of genetic diseases or traits in families.

By analyzing patterns within pedigrees, scientists can make predictions about the inheritance of specific genes and provide information about potential genetic risks.

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Related Questions

A. Globin is a red blood cell protein that is responsible for oxygen transport. The amino acid
sequence for a portion of the globin protein is Proline, Glutamic Acid, Glutamic Acid, Lysine. Write
the mRNA sequence of the amino acids for these amino acids in the space below (note, you don't
have to write all possible mRNA combinations for each amino acid, simply choose one correct codon
each amino acid specified above).

B. How many nucleotides would it take to code for the four amino acids in the above question.
Explain your answer.​

Answers

Answer: A

Explanation:

Proline:CCG

Glutamic Acid: GAG,GAA

Lysine: AAG

Answer: B

Explanation: Each group of three nucleotides code for one amino acid. This means it would take 12 (3 times 4 equals 12) nucleotides to code for, four amino acids.

Final answer:

The mRNA sequences for Proline, Glutamic Acid, Glutamic Acid, and Lysine could respectively be CCU, GAA, GAA, AAA. Twelve nucleotides are needed to code these four amino acids.

Explanation:

A. The mRNA sequences for the amino acids Proline, Glutamic Acid, Glutamic Acid, Lysine could be CCU, GAA, GAA, AAA respectively.
B. Each amino acid is coded for by a set of three nucleotides known as a codon, therefore to code for four amino acids, one would need 3 x 4 = 12 nucleotides. This is because in the genetic code, every sequence of three nucleotide bases corresponds to one specific amino acid.

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which of the following represents a genotype that is homozygous recessive

Answers

There are many, and since you didn't specify the choices, some examples include "ff" or "dd" or just two lowercase letters.

Explanation:

Final answer:

A genotype that represents a homozygous recessive condition would consist of two identical recessive alleles, typically represented by two lowercase letters, such as 'aa'.

Explanation:

The genotype that represents a homozygous recessive condition would consist of two identical recessive alleles. In genetic notation, this is often represented by two lowercase letters (e.g., aa). This is because a recessive trait will only be observed when an individual has two copies of the recessive allele, as dominant alleles, if present, will mask the expression of recessive alleles.

For instance, if we consider a gene with two alleles - one dominant (A) and one recessive (a) - the homozygous recessive genotype would be aa for that trait. A homozygous dominant genotype would be AA and a heterozygous genotype would be Aa. Only in the homozygous recessive genotype does the recessive trait get expressed because there is no dominant allele to dominate over the recessive allele.

Long-term data are valuable in assessing the health and stability of a community. Conservation biologists look for changes in a community over time to alert them to the fact that something is wrong with the community and that potential threats need to be assessed. Of particular importance to understanding community stability is the change in the ______.

Answers

Answer:

Number of species and their relative abundances in the community over multiple years

Explanation:

Community stability measures the rate of increase or decrease of species in an environment over a period of time.

When studies are made and the species are in a low quantity then we refer to such species as being unstable and potentially becoming extinct whereas if there is a rise or uniform amount of species then stability is attained.

You discover a pattern of a 20 amino acid sequence at the C-terminus of over 50 proteins in an organism. You hypothesize that this amino acid sequence is a signal sequence for localization into a specific organelle or cell compartment, but you don't know which one. How might you use microscopy to investigate the location of proteins with this unique C-terminus sequence?

Answers

Answer:

It depends on the type of microscope that you have  

Explanation:

For example, in the case that you have a fluorescence microscope, it is possible to create a fusion construct of the domain fused to the Green Fluorescence Protein (GFP) and then introduce it into the cell. The observation of fluorescence from this construct enables to confirm the existence of the signal sequence (i.e., the C-terminal domain) in the organelle

The allele for tay-sachs is a recessive allele that causes death in early childhood. The tay-sachs' prgram has enabled Tim McGraw to determine that he is a carrier and that his wife is not. What are the chances they could have a child with Tay-Sachs?

Answers

Answer:

There are no chances for this couple to have a child with Tay-Sachs disease. 0% of the possibilities.

Explanation:

Tay-Sachs disease affects the nervous system and is potentially mortal. It is transmitted from parents to progeny. Tay-Sachs is caused by a defective gene in the 15 chromosome.

