Answer: The partially dislocated radial head is documented as a "Subluxation."
Explanation:
Any type of partial dislocation is referred to as a subluxation. This can occur in a joint and even in an organ in the body. It is considered as structural displacement. A simple x-ray can diagnosis when a subluxation occurs. In the case listed above, it was in the shoulder. Symptoms of subluxation are visible swelling, pain in the area, unable to move the joint, and/or numbness and tingling. The subluxation may also be visible by a deformity in the shoulder area. Many times this can be fixed by using a splint, resting and using ice on the dislocated area, and elevating the arm. In some cases, surgery may be necessary, especially, if it occurs in the back.
A partially dislocated radial head in a child is known as a nursemaid's elbow or radial head subluxation, typically treated with a simple manipulation to realign the joint.
The partially dislocated radial head in a child that you've described is documented as a nursemaid's elbow or radial head subluxation. This is a common injury among young children, often resulting from a sudden pull on the extended and pronated arm, as might happen when an adult lifts or swings a child by the arms. The radial head slips partially out of the ligament that holds it in place, causing pain and a refusal to use the arm. Proper diagnosis and treatment usually involve a simple manipulation technique by a healthcare provider to reduce the subluxation and relieve discomfort.
Anya was taking some medicine that upset her stomach. Later that day, when she drank orange juice, she became violently ill. Since then, Anya feels sick to her stomach if she even thinks about orange juice. One day when Anya is out with friends, the waitress puts a glass of grapefruit juice near her. Anya immediately feels sick to her stomach. Anya's nausea in response to the grapefruit juice is most likely the result of
Answer:
stimulus generalization
Explanation:
In stimulus generalization, a stimulus acquires control over a response due to reinforcement in the presence of a similar but different stimulus. Frequently, generalization depends on elements common to two or more stimuli. An example of stimulus generalization is what is happening to Anya. When Anya drank orange juice (stimulation) she felt sick (response), so when she saw grapefruit juice, which is a stimulus very similar to orange juice, she felt sick.
Anya's reaction to grapefruit juice exemplifies how taste aversion can be quickly learned and generalized based on a previous negative experience with a related food item.
Anya's nausea in response to the grapefruit juice is most likely the result of taste aversion conditioning.
This phenomenon occurs when an individual associates a specific taste or smell with a negative experience, such as illness or nausea, even if the food or drink consumed was not the actual cause of the sickness.
Conditioning: After her experience with illness following the consumption of orange juice, her brain began to link that flavor with nausea.
Generalization: When Anya encounters grapefruit juice, which is similar in taste and smell to orange juice, her brain triggers a similar response.
Evolutionary Perspective: This conditioned aversion serves an important protective function.
Complete Questions: Anya was taking some medicine that upset her stomach. Later that day, when she drank orange juice, she became violently ill. Since then, Anya feels sick to her stomach if she even thinks about orange juice. One day when Anya is out with friends, the waitress puts a glass of grapefruit juice near her. Anya immediately feels sick to her stomach. Anya's nausea in response to the grapefruit juice is most likely the result of Anya's nausea in response to the grapefruit juice is most likely the result of what psychological or physiological phenomenon?
DeWayne has decided to seek psychotherapy for some personal difficulties he has been having. While on the telephone with one possible clinician, he asks her to describe the kind of treatment approach that she uses with clients. "I don’t limit myself to a single theory or approach," the therapist answers. "Instead I operate in a(n) _________ fashion, integrating various treatment approaches based on the specific needs of each client."
Answer:
eclectic
Explanation:
According to my research on the different types of psychological approaches, I can say that based on the information provided within the question Dewayne seems to be operating in an eclectic fashion. Eclecticism is an approach (like mentioned in the question) that instead of staying on a strict treatment or set of assumptions, it integrates different treatment approaches based on many theories, styles, and ideas in order to gain a better understanding of something and find the best possible solution.
I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.
Monica is extremely concerned about her weight, she is influenced by TV shows and magazines that portray women with supposedly good figures, and she has a flawed perception of most women's actual and ideal weight. These symptoms are a likely cause of which of the following disorders?
a) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
b) Anxiety disorder
c) Anorexia nervosa
d) Binge eating
Answer:
c) Anorexia nervosa
Explanation:
Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder that results from over-concern about body weight and can cause serious physical problems. The person looks in the mirror and, although extremely thin, sees himself as obese. Afraid of further fattening, he overdoes physical activity, fasting, vomiting, taking laxatives and diuretics. Monica feels extremely worried about her weight and has a wrong view of the ideal weight in herself and in other women, this shows that she may be suffering from anorexia nervosa.
