Answer:
a. paraplegia
b. paraplegia (it is repeated)
Explanation:
• Paraplegia T1-T9 (Requires assistance at least 3 hours a day). People with lesions from T1 preserve innervation and, therefore, the function of all upper limb muscles. They can achieve functional independence, not only in self-care and mobility activities, but also in certain light domestic activities. From this level of injury, an intensive training to carry the manual wheelchair through irregular terrain, slopes and ramps is feasible. From the T6 lesion the patients present a better trunk control. In addition, with proper training, they can make transfers from the floor to the chair. People with injuries between T2 and T9 can achieve prophylactic standing with parallel bitters, with the support of a walker or crutches.
• Paraplegia T10 L1 (Requires assistance at least 2 hours a day) Patients with injuries from T10 have normal breathing with normal vital capacity. As with T1-T9 lesions, they are independent in activities of daily living, sphincter care and transfers. This group of patients is able to perform independent standing and assisted therapeutic walking. Unfortunately for all these activities, energy expenditure is excessive and joint wear of the upper limbs is important. Patients remain dependent on a self-propelled wheelchair for travel.
Which of the following is the best example of gene flow? a) An earthquake kills most individuals in a tree population, leaving just a few survivors. b) Wind blows pollen from one population of plants to another, and cross-fertilization occurs. c) Genes are shuffled by the crossing over of chromosomes during meiosis. d) A polyploid plant develops.
B
Gene flow is the transfer of genes/alleles from one population to another.
Explanation:
Gene flow adds to genetic diversity of the population into which the gene transfer occurred. In this case the pollen carries different forms of genes and alleles from the population it came from and when it cross-fertilizes with the new population, it adds to the genetic pool of the new population.
Another example of gene flow is through migration - the individuals of from one population join another population and continue to mate randomly in the new population. The immigrants come with new alleles of genes that become amalgamated into the new population by cross-breeding.
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An organism that lacks neurons that perform integration
A) can be expected to lack myelinated neurons.
B) will not have a nervous system.
C) will not be able to interpret stimuli.
D) cannot receive stimuli.
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-C
Explanation:
The nervous system performs the function of integrating the sensory information and then responding to the sensory information.
This function is especially performed by the central nervous system where the thalamus part of the brain is normally associated with the sensory neurons as they have nuclei which sense and analyse the information.
If the organism will not have the neurons which could perform the function of integration mainly the centers associated with sensing and analysing therefore, the organism will lose its capability to interpret or analyse the stimuli.
Thus, Option-C is the correct answer.
An organism that lacks neurons capable of integration can be expected to lack myelinated neurons because integration and myelination are characteristics of more complex nervous systems which involve faster signal transmission and greater integrative capabilities. However, this does not mean the organism cannot receive or interpret stimuli as simpler nervous systems are still capable of basic sensory functions.
The question posed pertains to the function of neurons and their ability to perform integration. The correct answer to the question is that an organism that lacks neurons that perform integration can be expected to lack myelinated neurons(A). Neurons are responsible for receiving and transmitting signals throughout the nervous system. Their ability to perform integration refers to the process of synthesizing incoming signals from various sources and determining if an action potential should be initiated. Myelination is a characteristic often associated with more complex nervous systems that require faster signal transmission and greater integrative capabilities. Therefore, lacking neurons that perform integration generally indicate a simpler nervous system, possibly without myelinated neurons.
It's important to note, however, that lacking neurons for integration does not mean the organism cannot receive stimuli (incorrect option D) or will not have a nervous system at all (incorrect option B). Many organisms have simpler nervous systems that can still detect environmental cues. Additionally, the inability to integrate does not directly equate to an inability to interpret stimuli (incorrect option C), as different organisms may use varying mechanisms for interpretation outside of neuronal integration.
A base at the first position of an anticodon on the trna would pair with a base at the ________ position of the mrna.
Answer:
Third
Explanation:
The charged tRNA anticodon consist of three nucleotides and the first nucleotide of anticodon pairs with the third nucleotide of codon of mRNA. This is explained by wobble termed as wobble hypothesis and the first position of an anticodon and third position of codon is called wobble position.