The child that recesives two coppies of this defective gene, one from the mother and one from the father, results sick. But if only one of the parents transmits the gene, then the child will be a carrier. This child won't be sick but will transmit the gene to his/her own progeny.  

Available data:

The allele for tay-sachs is a recessive allele, "t" Tim McGraw to determine is a carrier, TtTim´s wife is not a carrier, TT

Cross:

Parental) TT     x     Tt

Gametes) T   T      T   t

Punnet square)   T         T

                     T   TT     TT

                      t    Tt      Tt

F1) Progeny genotype: 2/4= 1/2 normal, TT

                                      2/4= 1/2 Carrier, Tt

                                       0/4= 0 Sick, tt

What are the chances they could have a child with Tay-Sachs?

There are 0% of the possibilities that this family will get a sick child.

Answer:

The chances they would have a child with Tay-sach's is zero

Explanation:

Since Tim McGraw is a carrier; possessing just one copy of the recessive allele and the normal copy being dominant and his wife is neither a carrier nor a tay-sach's, there is zero percent chance of producing a child with Tay-sach's. This is because the condition is expressed when an individual has two copies of the recessive allele.

In a laboratory experiment, C. elegans and B. thuringiensis were cultured individually (control) or together (experimental) for 150 days. Under optimal conditions, the generation time of C. elegans is approximately 3.5 days and the generation time of B. thuringiensis is approximately 25 minutes. At the end of the experiment, the change in virulence of B. thuringiensis and the change in resistance of C. elegans to BT toxin were determined. (a) Calculate the maximum number of generations that is possible in individual cultures of C. elegans AND the maximum number of generations that is possible in individual cultures of B. thuringiensis in 150 days.

Answers

Final answer:

Given 150 days, the maximum number of generations for C. elegans is approximately 4,114 generations, and for B. thuringiensis is approximately 8,640 generations, calculated based on their respective generation times.

Explanation:

To calculate the maximum number of generations for C. elegans and B. thuringiensis, we will need the total time frame of 150 days and their generation times. The generation time for C. elegans is about 3.5 days, and for B. thuringiensis, it’s approximately 25 minutes.

C. elegans: First, convert the total experiment time from days to the same time unit for generation time. There are 150 days * 24 hours/day * 60 minutes/hour = 216,000 minutes. Then, divide this total available time by the organism's generational cycle: 216,000 minutes / (3.5 days/generation * 24 hours/day * 60 minutes/hour) = about 4,114 generations.

B. thuringiensis: Similarly, we calculate the number of generations: 216,000 minutes / (25 minutes/generation) = approximately 8,640 generations.

The reason behind this large difference in number of generations is the stark difference in generation times of these organisms. The comparatively shorter generation time of B. thuringiensis allows it to produce more generations within the same timeframe.

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Use the template of a replication fork to draw arrows that represent both continuous and discontinuous DNADNA synthesis. Draw one long arrow to show continuous DNADNA synthesis and three arrows to show discontinuous DNADNA synthesis. The arrows should point in the direction of nucleotide addition, and the three arrows showing discontinuous synthesis should be numbered 1, 2, and 3, in the order of fragment synthesis.

Answers

The replication fork is the structure formed during the DNA replication. The fork is created by the enzymes, which break the hydrogen bonds between nitrogenous base pairs.

DNA replication is a vital process in which genetic information is copied from the template strand to the complementary strand.

The mechanism of DNA replication follows the central dogma, such that it involves transcription then translation.

Find the image of the replication fork in the below attachment.

The steps are:

The enzyme helicase unwinds the DNA molecule by breaking the bonds.

The SSBs or single-stranded binding proteins stabilize the DNA.

The DNA polymerase synthesizes the leading strand in a 5' to 3' direction in a continuous pattern.

The lagging strand is synthesized in the form of Okazaki fragments.

These Okazaki fragments are then sealed by DNA ligase.

Therefore, the replication fork runs parallelly, but in opposite direction.

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Darwin recorded distinct species of finches on different islands in the Galapagos. The images below show two species of finches he observed.