The United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) defines ______ as secure access to an appropriately nutritious diet (i.e., protein, carbohydrate, fat, vitamins, minerals, and water), coupled with a sanitary environment and adequate health services and care to ensure a healthy and active life for all household members.
Answer:
Nutrition security
Explanation:
Nutrition security means a state in which all people enjoy in a timely and permanent way , of an economic, social and physical access to food. This term is a determinant of health which can lead to decisions to improve and maintain the health of populations.
For the nutrition security can be given, it is necessary to have several things called assessment, policy and programming, and capacity building.
Dr. Fernandez was interested in the effects of caffeine on reaction time. After administering various doses of caffeine to different participants, she tested participants’ reaction times. This is an example of ________ research.
Answer:
experimental
Explanation:
According to my research on different research methodology, I can say that based on the information provided within the question this is an example of experimental research. This refers to a research approach where you do not know what the results will be so the researcher creates a series of controlled tests in order to gather data and come to a certain conclusion.
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I seek to understand the principles whereby a person's ability to think, speak, perceive, and learn changes as they go through their life span. This statement identifies one as a _______ psychologist.
Answer:
developmental
Explanation:
According to my research on studies conducted by various psychologists, I can say that based on the information provided within the question this statement identifies one as a developmental psychologists. This is the scientific study of how and why human individuals develop over the course of their lives from birth to death.
I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.
A developmental psychologist examines the lifespan development, which includes changes in cognitive, emotional, and social aspects from birth to death. Pioneers like Jean Piaget and Erik Erikson provided foundational theories in developmental psychology, emphasizing the importance of understanding development through various life stages.
The statement you provided identifies one as a developmental psychologist. Developmental psychologists conduct research on the cognitive, emotional, and social changes that occur across the lifespan.
They examine lifespan development, which involves the exploration of biological, cognitive, and psychosocial changes and constancies that occur from conception to death. This field is based on a theoretical perspective, which includes the idea that development can be a lifelong process and intersects physical, cognitive, and psychosocial domains.
Notable figures who have contributed to this scientific discipline include Jean Piaget, known for his theories on cognitive development through various life stages. His concepts of assimilation, accommodation, and schema development are foundational in understanding how children integrate new knowledge.
Development is viewed as a series of stages by some psychologists, with Piaget and Erik Erikson being prominent stage theorists. Other researchers like Sigmund Freud and Lawrence Kohlberg offered additional perspectives on psychosexual and moral development, respectively.
The increasing aging population has made it even more crucial to extend this research beyond early development to later stages of life, reflecting the growing number of older adults in societies. In summary, developmental psychology is an interdisciplinary field that addresses how we evolve over our lifetimes, providing vital insights into human growth.
Your grandmother is quite upset. She is 82 years old and has been having some serious vision problems. You have suggested quite a few times that she needs to see her doctor. She finally went and she was told that she has cataracts. She feels like she is the only one her age that does. What percentage of adults her age have cataracts?
Answer:
50%
Explanation:
Cataract is an eye injury that strikes and opacifies the lens (a lens behind the iris whose transparency allows light rays to pass through it and reach the retina to form the image), which compromises vision. The evolution is usually slow, and the disease can affect first one eye and only later the other. In short, cataract is an eye injury that makes the lens opaque and blurs the vision, as if there was a mist in front of the eyes. Although it can occur at any age, cataracts are very rare in young people and very common in older people. Cataract affects 50% of the population over 80 years of age.
In a study of the effect of meditation on stress, participants were randomly assigned to two conditions: one in which they received meditation instruction and the other in which they received instruction in what they thought were meditation practices. The latter group of participants is the _____ group.
Answer:
The correct answer is - placebo-controlled.
Explanation:
A placebo-controlled group is a group of individual that receives an inactive medicine or substance, placebo, to prove research while other groups get real medication or medical therapy.
Placebo-controlled studies are related to test medical therapy. It is developed especially to have no effect and just to create a placebo effect.