The pairing at third position is a non standard pairing as many different codons are specified by single amino acid. The primary determinants are the first two nucleotides. Thus, a base at the first position of an anticodon on the trna would pair with a base at the third position of the mrna.
Final answer:
The first position of an anticodon on tRNA pairs with the third position of the mRNA codon in reverse orientation, following standard base pairing rules. This interaction ensures the correct addition of amino acids to the growing polypeptide chain during protein synthesis.
Explanation:
The base at the first position of an anticodon on the tRNA would pair with the base at the third position of the mRNA. This is because the anticodons of tRNA molecules bind to the complementary codons of mRNA in an antiparallel manner. When reading the genetic code, codons in mRNA are read in the 5' to 3' direction; therefore, the first base of the anticodon (3' end) pairs with the third base (5' end) of the codon. Since the start codon AUG is paired with the anticodon UAC, the positioning of the charged tRNAs allows them to form base pairs correctly and contribute to the synthesis of a polypeptide chain during translation.
Trichinella worms sometimes cause the disease known as trichinosis in humans when undercooked pork is eaten. These organisms have long cylindrical bodies but no segmentation. This species is MOST similar to which of the following animals?A. Nematodes.B. FlatwormsC. EarthwormsD. Jellyfish.E. None of the above are related to trichinella worms
Answer:
A: Nematodes
Explanation:
Nematodes are a subdivision of the animal kingdom known as Nematoda. The group consists of round/cylindrical worms without body segments. They are mostly microscopic, bilaterally symmetrical with a wide range of habitat. Many of the species in this group are endo-parasites of man and other higher animals.
The flatworms belongs to the Platyhelminthes phylum. They are unsegmented and parasites of other animals just like nematodes. However, they are flat in shape as opposed to cylindrical shape of nematodes.
Earthworms belong to the phylum Annelida. They are segmented with nervous system.
In this case, the Trichinella worms seem to be most similar to Nematodes in that:
They have cylindrical bodiesThey are unsegmentedThey are parasitic in natureThe correct option is A.
For several generations, your family has lived on a farm with a water well. There has never been a problem with the water supply in the past; however, your well has now gone dry. There are several small farms nearby and a large and growing city 50 miles to the north. What can you conclude is the most likely reason for your well to become dry?
Answer:
Depletion of ground water as a result of increased usage leading to lower water table.
Explanation:
The presence of small farms nearby coupled with the growing city that is just 50 miles the north, would mean more pumping of water for use by households, farms and even industries located in the growing city. The water level would definitely drop beyond pump intake as more wells are drilled, and water usage increases as well. The lowering of the water table is the most likely reason for the well becoming dry.
In garden peas the allele for tall plants () is dominant over the allele for dwarf plants() A true breeding tall plant is bred with a true breeding dwarf plant to produce heterozygous tall plants. These Ft heterozygotes then self fertilize to yield F2 offspring. Complete the Punnett squar combination re for this monohybrid cross with the appropriate genotype of the Fi gametes and the F2 genotype/phenotype
A) Tt Tall
B) TT Tall
C) T
D) t
E) tt Dwart
Answer: This is called Monohybrid Experiment
Explanation: Monohybrid Cross
P Generation TT * tt
Tall plants Dwarf plants
F1 Generation
T T
t Tt Tt
t Tt Tt
In F1 generation;
There are 100% Tt Genotype and 100% Tall plant Phenotype
F2 Generation
F1 * F1
( Tt * Tt )
T t
T TT Tt
t Tt tt
In F2 Generation;
Genotype
There are 25% TT (homozygous dominant, tall plants).
50% Tt (heterozygous tall plants), and
25% tt (homozygous recessive dwarf plants).
This is how dwarf characteristics reappear in the second generation.
The Phenotype of F2 generation is 3:1 (Tall : Dwarf)
I have attached a document to this answer to facilitate effective understanding if there is anormalities in arrangement the Punnet Square.