On island X, he saw both species of finches. On island Y, he only saw the finch on the right. Based on these observations, what is the most likely conclusion Darwin would have made?

Answers

Answer:

On island y the other finch cant eat the food do to the shape and hardness of his beak therefor he would not survive

Explanation:

Answer:

On island y the other finch cant eat the food do to the shape and hardness of his beak therefor he would not survive.

Explanation:

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2 Points
Humans have become dominant in the last ____
_ years.
O
A. 65 million
O
B. 1.8 billion
O
C. 1 million
O
D. 2,000
€ PREVIOUS​

Answers

Did you mean 200,000?

Explanation:

Humans have domimated the planet for the last 200,000 years.

Answer: 1 million

Explanation: 200,000 is wrong!!

5. A s-shaped curve is shown when a period of growth is followed by a leveling off as the
population approaches carrying capacity. True or false

Answers

Answer:

population expansion decreases as resources become scarce, leveling off when the carrying capacity of the environment is reached, resulting in an S-shaped curve.

Explanation:

Give the order for the life cycle of the hydrozoan, Obelia, starting with the reproductive polyp form. Answers Selected Answer Growth into mature polyp 1. Reproductive polyps form. Cells grow into Planula. 2. Growth into mature polyp Reproductive polyps form. 3. Medusa buds. Medusa buds. 4. Meiosis occurs. Meiosis occurs. 5. Fertilization occurs. Fertilization occurs. 6. Cells grow into Planula.

Answers

Answer:

3. Medusa buttons. Medusa buttons.

4. Meiosis occurs. Meiosis occurs.

5. Fertilization takes place. Fertilization takes place.

6. The cells grow in Planula.

1. Form of reproductive polyps.

2. Growth in mature polyp Form of reproductive polyps.

Explanation:

The Obelia life cycle begins when two jellyfish buttons of opposite sexes undergo meiosis forming the female and male gametes. The male gamete will fertilize the female gamete, forming a zygote. The cells of the zygote will grow into a structure called Planula that will develop and form a mature popolis (a structure that looks like a stem with roots that hold it to the rocky part of the ocean), the mature propolis means that it is able to reproduce itself. if so, it will form reproductive propolis.

Question:

Give the order for the life cycle of the hydrozoan, Obelia, starting with the reproductive polyp form.

1. Reproductive polyps form.

2. Growth into mature polyp Reproductive polyps form.

3. Medusa buds.

4. Meiosis occurs.

5. Fertilization occurs.

6. Cells grow into Planula.

Answer:

The order for the lifecycle of the hydrozoan - Obelia starting from the reproductive polyp form is given below:

3. From Reproductive form of the Polyph, it sheds the Medusa buds. The medusa stage of Obelia species is common in coastal and offshore plankton around the world. The blastostyles of the Polyph are the reproductive zooids as they reproduce asexually to give rise to numerous lateral buds called medusa buds or gonophores. These buds develop into third type of zooids of the colony called medusae.

5 After medusa happens, Fertilisation occurs:   Sometimes the flagellated sperms swim about in water and fertilize the ova present in female medusae. The fertilisation takes place in water. As medusa is the motile form, it performs two important functions for the colony namely reproduction and dispersal of the gametes.  

4. After fertilisation then Meiosis starts to happen. Meiosis is a process where a single cell divides twice to produce four cells containing half the original amount of genetic information. These cells are our sex cells – sperm in males, eggs in females. During meiosis one cell divides twice to form four daughter cells.

6. After meiosis, cells grow into Planula.

 The embryo is set free from the egg membrane as a free-swimming larva called the planula. The larva swims about for some time and brings about wide distribution of the species.    

After the free-swimming life the planula larva loses its cilia and settles down on the bottom of the sea, gets attached to the substratum by its broader end and undergoes metamorphosis.

1. Reproductive Polyps begin to form.

2.  Growth into mature polyp Reproductive polyps form: the Obelia achieves full maturity and ready for the cycle all over again.