Thus, the correct answer is - the placebo-controlled.
You are involved in a skateboarding incident. Your feet left the board, and you hit your head on the pavement. You were wearing a helmet, but you lost consciousness for about two minutes. When you came to, you began vomiting and were slurring your speech. Which facility should you visit to treat your injuries? A. Research center B. Emergency room C. General practice D. Clinic
Answer:
B
Explanation:
You are on a diet and eating less than 50 grams of carbohydrate per day. The claim made in the diet educational materials is that carbohydrate is the main culprit in being overweight, so it must be restricted. Which of the following will happen as a result of this low carbohydrate diet?
a. Ketones will be produced from partial protein metabolism to be used for energy.
b. Fat will be broken down and used as the exclusive fuel, with little or no fat loss and little health risk.
c. Proteins in muscles, heart, and other vital organs will be broken down into amino acids to make needed glucose, over time weakening the muscles and organs.
d. Fat will not be broken down or effected.
Answer:
The correct answer is option C.
Explanation:
Low carbohydrate diets cause muscle loss that can lose the metabolism of an individual and can lead to more fat storage in the body. If an individual gets low carbs his body starts breaking fat but going below a specific limit of carbohydrate intake can cause hearing, organ and muscle weakening as the protein of these organs begins to breakdown to amino acids to provide much-needed glucose.
Carbohydrate has a sparring effect on the proteins that limit the muscle catabolism process which means it reduces the breakdown of protein into amino acid so low carbohydrate disease can cause the weakening of these muscles and organs.
Thus, the correct answer is option C.
Final answer:
On a low carbohydrate diet, initial energy is provided by stored glycogen. As this is depleted, fat is broken down for energy, causing ketone production. Prolonged carbohydrate restriction can lead to protein breakdown for gluconeogenesis, which can weaken muscles and organs.
Explanation:
If you are on a low carbohydrate diet consuming less than 50 grams of carbs per day, several physiological changes can occur in your body. Initially, your body will utilize stored glycogen for energy. After glycogen stores are depleted, your body will begin to break down fat for energy, leading to the production of ketones. These ketones can be used by your heart and other organs as an alternative energy source.
As the low carbohydrate state persists, fatty acids are increasingly relied upon for energy, leading to further ketone production. In the absence of sufficient carbohydrates, the body can also convert amino acids from proteins into glucose through a process called gluconeogenesis. Initially, this will protect muscle mass, but if prolonged, the body may begin breaking down organ and muscle tissue for amino acids to sustain glucose production, which can lead to muscle wasting.
Therefore, the most likely option from the ones provided is that proteins in muscles, heart, and other vital organs will be broken down into amino acids to make needed glucose, potentially weakening muscles and organs over time (option c).
Three-year-old Kevin was flying in a plane for the first time. As the plane descended for its landing, Kevin became very excited at all the toy houses and cars he saw, and he couldn’t wait for the plane to land so he could play with the toys. Kevin’s misinterpretation of the true size of the houses and cars the plane passed over shows that he is still not fully utilizing
a. perceptual constancy.b. linear perspective.c. binocular depth cues.d. visual accommodation.
Answer:
a. perceptual constancy.
Explanation:
Perceptual constancy is the name that neuroscientists assign to the specific set of perceptive rules a child must acquire to make sense of the physical world around him. When you watch a person walk away, the projection of the person on your retina decreases. It has not decreased in size, we only know that it has moved away, this is called constancy of size. Other constants include the ability to recognize that the shapes of objects are the same, despite the different angles from which they can be viewed, called the shape constancy, and the ability to recognize that colors are constant, even as light or light change. shadow over them, called the color constancy. Taken together, constants fit into the broader concept, the concept of object constancy, which is the recognition that objects remain the same despite appearing to change in some ways. Constances develop from the first five weeks and are fully developed at approximately 4 years.
Your professor directs a child and adolescent clinic that specializes in shaping behavior through rewards and consequences. Which of the following branches of psychology does this clinic support?
a. humanistic psychologyb. functionalismc. psychoanalysisd. behaviorism
Answer:
The answer is d. behaviorism.
Researchers have found that men with a repressive coping style tend to have a particularly sharp rise in blood pressure and heart rate when they are stressed. This may lead to the development of psychophysiological disorders in which the cause was primarily:
Answer:
trying to be good
Explanation:
Men with a repressive coping style who experience chronic or excessive stress may have sharp increases in blood pressure and heart rate, leading to psychophysiological disorders primarily caused by stress.