Summarize the experiments performed by the following scientists that provided evidence that DNA is the genetic material: a. Frederick Griffith b. Oswald Avery, Maclyn McCarty, and Colin MacLeod c. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase d. Erwin Chargaff
Answer:
The following scientists have performed different experiments that were helpful in providing evidence that DNA is the genetic material. The summarize experiments are as follows-
1. Fredrick Griffith- the experiment was an experiment performed in 1928. It was one of the experiments that exhibit that bacteria can acquire through the process of transformation.
2 Oswald Avery, Maclyn McCarty, and Colin MacLeod: this experiment exhibited that DNA can transform the cell properties, and clarifying the chemical properties of the genes.
3. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase: They determined that even the bacteriophage has a protective coat around it but the DNA that is present inside is the genetic material that has the ability to produce the progeny inside a bacterium.
4. Erwin Chargaff: He proposed tow rules which were named after him as chargaff rules. This tells that natural DNA the number of cytosines is equal to the number of guanine units and adenine to Thymine units.
The male reproductive system relies on a negative feedback loop, meaning that as _________ rises above a certain level, the hypothalamus and pituitary are triggered to stop producing GnRH, FSH, and LH.
Answer:
level of testosterone
Explanation:
The level of testosterone produced is a determinant factor which influences the effect they have on the hypothalamus and the pituitary in regulating the release of GnRH, FSH, and LH in the male reproductive system.
A high level of testosterone would lead to the production of the hormone called inhibin, which is released into the blood. The GnRH and FSH, which are responsible for the initiation of spermatogenesis and secretion of testosterone in the testes, are inhibited by inhibin. This causes the GnRH and FSH from being produced further by the hypothalamus and pituitary when the testosterone level rises beyond normal level.
When the testosterone level drops below the normal level, the release of inhibin stops, while the hypothalamus and the pituitary resume the release of GnRH, FSH, and LH to initiate spermatogenesis and the secretion of testosterone.
How is a tendon different from a ligament?
a. A tendon joins a bone to a bone; a ligament joins a muscle to a bone.
b. A tendon joins a muscle to a bone; a ligament joins a bone to a bone.
c. A tendon covers a bone; a ligament supplies nutrients to a bone.
d. A tendon supplies nutrients to a bone; a ligament covers a bone.
Answer:
b. A tendon joins a muscle to a bone; a ligament joins a bone to a bone.
Explanation:
What is the complementary strand of DNA 5’-CACTTA-3’
Answer:
3'-GTGAAT-5'
Explanation:
How do the antibiotics called cell wall inhibitors works specifically?, and why can't they be used on animals cells?
Answer & explanation:
Cell wall inhibitors are the bactericides that interfere with the synthesis of peptidoglycan, a polymer made up of sugars and amino acids that form a mesh on the outside of the bacterial cell membrane, so peptidoglycan is primarily responsible for bacterial cell wall formation.
As a consequence of peptidoglycan inhibition, cell wall weakening occurs, and the cell undergoes lysis (breakdown).
The best known cell wall inhibitor antibiotic is penicillin, which has low toxicity and therefore attacks bacterial cells, but will hardly affect host cells, since animal cells lack peptidoglycan.
Vectors such as puc18 and others of the puc series contain a large number of restriction enzyme sites clustered in one region. Which term describes this advantageous arrangement of restriction sites?
Answer: multiple cloning site
Explanation: the selectable marking characteristics of given vector is an advantage of coexpression of recombinant protein, optimization phase cloning procedures as well as multiple manipulation within the same host strain that gives it it's name.
A 16 year old highschool student presents in the ER with a fever, stiff neck, headache and nausea. You order a spinal tap to be performed. Gram staining of the CSF reveals Gram (-) rods under the microscope. Which orgainism do you suspect is the likely causative agent?
Answer:
Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Serratia marsescens, Klebsiella pneumoniae or Escherichia coli
Explanation:
Meningitis is the inflamation of the meninges (membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord) due to the infection of the fluid around it. Some of the symptoms are fever, sleepiness, nausea and vomiting, stiff nech and seizures.
Meningitis can be caused by Gram negative bacterie such as H. influenzae., Escherichia coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa or Serratia marsescens. From these options only Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Serratia marsescens, Klebsiella pneumoniae and Escherichia coli are rod-shaped gram negatives.