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discuss the genetic diagram to show a cross between a man heterozygous for brown eyes (Bb) and a woman with blue eyes (bb)

Answers

You should use a Punnett Square for this question
The Punnett square predicts the offspring of two parents (two alleles). In this case you have brown eyes (Bb) and blue eyes (bb)
In the four boxes you should have Bb, Bb, bb and bb (50% chance of offspring with blue eyes and 50% chance of offspring with brown eyes).
The genotypes ratio will be 2Bb:2bb
And the phenotypic ratio will be 2 Brown : 2 Blue

SOMEONE PLEASE HELP THIS IS FOR SCIENCE
Planet B has a tilt of 45 degrees. What seasonal changes would be expected on this planet Group of answer choices

A. Extreme temperature changes between seasons

B. Little to no change in temperatures between seasons

C. Seasonal changes along the equator only

D. Seasonal changes at the poles only

Answers

Answer:

A. extreme temperature changes between seasons

A young entomologist is trying to increase body hairs in Drosophila. His original population has a mean of 7.5 hairs, and he selects flies with a mean of 10 hairs to inter-mate and produce his next generation. The mean number of hairs in the resulting population was 9.

1. What is the narrow-sense heritability (h2) for number of body hairs in this Drosophila population (show your work)?

2. What would have been the mean number of body hairs in the next population if she had selected individuals with a mean of 8.5 hairs?

3. If she wanted a mean of 10 hairs in the progeny, what should have been the mean number of hairs in the individuals selected as parents?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

1) homologous features:

these are the features or structures that have a similar structure in several different organisms but function in a unique way in all of them. these structures indicate anatomical similarities as well as the same ancestry of different organisms. for example, the forelimb of birds, humans, dogs, and whales, perform different functions in all these organisms. but when we analyze the layout of bones or layout of the arrangement, we find that it is very similar across all of them. this indicates that, the ancestor of all these organisms was, but with the passage of time when organism dispersed, and environmental conditions changed, it was evolved into different organisms as per favorable conditions.

2) molecular biology:

as we know that all living organisms are a compilation of billions and trillions of unique biological molecules, that group in a unique fashion to constitute the whole organism. interestingly, some biological molecules and the process of their formation can provide sound evidences of evolution. for example, DNA, a sequence of nucleotides in DNA, amino acids, the process of transcription, translation, etc.

the study of evolution through molecular uniformity has led to the foundation of a novel branch of evolution called phylogenetics. the sequence of nucleotides in DNA is used to find the best possible ancestor of any organism. for example, phylogenetic analysis has found that the origin of eukaryotes is from prokaryotes over the period of time.

3) fossil records:

fossils are the preserved remains of previously living organisms or their traces, dating from the distant past. this doesn't mean that fossils represent the complete skeleton of an organism because many organisms don't even fossilize and those who fossilize don't have complete remains. nonetheless, the fossils that humans have collected offer unique insights into evolution over long timescales. for example, the study of horse fossils has enabled the scientists to reconstruct a large, branching "family tree" for horses and their now-extinct relatives.

With the use of site-directed mutagenesis, hemoglobin has been prepared in which the proximal histidine residues in both alpha and the beta subunits have been replaced by glycine. The imidazole ring from the histidine residue can be replaced by adding free imidazole in solution. a) Would you expect this modified Hb with free imidazole to exhibit oxygen binding? Why or why not? b)Would you expect this modified hemoglobin to show cooperativity in oxygen binding? Why or why not?

Answers

Answer:

a) No, because the heme group that has the ability to bind oxygen is bound via the imidazole ring of a histidine residue  

b) The imidazole in solution bind to the heme group and then facilitates its binding to oxygen; however, protein does not have the proximal histidine residues which are capable of triggering conformational changes in the folded protein structure


Los Angeles has a serious problem with smog, particularly photochemical smog. All of these EXCEPT which contributes to the excessive smog in the Los Angeles area?

Answers

Answer:

A) Longitude of the city

Explanation:

After ovulation, ___1___ acts on the remaining follicle cells to promote the development of the ___ 2___ , which produces estrogen and large amounts of ____3____ , which then causes the endometirum to become ____4____ in preparation for ____5____ should fertilization of the ovum occur. If the ovum is not fertilized the corpus luteum ____ 6____ resulting in a drop of estrogen and progesterone levels. The endometrium then sloughs off in the ____7____ . The drop in estrogen and progesterone removes the ____ 8_____ and the GnRH is produced by the _____9____ and the cycle beings again.