Researchers have found that men with a repressive coping style are inclined to have a significant increase in blood pressure and heart rate when stressed. This stress response, often seen as the fight-or-flight reaction, is driven by the activation of the Hypothalamic-Pituitary-Adrenal (HPA) axis. Such rises in blood pressure and heart rate can contribute to the prevalence of psychophysiological disorders where the primary cause is excessive and chronic stress.
For instance, frequent exposure to stressors, such as job strain, natural disasters, or marital conflict, has been linked to cardiovascular issues. When individuals experience strong negative emotions in response to daily stressors and respond to stress with hostility, they're more likely to encounter adverse health outcomes, including hypertension and heart disease.
It is crucial to note that stress reactions that consistently exceed normal ranges or chronic stress can lead to wear and tear on the body, similar to overusing a machine, increasing the risk of health problems related to stress, such as heart attacks.
The medical assistant is assisting the primary care provider during a client's annual health exam. Which statement will the medical assistant most likely hear the provider tell the client regarding smoking cessation?
a) "Within three months of quitting, an ex-smokers lung function begins to improve.
b) "Within five years of quitting, an ex-smoker's risk for heart disease is about the same as that of a lifelong nonsmoker."
c) "Within one day of quitting, an ex-smoker's risk for heart attack drops."
d) "Within one week of quitting, an ex-smoker's risk for heart disease is about the same as that of a lifelong nonsmoker."
Answer:
a) "Within three months of quitting, an ex-smokers lung function begins to improve.
Explanation:
Quitting smoking is one of the best health decisions you can make. In general, the whole organism benefits from the end of this addiction - and the lungs, directly impacted by each lit cigarette, are the first to avail themselves of the suspension. But reversing the "smoker" picture takes time, a lot of time.
Cigarette action is as serious a trigger for the body as its cessation brings quick benefits: Two days after quitting, the body is completely free of nicotine and carbon monoxide. And the nerves, responsible for smell and taste, revive - making food taste better, for example. By three months without tobacco, the lungs begin to improve, the sinuses will be cleaner, and breathing is clearly easier. But this is a crucial moment in the process when many people stop for good and others are tempted to return.
Which of the following is TRUE regarding CT exams of the spine?
1. Contrast is usually not administered to rule out a herniated disk.
2. Entire thoracic spine is not routinely scanned with transverse CT slices.
3. Sagittal and coronal images of an adult spine may not be directly collected from a CT scan.
Answer:
1.
Explanation:
1. To rule out an herniated disk usually an MRI is taken, nonetheless if CT scan is done, the radiation produced by this technique projects a detailed picture that is able to discriminate an herniated disc without the need of using contrast.
2. If the doctor needs an entire thoracic spine CT scan, the best projection is transverse or axial, in that way the spine can be seen from upwards to downwards in millimeter slices to check every detail and seek for any posible injury.
3. CT scan or computerized tomography actually produce images for all the projections, including Sagital and Coronal images, as the scanner emits beams through the body and the whole part that is being scanned is radiated, then the images can be reconstructed in a 3D cross sectional picture, giving us the view that we wanted to see.
Regarding CT exams of the spine, contrast is often not used to check for herniated disks, the entire thoracic spine is not routinely scanned with transverse slices, and sagittal and coronal images are typically reconstructed from transverse images rather than being directly collected.
Explanation:The following are true regarding CT exams of the spine:
Contrast is usually not administered to rule out a herniated disk. CT scans of the spine can without contrast can to show problems with the bones and disks, including fractures or herniated disks.The entire thoracic spine is not routinely scanned with transverse CT slices. Frequently, specific sections of the spine are scanned based on the patient symptoms or the area suspected of injury or disease. The exact approach depends on the reason for the exam and the patient's medical history.It is true that sagittal and coronal images of an adult spine may not be directly collected from a CT scan. Transverse slices are usually taken in CT, and if sagittal or coronal images are needed, they are typically reconstructed from the transverse images with computer software.Learn more about CT exams of the spine here:https://brainly.com/question/13243650
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Which statement about weight control is false? A. Exercise helps to control our weight by burning calories. B. To lose weight, we need to burn more calories than we consume each day. C. People burn calories at different rates depending on metabolism. D. Weight control is the only benefit of exercise.