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In comparing stop-transfer and internal start-transfer sequences in proteins, it can be said that __________.a.both lead to integral membrane proteins with the same orientation of C and N termini.b.both are hydrophobic.c.both cause the disassembly or destabilization of the translocon.d.both cause the formation or stabilization of the translocon.
Answer:
In comparing stop-transfer and internal start-transfer sequences in proteins, it can be said that both are hydrophobic.
Option: (b)
Explanation:
Hydrophobic means repelling water. Hydrophobic molecules are non polar i.e. that there is no static electric field produce by atoms of molecules. Due to this reason the hydrogen cannot form hydrogen bond with the molecules.Internal start- transfer process is a transfer process of peptide and moves through the side opening of translocon and the anchor itself in the 'membrane'. Stop-transfer sequences in proteins halts the 'process of translocation' and moves out through the 'side opening in translocation' to anchor.Suppose you were planning to use liposomes in an attempt to deliver drugs to a particular type of cell in the body, for example, a fat or muscle cell. Is there any way you might be able to construct the liposome to increase its target specificity?
Answer:
You can modify the by adding specific ligands
Explanation:
Liposomes are vesicules that result from the self-assembly of phospholipids in an aqueous medium, they resemble cellular membranes and can have single or multiple concentric bilayers. They are really useful for drug delivery because it is a biocompatible system, it can transport hydrophilic and hydrophobic molecules and they can be modified with specific ligands in order to reach their target, these ligands can be antibodies, peptides/proteins, and carbohydrates depending on the target.
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The absence of a terminator in transcription will result in ________. the creation of a virus a strand of mRNA that lacks its cap and tail the production of a longer RNA molecule the production of a shorter RNA molecule
Answer:
The absence of a terminator in transcription will result in the production of a longer RNA molecule.
Explanation:
The terminator is entitled to stop the synthesis of a particular type of RNA. If the terminator is not present at a particular site, then this will eventually lead to the elongation of RNA until another termination site is detected. Hence, option C is correct.
Other options like option D are not correct because lack of a terminator will not have any reason to produce a shorter RNA molecule. Option A is false because n RNA cannot be formed by the absence of a terminator.
The absence of a terminator in transcription leads to a longer RNA molecule because transcription continues without the normal termination signal. This could cause issues with mRNA processing in eukaryotes, as proper termination is necessary for accurate mRNA maturation.
Explanation:The absence of a terminator in transcription will result in the production of a longer RNA molecule. This is because transcription will continue past the usual stopping point, creating an extended RNA transcript. In prokaryotic cells, this could mean the RNA is used to begin protein synthesis before transcription has even terminated. However, in eukaryotic cells, transcription and translation are separated spatially and temporally, so the extended transcript would need to be processed post-transcriptionally, which might not occur correctly if the proper termination signals are not present.
Additionally, if the 5' methyl guanosine cap is not added to an mRNA, it may affect the stability and translational efficiency of the mRNA, and it will lack protection from degradation. It is important to note that the cap and tail are added to mRNA during the processing which occurs after transcription has been terminated properly.
A vaginal photometer and a penile plethysmograph can be used as measures of
Answer:
sexual arousal
Explanation:
A vaginal photometer is an instrument used in vaginal photoplethysmograph - a medical procedure that uses light to determine the amount of blood in the wall of the vagina. It is a procedure used to estimate or evaluate the level of sexual arousal in females.
A penile plethysmograph on the other hand is a device used to measure the blood flow to the penis during penile plethysmography procedure. It uses the same principle as the vaginal photometer and can be useful in the evaluation of erectile functions or sexual arousal in males.
Hence, both device measures sexual arousal in females and males respectively.
Analysis of the second swab has confirmed that the causative organism is Streptococcus pyogenes, a gram-positive organism. Imagine that you are the technician looking at the Gram stain from Shelly's culture. What would you expect to see as you look through the microscope?
a.pink, rod-shaped organisms arranged in pairs.
b.purple, spherical-shaped organisms arranged in grapelike clusters.
c.pink, spherical-shaped organisms arranged in chainlike formations.
d.purple, spherical-shaped organisms arranged in chainlike formations.