Answers

Answer:

The options include

hypothalamus

negative feedback inhibition

menstruations flow

degenerates

Progastrin

LH

nutritive and receptive

corpus luteum

implantation

Explanation:

1)LH (Luteinizing Hormone )

2)CORPUS LUTEUM

3)PROGASTRIN

4)NUTRITIVE AND RECEPTIVE 5)IMPLANTATION

6)DEGENERATES

7) MENSTRUATION FLOW

8)NEGATIVE FEEDBACK INHIBITION

9) HYPOTHALAMUS

You have made random-sequence synthetic RNA molecules that contains only A and G, and which contain 5 times as much A as G. You use these RNAs to perform in vitro translation. How many different amino acids would you expect to find in the resulting polypeptides? And at what frequency would you expect to find Glutamic acid (Glu) in the resulting polypeptides?

Answers

The resulting polypeptide will contains Glycine, arginine ,lysine , and glutamic acid. The probabilities to form a glutamic acid in the coding sequence is 2/9 for each codon.

Genetic code:

It is a three letter code of base pairs in the nucleic acid that code for an specific amino acid.

Here, mRNA is made up of only A and G. Nine code are possible in a mRNA sequence that contains only A and G.

 

GGC, GGA and GGG  code for Glycine.   AGA and AGG code for Arginine.AAA and AAG  code for Lysine.GAA and GAG  code for Glutamic acid.  

 

Therefore, the resulting polypeptide will contains Glycine, arginine ,lysine , and glutamic acid. The probabilities to form a glutamic acid in the coding sequence is 2/9 for each codon.

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Final answer:

In the resulting polypeptides from the random-sequence synthetic RNA molecules, we can expect to find a variety of amino acids. The number of different amino acids will depend on the specific codons present in the RNA. The frequency of Glutamic acid (Glu) will be higher due to the higher frequency of the codon GAA.

Explanation:

In this case, we have made random-sequence synthetic RNA molecules that contain only A and G, with 5 times as much A as G. In terms of translating these RNAs into polypeptides, we can expect to find a variety of amino acids in the resulting polypeptides. However, the frequency of each amino acid will depend on the specific codons that are present in the RNA.

Since there are 61 codons that specify the addition of an amino acid to the polypeptide chain and 3 codons that specify termination, we can expect to find a maximum of 61 different amino acids in the resulting polypeptides. However, it is important to note that some of these codons may code for the same amino acid, so the actual number of different amino acids may be lower.

As for the frequency of Glutamic acid (Glu) in the resulting polypeptides, it will depend on the specific codons present in the RNA. Glutamic acid is encoded by the codons GAA and GAG. Since we have made random-sequence RNA molecules with 5 times as much A as G, we can expect a higher frequency of the codon GAA, and thus a higher frequency of Glutamic acid in the resulting polypeptides.

Infectious agents could be organisms or viruses. You observe a case of conjunctivitis. Thisillness could be caused by an organism (Chlamydia trachomatis) or by Adenovirus.Both of these etiologic agents are obligate intracellular pathogens. Explain why one is a virus the other one is not by applying the criteria suggested by AndreLwof . Discuss how the two pathogens differ at each point covered in le

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

Conjunctivitis can be caused by either a bacteria or a virus or even sometimes due to allergic reactions.

According to Andrelwof, viruses are classified based

i. on nature of DNA or RNA,

ii. nature of nucleocapsid ,

iii. symmetry of nucleocapsid,

iv. diameter of nucleocapsid with helical symmetry

So Chlamydia trachomatis is a bacteria, they have a nucleocapsid. They are just a single cell. But Adenovirus is a virus, that has a head and tail, contains nucleocapsid.

Chlamydia is Gram negative obligate intracellular pathogen. They can spread through direct or indirect contact through fomites, hand, contaminated towels. They affect both the eyes and symptoms include itching, irritation, discharge, swelling of eyelids, photophobia, and pain.

Laboratory diagnosis can be done by direct detection of inclusion bodies with Giemsa staining of conjunctival smears.