Answer:The correct answer will be (D) The primary
the benefit of exercise is not weight control but it is to maintain a good and stable health condition without succumbing to any disease.
Explanation:
Regular exercise has shown to improve health conditions, decrease blood pressure and fat levels of the body, improve insulin sensitivity as well as promote cardiovascular fitness.
There is a direct relationship between regular exercising and chronic diseases. With regular exercises, chronic diseases can be avoided.
Explanation:
Kim Carlton is a new fifth grade teacher. She is surprised to learn that her school has reduced the amount of recess for all students and eliminated time for physical education in the fifth grade curriculum. Kim believes that exercise and recess enhance academic performance. Based on national trends, why is her school (like many other schools in the U.S.) most likely reducing recess and physical education?
so Kim is a teacher right and they reducing more energy in the kids to make them tired inside. she also wants them to run and play around etc.
Answer:
Recess is important because it gives students a much needed brain break.
Explanation:
Blood leaves the right ventricle by passing through the
Answer:
open tricuspid valve
Explanation:
The right ventricle pumps oxygen-poor blood through the pulmonary valve into the main pulmonary artery, from there the blood flows through the right and left pulmonary arteries to the lungs.
What is Heart?The heart is defined as a fist-sized organ that pumps blood through the body which is made up of several layers of tissue. The heart is at the center of the circulatory system.
Blood comes from the body into the right atrium which goes into the right ventricle which is pushed into the pulmonary arteries to the lungs. After taking up oxygen, the blood travels back to the heart through the pulmonary veins into the left atrium, into the left ventricle and through the aorta to the tissues of the body.
Thus, the right ventricle pumps oxygen-poor blood through the pulmonary valve into the main pulmonary artery, from there the blood flows through the right and left pulmonary arteries to the lungs.
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When Marie Curie isolated uranium from pitchblende, she realized that the pitchblende was more radioactive than the uranium she had extracted. What did she conclude about her observations?
Answer:
The unknown radioactive element is present in pitchblende.
Explanation:
Marie Curie was the scientists that mainly worked on the radioactive element. She was the first scientist who won the noble prize in two different fields of science.
The pitchblende was the mineral sample that was noticed by Marie curie during her experiment. Pitchblende contains a more radioactive element that uranium and confirms that she had found a new element.The new element was polonium with hundred times more radioactive than uranium.
Thus, the answer is unknown radioactive element is present in pitchblende.
Final answer:
Marie Curie concluded that pitchblende contained other more radioactive elements than uranium after finding that it was more radioactive than the uranium extracted from it, leading to the discovery of polonium and radium.
Explanation:
When Marie Curie was studying pitchblende, she observed that the pitchblende was more radioactive than the uranium she extracted from it. This led her to conclude that there must be other, more radioactive elements present within the pitchblende. After thorough research and experimentation, she and her husband Pierre Curie eventually isolated two new elements: polonium, named after Marie's native country of Poland, and radium, named for its intense radioactivity. Radium, in particular, was found to be significantly more radioactive than uranium, highlighting that the high radioactivity of pitchblende was due to these impurities.
The value of human life and the economic implications of the loss of functional individuals in a society as measured by public health is:
a. Burden of disease
b. Birth rate
c. Life expectancy
d. Disability adjusted life years
___________ counseling is any counseling relationship in which the counselor and the client belong to different cultural groups, may hold different assumptions about social reality, and may subscribe to different world views.
Answer:
Multicultural counseling is any counseling relationship in which the counselor and the client belong to different cultural groups, may hold different assumptions about social reality, and may subscribe to different world views.
Explanation:
Multicultural counseling succeeds when the counselor has the competence, awareness, sensibility, and capacity to understand and respect his clients' different values, backgrounds, experiences, lifestyles, ways to appreciate the world, and opinions with empathy.
Fill in the Activity Log correctly using the following information. Jon performed exercise and the following information needs to be logged in to the log: He did vigorous cardiovascular exercise in the form of running for 15 minutes, and then he ended with a 6-minute cool-down. He started with a 5-minute warm-up. He did these activities on 1/20/10.