Answer:
The answer is letter D
Explanation:
Purple, spherical-shaped organisms arranged in chainlike formations.
You are looking at an artist's reconstruction of the fossil species Carpolestes simpsoni, which belongs to a group of animals thought to be an ancestor to modern primates, called plesiadapiforms. Plesiadapiforms lack most of the morphological variation characteristic of modern primates. However, C. simpsoni had an opposable big toe with a flat nail instead of the claws present on its other digits. Its hands and feet were well adapted for grasping and moving around on small branches, but they lacked the foot structure associated with leaping. Its eyes were located on the sides of the head and it did not have binocular vision. The dentition of C. simpsoni suggests that it probably ate fruit. Given this recent plesiadapiform fossil discovery, which of the following hypotheses is most consistent with the evolution of primates?
A) Grasping hands and feet with flat nails instead of claws all evolved together to facilitate leaping from branch to branch.
B) Binocular stereoscopic vision, grasping hands and feet, and nails on the toes and fingers all co-evolved to enhance visual predation on insects in the terminal branches of trees.
C) Grasping hands and feet allowed early primates to exploit fruit, flowers, and nectar in the terminal branches of angiosperms. Later, binocular stereoscopic vision evolved as an adaptation to predation on insects.
D) Binocular stereoscopic vision and grasping hands and feet evolved together as adaptations for exploiting new food sources in angiosperms.
Answer:
B) Binocular stereoscopic vision, grasping hands and feet, and nails on the toes and fingers all co-evolved to enhance visual predation on insects in the terminal branches of trees.
Explanation:
A characteristic of the primates, when they evolved was the replacement of the claws by ones, the binocular vision, which generated these two characteristics the option to see and take better the insects and fruit in high branches
The most consistent hypothesis for the evolution of primates is that grasping hands and feet allowed early primates to access new food sources, and binocular stereoscopic vision developed later for preying on insects.
Explanation:The most consistent hypothesis for the evolution of primates is option C) Grasping hands and feet allowed early primates to exploit fruit, flowers, and nectar in the terminal branches of angiosperms. Later, binocular stereoscopic vision evolved as an adaptation to predation on insects.
Plesiadapiforms, the group of animals including Carpolestes Simpson, lacked morphological variation of modern primates, but C. Simpson had well-adapted hands and feet for grasping and moving on branches, an opposable big toe, and a dentition indicating a diet of fruit. This suggests that the evolution of grasping hands and feet allowed early primates to access new food sources, which later led to the development of binocular vision for prey capture.
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On October 5, a pet store sold a kitten that subsequently died. On October 22, rabies wasdiagnosed in the kitten. Between September 19 and October 23, the pet store had sold 34 kittens.Approximately 1000 people responded to health care providers following local media alerts. Thesepeople were given______.A)antiviral medications.B)immune globulin injections.C) human diploid cell vaccine.D) antibiotics.E) postexposure prophylaxis.
A viral ailment that generates inflammation in the brain concerning the central nervous system (CNS) of mammals and humans is called rabies disease.
The correct answer is:
Option E) Post-exposure prophylaxis.
This can be explained as:
For controlling mortality in the infected patients they are aided with post-exposure prophylaxis.This shot consists of a rabies vaccine and human rabies immune globulin.The vaccination for rabies-infected is done on the 3rd, 7th and 14th day of getting contaminated.This vaccine will vest antibodies against the virus by stimulating the body to create antibodies of its own.Therefore, post exposure prophylaxis is administered.
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How do myelin sheaths increase the speed with which action potentials are propagated along an axon?
Answer:
The myelin sheath are the glial cells which present in the neurons. It acts as an insulator for the impulse. Inside the myelin sheath the impulse propagates in high speed. Because there is no depolarization occured in it. Therefore, the nerve impulse jumps from one sheath to other and it is called saltatory movement.
The gap between the two myelin sheath is called nodes of ranvier. It contains sodium ions and have voltage gated channels. When the action potential passes through the myelin sheath, the depolarisation happens due to entry of excess sodium ions into the non - myelinated sheath / nodes of ranvier.