Adenoviruses are the most important and most frequent cause of follicular epidemic keratoconjunctivitis . The major mode of transmission is by direct inoculation by fingers. symptoms include itching, tearing, burning and foreign body sensation as well as photophobia.

the best method for diagnosis is the quantitative real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and Enzyme immunoassays which are a cheaper and faster option with a high sensitivity.

A batch culture of E. coli was initiated with a medium containing 10 g/L of glucose, 2 g/L of ammonia, and 0.1 g/L of cells. At the end of culture, 0.1 g/L of glucose remained in the medium. A total of 5.1 g/L of E. coli were recovered. The elemental composition of the cells was determined to be (by mass) 53% C, 7.3% H, 12.0% N, and 19.0% O, with the remaining balance being ashes.
a) Calculate the yield (by mass) of biomass based on glucose and nitrogen.
b) Write down the stoichiometric equation for biomass formation from glucose and ammonia.
c) Assume all the carbon that was not incorporated into biomass was used for energy generation and was completely oxidized to carbon dioxide. Also, assume that each mole of glucose produces 38 moles of ATP when completely oxidized to carbon dioxide. Calculate the biomass yield coefficient based on ATP.

Answers

Answer:

c

Explanation:

The most plausible evidence that the development of cancer is a multistep process can be:

A) development of a cancer as a result of activation of a single oncogene by any of a variety of mechanisms

B) usual occurrence of retinoblastoma at a young age

C) fact that proto-oncogenes are widely conserved in evolution

D) observation that certain tumor-suppressor genes and oncogenes are involved in a sequential manner in the development of colon cancer

Answers

Answer:

D) observation that certain tumor-suppressor genes and oncogenes are involved in a sequential manner in the development of colon cancer

Explanation:

Cancer is defined as the abnormal growth of cells of the body. These cells multiply/replicate without control thereby forming a lump or tumor.

Cancer growth has 5 stages and they go though different multi level steps.Different finding backs this up and it includes observation about certain tumor-suppressor genes and oncogenes being involved in a sequential manner in the development of colon cancer.

Answer:

option d: observation that certain tumor-suppressor genes and oncogenes are involved in a sequential manner in the development of colon cancer

Explanation:

Cancer is known to be a form of  genetic disease/ailment that occurs as a result of mutation (one to many). the mutations embedded in the cell undergoes several cellular multiplication which therefor lead to the large growth of the size of tumor, malignant and  disorganization.

The development of cancer undergoes a multi-step process. due to the fact that the cells of the human/ animal is abnormal in in it cancerous growth, they gain new potentials and capabilities. The cells undergoes division thereby affecting the closeby normal cells . some cancers do have similar characteristics while other cancers most times has different steps,  

In Escherichia coli (E. coli), the tryptophan operon encodes structural genes, including trpC, trpB, and trpA, that encode the tryptophan synthetase protein complex. A repressor protein encoded by the trpR gene regulates the trp operon. In the presence of high levels of tryptophan, tryptophan molecules bind the repressor protein and allow the repressor to recognize and bind to the operator, called trpO, and repress the expression of the structural tryptophan synthetase genes. In the absence of tryptophan, the repressor is unable to bind the operator and gene expression can occur. Assume any minus symbol represents a null mutant. What is the type of expression of each functional structural gene for the three bacterial strains?

Answers

The type of expression of each functional structural gene for the three bacterial strains is as follows:

Strain trpC trpB trpA

Wild type On On On

trpR- Off On On

trpO- On On On

Wild type: The trpR gene and trpO operator are both functional, so the trp operon is regulated by the presence of tryptophan. In the presence of high levels of tryptophan, the trp repressor will bind to the trpO operator and repress the expression of the structural tryptophan synthetase genes. In the absence of tryptophan, the trp repressor will not be able to bind to the trpO operator, and the structural tryptophan synthetase genes will be expressed.

trpR-: The trpR gene is mutated, so the trp repressor protein is not produced. This means that the trp operon is not regulated by the presence of tryptophan, and the structural tryptophan synthetase genes will always be expressed.

trpO-: The trpO operator is mutated, so the trp repressor protein cannot bind to it. This means that the trp operon is not regulated by the presence of tryptophan, and the structural tryptophan synthetase genes will always be expressed.