Answer:
DATE - 1/20/10
WARM UP - 5 minutes
COOL DOWN - 6 minutes
ACTIVITY - cardiovascular
DESCRIPTION - running for 15 minutes
INTENSITY LEVEL - vigorous
TOTAL TIME - 26 minutes
Explanation: EXACT ORDER OF JON
Activity Log for Jon - 1/20/10:
- Warm-up: 5 minutes
- Vigorous Cardiovascular Exercise (Running): 15 minutes
- Cool-down: 6 minutes
On January 20, 2010, Jon engaged in a well-rounded exercise routine, meticulously logged in his activity log. He commenced with a 5-minute warm-up, preparing his body for more intensive physical exertion. Subsequently, he embarked on vigorous cardiovascular exercise in the form of running for 15 minutes, enhancing his cardiovascular fitness and promoting endurance.
Recognizing the significance of recovery, Jon concluded his workout with a 6-minute cool-down session, allowing his heart rate and breathing to gradually return to baseline. This well-structured routine indicates Jon's commitment to a balanced approach to exercise, incorporating warm-up, main activity, and cool-down stages to optimize the benefits of his workout and minimize the risk of injury.
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Federal regulations regarding infection control in the workplace, as amended by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), make which of the following requirements?Hepatitis B immunizations must be made available to all hospital employees.Puncture-proof containers must be provided for all used needles.Follow-up care must be provided to any staff accidentally exposed to blood splash/needle stick.A. 1 onlyB. 1 and 2 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3
Answer:
The best answer to the question: Federal regulations regarding infection control in the workplace, as amended by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), make which of the following requirements?, would be, C: 2 and 3 only.
Explanation:
OSHA was born from the Occupational Safety and Health Act, which was signed into law by President Richard Nixon in 1970. Ever since then, this federal organization has established the legal framework under which companies, corporations, institutions and organizations where people are employed, must work regarding the safety and health of their employees. In the case of hospitals, given the known hazards to health that these places of work pose for employees, OSHA has established additional sets of regulations that must be met, especially to prevent exposure to pathogenic entities. Among the requirements demanded by OSHA from hospitals, we find: 1. the placement of puncture-proof containers for the correct disposal of needles, and 2. the establishment of follow-up procedures and protocols for workers who have become exposed to either a blood splash, or a needle stick. They have not established that there should be hepatitis B shots available for hospital employees. This is why the answer is C.
The nurse is explaining to a nursing student that allograft transplant clients need some form of immunosuppressant therapy. Which statement describes the pathophysiological reasoning behind this?
1. The treatment is indicated only if signs of transplant rejection are present.2. The treatment is a precaution; rejection in allografts seldom occurs.3. The treatment is designed to target chronic rejection, which does not occur for several weeks.4. Despite accurate tissue matching, allografts contain antigens that trigger the client's immune response.
Answer:
3. The treatment is designed to target chronic rejection
Answer:
4. Despite accurate tissue matching, allografts contain antigens that trigger the client's immune response.
Explanation: Same species transplant.
An aging client is brought to the eye clinic by the son. The son states he has seen his parent holding reading materials at an increasing distance to focus properly. What age-related changes does this indicate?
Answer:
Ciliary muscles in the eye cannot stretch properly due to inelastic fibers.
Explanation:
The eye does has a mechanism called 'accommodation' in order for it to focus on objects from distant to near. The ciliary muscles in the eye are responsible to contract or expand to open the iris more or less in order to focus on the object. As we get older, these muscles tend to slacken even more and cannot stretch back and forth as elastically as before therefore this will be portayed on an elder person as holding materials further away to be ableto focus.
tress surrounds us on a daily basis. Which of the following statements BEST describes ways to reduce or handle stress? A. Handling stress effectively involves ignoring stressors and remaining silent about stressful issues. B. Handling stress effectively involves recognizing what your stressors are, developing healthy behaviors to minimize stress, and adopting positive coping skills. C. Handling stress effectively involves recognizing what stressors are and visiting a psychologist weekly to discuss stressful issues. D. Handling stress effectivley involves doing whatever it takes to erase the stressful issue from your mind.
Answer:
B
Explanation:
A. its never good to ignore what your stressed about
C. If your seriously to the point where it effects you mental or physical health then maybe think about this but if you know your stressed about something then just take time of to come up with a better plan that will allow you to get what you need done but not burn out.