When there is excess sodium ions present in the axon, again repolarization occurs and action potential occurs in the myelin sheath. Myelin sheath contains lipids which enhance the action potential.
Describe the appearance of dna in a typical prokaryotic cell
Answer:
Explanation:
The prokaryotic cell or prokaryotes are single celled organisms that do not posses organelles or membrane bound structures hence they do not have a nucleus but they posses single chromosome which is a piece of circular double-standard DNA in the nucleoid.
In a typical prokaryotic cell, DNA appears as a singular, circular chromosome localized in a region known as the nucleoid. Prokaryotic cells lack a membrane-bound nucleus and may also carry plasmids, which are smaller extra-chromosomal DNA. Other cell features include ribosomes, cell membrane, and a cell wall, with some cells having flagella, pili, and capsules.
Explanation:The appearance of DNA in a typical prokaryotic cell is unique compared to eukaryotic cells. In prokaryotes such as bacteria and archaea, the DNA is typically a single, circular chromosome that is found in a region called the nucleoid. Unlike eukaryotic cells, prokaryotic cells do not have a membrane-bound nucleus to contain their DNA. Additionally, prokaryotic cells may also carry extra-chromosomal DNA known as plasmids, which are smaller circles of DNA that can provide advantages such as antibiotic resistance.
Aside from the nucleoid containing the genomic DNA, prokaryotic cells also have other structures such as ribosomes for protein synthesis, a cell membrane that defines the boundary of the cell, and a protective cell wall. Some prokaryotic cells also have additional features like flagella for movement, pili for adherence, and a capsule for protection against the host's immune system, though not all bacteria will have these structures.
A detective finds a miniscule spot of blood on a murder suspect’s shirt. What method would the police lab be expected to use to get enough DNA from the blood droplet to perform DNA fingerprinting?
Answer:
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
Explanation:
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a method by which a target DNA fragment is amplified to produce millions of copies. In PCR, the Taq polymerase enzyme uses nucleotides and primers to replicate a small DNA segment in vitro and produces two DNA molecules. The newly formed DNA molecules are denatured by heating to facilitate their replication to produce four double-stranded DNA molecules. In this way, the number of DNA molecules is doubled in each cycle. Therefore, the small amount of DNA obtained from the minuscule spot of blood on a murder suspect’s shirt can be amplified using PCR.
PCR is the method that the police lab would be expected to use to extract and amplify DNA from the blood droplet found on the murder suspect's shirt. Gel electrophoresis is used to separate and analyze the amplified DNA.
Explanation:The police lab would be expected to use a method called PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) to extract and amplify DNA from the miniscule spot of blood found on the murder suspect's shirt. PCR is a technique used to copy a specific DNA segment, and it is commonly used in forensic DNA analysis to obtain enough DNA for DNA fingerprinting. After the DNA is amplified, it can be separated and analyzed using gel electrophoresis.
Which is the most abundant kind of tissue in an animal, such as a gorilla?
A) muscle
B) nervous
C) epithelial
D) connective
Answer:
The correct answer is A) muscle.
Explanation:
Gorillas are big animals that use strength for getting food but also for attracting females. Their muscle tissue is the most abundant in all species and can be seen in their large and strong bodies.
When a research project includes the collection of biological samples, all planned future uses of the samples, identifiers, and the data obtained from the samples, must be fully explained to the research subject.a.Trueb.False
Answer:
a.True
Explanation:
Prior to obtaining the biological samples for research purposes, the donor must be informed of the consequences and risks of such obtaining for their health so that they can consent to the use of said sample.
The regime for obtaining biological samples for research purposes is stricter when it comes to minors or disabled, since the concurrence of conditions such as risk minimization, the provision of relevant knowledge of vital importance for the purpose is required of the investigation that cannot be obtained otherwise and the authorization of the legal representatives or, where appropriate, that there are guarantees on the correct consent of the source subject.
The answer is false. Informed consent involves fully explaining all planned future uses of biological samples to the research subject.
Explanation:False. When a research project includes the collection of biological samples, all planned future uses of the samples, identifiers, and the data obtained from the samples must be fully explained to the research subject. This is part of the informed consent process. Informed consent involves informing the research participant about what to expect during the experiment, any risks involved, and the implications of the research, and then obtaining their consent to participate.