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Final answer:

The trp operon in E. coli is a repressible operon. It is regulated through a negative feedback mechanism where the accumulation of tryptophan, the end product, leads to the repression of its further production.

Explanation:

In Escherichia coli (E. coli), the tryptophan operon, known as the trp operon, is a fundamental mechanism of gene regulation. It encodes structural genes, including trpC, trpB, and trpA, which contribute to the tryptophan synthetase protein complex. The expression of these genes is regulated by a repressor protein encoded by the trpR gene. When levels of tryptophan are high, tryptophan molecules bind to the repressor, allowing it to recognize and attach to the operator region, called trpO, and subsequently, inhibiting the expression of the structural genes. However, in the absence of tryptophan, the repressor does not bind to the operator region, allowing for gene expression to occur.

This type of operon system is termed a repressible operon, as the regulatory gene produces a repressor that can bind to the operator and prevent transcription of the structural genes. Thus, trp operon regulation is dependent on the negative feedback mechanism, where an abundance of the end product (tryptophan) leads to the repression of further production.

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An ecosystem generally requires solar energy, nutrients, decomposers, consumers and ____. Select one: a. conformers b. decontaminators c. directors d. producers e. concentrators

Answers

Answer:

Producers

Explanation:

They are the food for the consumers.

Answer:

D. Producers

Explanation:

They are an important link in the ecosystem. They produce food by photosynthetic processes through the help of soil nutrients, sunlight(solar energy) and Carbon dioxide.

The food they produce are eaten by the consumers such as animals and other small organisms. The animals/ organisms also serve as food for larger animals(carnivores)e.g lion, whale, tiger and omnivores e.g. Man

Which of the following describes respiration?
The process of using carbohydrates and oxygen for energy
The process of using sunlight to produce carbohydrates
The process of moving water through the plant
The process of absorbing water through the leaves

Answers

Answer:

process of using carbohydrates and oxygen for energy

Answer:

The process of using carbohydrates and oxygen for energy

Explanation:

Respiration is the process in which cells in organisms make use of oxygen and glucose to produce energy. Respiration is a biochemical process whose reactant is oxygen and glucose and the output is ATP(ENERGY), carbondioxide and water.

6O2+C6H1206----6CO2+6H20+ATP

We have types of cellular respiration Aerobic respiration and anearobic respiration.

Aerobic respiration takes place in the presence of oxygen while anaerobic takes place in the absent of oxygen. Product of anerobic is ethanol,Atp and CO2.

The lab you work in has discovered a previously unidentified extracellular signal molecule called QGF, a 75,000-dalton protein. You add purified QGF to different types of cells to determine its effect on these cells. When you add QGF to heart muscle cells, you observe an increase in cell contraction. When you add it to fibroblasts, they undergo cell division. When you add it to nerve cells, they die. When you add it to glial cells, you do not see any effect on cell division or survival.

A. How can the same signaling molecule cause such diverse affects? Why do the glial cells not respond at all?

B. Devise a signaling pathway that QGF could use to increase contractions in in the heart. (Hint: Ca2+ is very important for muscle contraction)

C. Devise a signaling pathway that QGF could use to lead to apoptosis of nerve cells.

D. Devise a signaling pathway that QGF could use to induce cell division in the fibroblasts?

Answers

Answer:

A- It is because said molecule presents binding to different receptors and in the case of glia cells it does not present an answer because they do not have a specific receptor for said molecule.

b-in the case of muscle, this molecule could bind to calcium channels or to the REL itself, generating the opening of said channels or the release of calcium found in REL. In this way, by increasing the intracellular concentration of calcium, it activates the actin head, causing the topoisomerase to move and promoting binding with myosin. Once the activated actin will perform a "rowing" movement to generate the drag of the myosin and the union of the Z lines.

c-In the process of neuronal apoptosis, the cell itself generates biochemical signals (either by positive induction in which the receptors and receptors of the membrane bind to certain substances, or by negative or mitochondrial induction in which the ability to suppress certain substances is lost. substances that would generate the activity of apoptotic enzymes) that cause them to condense and alter the cytoplasm, the cell membrane, the cell nucleus to collapse and DNA to fragment. Finally, the microglial cells end up phagocytizing and eliminating the remains of the dead neurons, so that they do not generate interference for the normative functioning of the brain.