D. trying to forget what your stressed about never works because you will stress even more when it get worse or harder. By forgetting it your not helping the problem your just going to become stressed again
i chose B because i have GCSE coming up and i am also stress and B seemed like the best option for me to
How do nervous and endocrine systems work together?
1. : The size and shape of a pea; produces hormones that stimulate other endocrine glands.
2. : Is part of the sympathetic nervous system.
3. : Produces hormones that regulate glucose levels in the body.
4. : Primary regulators of blood calcium levels.
5. : Produces the body's major metabolic hormones.
Answer:
5. : Produces the body's major metabolic hormones.
Explanation:
The endocrine system is made up of several glands. The main ones are pituitary, thyroid, adrenal, pancreas, ovaries and testes. They secrete the body's main hormones, which are carried by the blood throughout the body, under the command of the nervous system, and act on specific cells. This, in turn, is formed by the central nervous system (CNS), the peripheral nervous system (PNS) and the autonomic nervous system (ANS). The basic units are nerve cells, which transmit electrical impulses accurately and quickly.
Thus, we can state that the production of the body's major metabolic hormones represents the way the nervous and endocrine systems work together.
Archie believes that people who think they are hypnotized are not actually hypnotized at all. In fact, they are simply acting out everything that they are being told to do by the hypnotist. Archie's way of thinking is similar to which of the following theories?
a) Theory of hypnotic confusion
b) Freudian theory of hypnosis
c) Dissociative theory of hypnosis
d) Social-cognitive theory of hypnosis
Archie's belief aligns with the Social-cognitive theory of hypnosis. This perspective suggests that hypnosis is not a unique state of consciousness, but rather a form of socially constructed role-playing.
Explanation:Archie's way of thinking is aligned with the Social-cognitive theory of hypnosis. This theory hypothesizes that people are not actually in a trance when they're hypnotized but are rather playing the role expected of them in the situation. They behave as they believe a 'hypnotized' person would act, which is shaped by social and cultural norms.
In the social-cognitive perspective, hypnosis doesn't involve any special altered state of consciousness. Instead, it's considered a cooperative social interaction just like Archie's belief. This is why Archie's belief is parallel to the social-cognitive theory of hypnosis.
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Archie's way of thinking is similar to the social-cognitive theory of hypnosis, which suggests that people who appear to be hypnotized are simply acting out the suggestions given to them.
Explanation:Archie's way of thinking is similar to the social-cognitive theory of hypnosis. According to this theory, people who appear to be hypnotized are not in a trance-like state, but rather they are actively engaging in certain behaviors because they believe they are expected to do so by the hypnotist. In other words, they are acting out the suggestions given to them.
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____ involves mixing sperm and egg cells together in a Petri dish, and then placing several fertilized eggs inside the mother’s uterus. The hope is that they will become implanted in the uterine wall and lead to pregnancy.
Brain blood flow autoregulation ________.
A. is more sensitive to pH than to a decreased oxygen level.
B. causes constriction of cerebral blood vessels in response to a drop in systemic blood pressure.
C. is controlled by cardiac centers in the pons.
D. is triggered when abnormally high CO2 (carbon dioxide) levels persist.
Brain blood flow autoregulation is triggered when abnormally high CO2 levels persist, causing a change in blood pH and activating vasomotor responses to adjust blood flow.
The student's question pertains to brain blood flow autoregulation, which is a mechanism that helps maintain consistent cerebral blood flow despite changes in systemic blood pressure or other factors. The correct statement regarding this process is D. is triggered when abnormally high CO2 (carbon dioxide) levels persist. The autoregulatory mechanisms involve the local control of vasodilation and constriction in blood vessels, modulated by chemical signals such as carbon dioxide, oxygen, and hydrogen ions. The concentration of CO2 in blood is tightly regulated, as an increase in CO2 leads to increased hydrogen ions and a decrease in pH, which in turn triggers the vasomotor centers to adjust blood flow. Option A is incorrect because the sensitivity to pH and decreased oxygen levels are part of the chemoreceptor response, rather than the primary trigger for autoregulation. Option B is incorrect because autoregulation typically dilates cerebral vessels in response to a drop in systemic pressure to maintain blood flow. Option C is incorrect as the cardiac centers involved in blood flow regulation are located in the medulla oblongata, not the pons.