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Power plants are often built in neighborhoods where residents have less ability to fight for their
rights. This is a violation of ___________.
a. environmental regulations
b. EPA protocol
c. environmental justice
d. transboundary jurisdiction
e. deposition principles
Answer:
Option C
Explanation:
Definition of environmental justice: Environmental justice is the fair treatment and meaningful involvement of all people regardless of race, color, national origin, or income with respect to the development, implementation, and enforcement of environmental laws, regulations, and policies.
What is the function of the promoter in the e. Coli lac operon?
Answer:
An operon consists of sets of genes that are part of single transcription unit and is under the control of a single promoter. Lac operon is found in E.coli which consists of three structural genes which code for beta-galactosidase, permease, and transacetylase.
These genes are under the control of one promoter which is present upstream of these structural genes. The role of promoter is that it provide the binding site for RNA so that the RNA polymerase can start the transcription of these structural genes.
Between structural gene and promoter, operator region is present which when binds to repressor protein then it prevents the binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter and stops the transcription initiation.
The promoter in the E. coli lac operon functions as a binding site for RNA polymerase, aiding in the transcription of genes necessary for lactose metabolism. Its activity is dependent on the presence of lactose and other regulatory proteins.
Explanation:The function of the promoter in the E. coli lac operon is to provide a binding site for RNA polymerase, which initiates the transcription process. Located between the promoter and the three genes is a region called the operator. In the absence of lactose, a protein known as a repressor binds to the operator, blocking RNA polymerase from binding to the promoter and resulting in little production of protein. When lactose is present, a metabolic end product of lactose binds to the repressor, preventing it from binding to the operator. This allows RNA polymerase to bind to the promoter and transcribe the three genes, enabling the bacterium to metabolize lactose. The promoter also interacts with other elements like the CAP-cAMP complex in the absence of glucose to promote transcription.
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It is now known that much of the RNA that is transcribed is not translated into protein. these RNAs are called noncoding RNAs. Read carefully to discern a crucial role played by these RNAs. What is this role?
Answer:
bsx m
Explanation:
Answer:
regulating gene expression
Explanation:
A non-coding RNA is one that cannot participate in the protein formation process, because it does not code for any of them. Although it appears to have no function, non-coding RNA plays an important role in regulating gene expression, which is how the cell controls the expression of genes, preventing them from being expressed when they are not needed. In this way the cell saves energy and inhibits the accumulation of unnecessary molecules.
At age 79, Mrs. X is diagnosed with a disorder that severely impairs her logical judgment. Medical imaging techniques show that this has been most likely caused by brain damage in a ______.
a. parietal lobe
b. frontal lobe
c. temporal lobe
d. premotor cortex
Answer B.frontal lobe.
Explanation:
This lobe controls all cognative activities.since logical judgment is a cognitive activity this is the correct answer.
It is part of the brain largest portion called the cerebral cortex. Divided as left and right frontal lobes.
It is located at the front of the head enclosed in the front skull bones,where it divideds into Right and Left frontal lobes.
The right lobes controls the left sides of the body and the left controls the right sides of the body for voluntary movement and activities. Therefore ,it receives sensory imputs from all parts of the body to make judgments about the immediate environment.
NOTE: Parietal lobe coordinates information about temperature, taste.
Occipital lobe-coordinates vision with movement.
Temporal lobe-coordinates memory with taste, sight, sound.
Premotor cortex: coordinates muscle activities for exact movement
In ecological terms, disturbance is an event such as a storm, fire, or human activity that changes a community, removing organisms and altering resource availability. Which of the following statements about the effects of disturbance is correct?
Answer:
Disturbances can create patches of different habitats in a community.
Explanation:
Disturbances such as fire etc can cause a bigger and wider ecosystem to be destroyed from certain places. This will result in the formation of patches of different habitats. Each habitat will evolve into a different community. Some of the patches of habitat might have an abundance of resources, hence making life easier for the organisms inhabiting there. Some of the habitats might have rare resources hence, making life to be difficult in those areas.