d- This molecule could fulfill a path similar or similar to that of growth factors, that is how they are associated with heparan sulfate of the extracellular matrix, which serves as a warehouse for inactive factors. FCFs contribute to different types of responses, such as wound healing, hematopoiesis, angiogenesis, or embryonic development

Explanation:

Regarding the explanation, it is important to keep in mind that this molecule can play a role both in the nervous system and in other organs, that is why in case it is sought that it does not have this apoptotic effect on neurons, some coarse, macro compound that allows the blood-brain barrier to not allow passage.

The European model was the first weather model to correctly predict that Hurricane Sandy would _____, while the American model's early prediction was that Hurricane Sandy would _____.


Choices:

Weakening Before Heading South

Turn Left Towards the Coast

Strengthen Before Moving Away from shore

Turn Right and Head Out to Sea

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is "Turn Left Towards the Coast; Turn Right and Head Out to Sea".

Explanation:

During the Hurricane Sandy disaster of 2012, the European model was famous for predicting that Hurricane Sandy would turn left towards the coast, which was what happened on October 29. This was a disaster for the United States because the hurricane hit the East Coast. The American model had an opposite prediction, it predicted that the Hurricane Sandy would turn right and head out to sea.

The correct answer is "Turn Left Towards the Coast; Turn Right and Head Out to Sea".

The following information should be considered:

At the time of the Hurricane Sandy disaster of 2012, the European model was famous for estimating that Hurricane Sandy would turn left towards the coast, that was happened on October 29. This developed the disaster for the United States since hurricane hit the East Coast. The American model had an inverse estimation it predicted that the Hurricane Sandy would turn right and head out to sea.

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Explain the importance of plasma membranes and name 3 functions of membrane.

Answers

Answer:

Explanation: plasma membranes are the wall that surround the cell i.e the outer covering . They act as a protective covering.

Plasma members control exchange of material between the cell and environment.

Cell are kept in shape by plasma membrane, they are sites for Chemical reaction and cellular process and activities such as conductivity.

Membrane help to remove toxins out of the cell

They contain receptors and permit the flow of Ion and other molecules between cells.

They separate metabolism activities that are not compatible in body organelles.

A transmembrane protein has the following properties: it has two binding sites, one for solute A and one for solute B. the protein can undergo a conformational change to switch between two states: either both binding sites are exposed exclusively on one side of the membrane, or both are exposed exclusively on the other side of the membrane. The protein can switch between the two conformational states only if both binding sites are occupied or if both binding sites are empty, but cannot switch if only one binding site is occupied.

A. What kind of a transporter do these properties define?

B. Do you need to specify any additional properties to turn this protein into a transporter that couples the movement of solute A up its concentration gradient to the movement of solute B down its electrochemical gradient?

Answers

Answer:  

Explanation:

a) A symporter is simply known as an integral protein membrane that helps in the movement of two or more different molecules or ions across a phospholipid membrane.

b) The glucose–Na+ symport protein uses the electrochemical Na+ gradient to drive  the import of glucose.

The four gas giants are

(Planets should be in correct sequence)

A. Jupiter, Saturn, Mars and Neptune

B. Jupiter, Neptune, Saturn, and Uranus

C. Mercury, Jupiter, Mars and Earth

D. Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune

Answers

Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune
D. Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune
All the outer planets are gas giants; the outer planets start with Jupiter because it is after the asteroid belt.

Just remember the saying:
My Very Elegant Mother Just Served Us Nine Pizzas

This corresponds to the order of the planets:
Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Pluto

how do you classify organisms as eukaryotes?

Answers

Answer:

A eukaryote is an organism with complex cells, or a single cell with a complex structures. In these cells the genetic material is organized into chromosomes in the cell nucleus. Animals, plants, algae and fungi are all eukaryotes. There are also eukaryotes amongst single-celled protists.

Answer: Eukaryotic cells contain membrane-bound organelles, such as the nucleus, while prokaryotic cells do not

Explanation: so if cells contain membrane-bound organelles in the organism then their classified as eukaryotes

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