A(n) _______ is often responsible for our disliking of a particular food after gastric illness.

a. odor trauma

b. learned taste aversion

c. virus

d. odor dilemma

e. restricted aversion

Answers

Answer 1
b. learned taste aversion
Answer 2

Final answer:

A learned taste aversion is the psychological phenomenon responsible for disliking certain foods after feeling ill. It is considered an evolutionary adaptation to help avoid harmful foods, demonstrated through research that shows how organisms are conditioned to avoid tastes associated with sickness.

Explanation:

A learned taste aversion is often responsible for our disliking of a particular food after gastric illness. This phenomenon occurs when an association is formed between a food item consumed and a subsequent feeling of nausea or illness, despite the fact that the food itself might not be the actual cause of the illness. This type of conditioning is quite robust, and an interval of several hours may pass between the ingestion of the food (the conditioned stimulus) and the onset of nausea or illness (the unconditioned stimulus).

Research into taste aversion reveals that it may be an evolutionary adaptation that helps organisms quickly learn to avoid harmful food, thus contributing to species survival through natural selection. Experiments, such as those conducted by Garcia and Koelling, have demonstrated that certain types of conditioning have biological constraints, showing that rats could easily be conditioned to avoid flavors associated with illness, but not lights and sounds. This emphasizes that classical conditioning can be critical for helping organisms avoid dangers to their health.


Related Questions

In gene tests for inherited colon cancer, scientists scan a patient’s DNA sample for mutated sequences using short pieces of DNA, called probes. The sequences of the probes are complementary to the mutated sequences. What happens after a probe DNA is inserted into a patient’s genome?

Answers

The answer is..The DNA probe binds to the mutated sequence and flags the mutation.

When a DNA probe is inserted into a genome during genetic testing for inherited colon cancer, it binds to its complementary mutated sequence if present, signaling a mutation. This method is crucial for detecting mutations in mismatch repair genes related to colorectal cancer risk. Colonoscopy serves as a diagnostic and preventive measure for such cancers.

In gene tests for inherited colon cancer, scientists use short pieces of DNA called probes that are designed to have sequences complementary to the mutated gene sequences associated with the cancer. When a DNA probe is introduced into a patient's genome, it will search for and bind to its complementary sequence if that particular mutation is present. This binding signals the presence of the mutation, effectively flagging the gene for further analysis or diagnosis.

One of the most common applications of this testing is for detecting mutations in the mismatch repair genes, which if defective, can significantly increase an individual's risk for developing colorectal cancer. Regular testing is crucial for those with a strong family history of cancers, especially if family members were diagnosed under the age of 40. Besides this method, individuals might also be offered a colonoscopy, which is considered the gold standard for diagnosing colorectal cancer, as it allows direct visualization of the colon and can aid in the removal of precancerous polyps, thus helping in early cancer detection and prevention.

The use of three bases to code for an amino acid is called the

Answers

I think it is called translation. It is the second major step in gene expression, the mRNA is read according to the genetic code, which relates the DNA sequences to the amino acid sequence in proteins. Each group of three bases in mRNA constitutes a codon, and each codon specifies a particular amino acid. The process takes place in the cytoplasm, where ribosomes or the ER synthesize proteins after the process of transcription.

Answer:

triple codon

Explanation:

The first step in the perceptual process is called _____ and refers to the process of bringing some stimulus within the proximity of a consumer so that it can be sensed by one of the five human senses. reaction attention comprehension exposure retention

Answers

The answer is exposure. To simplify, the first step in the perceptual process is called exposure and refers to the method of transporting some stimulus in the closeness of a consumer so that it can be detected by one of the five human senses. In addition, the perceptual process is an order of steps that starts with stimuli in the surroundings and ends with an understanding of those stimuli. This procedure is naturally unconscious and occurs hundreds of thousands of times a day. An unconscious procedure is just one that occurs in deprived of consciousness or objective.

During human fertilization, an egg and a sperm cell unite. which structures in these cells carry the genes that will be transferred to the offspring? a vacuoles b ribosomes c chromosomes d cell membranes

Answers

Answer: C. Chromosomes

When an egg and sperm cell unite, fertilization follows. The chromosomes carry the genes that will be transferred to the offspring. They have threadlike bodies that made up of DNA and protein that carries hereditary information, which is used to help a cell grow and reproduce.

Furthermore, humans have 46 chromosomes and 23 in each sex cell and they are found in the nucleus of a cell.

 

In the hypothesis that
c. stellatus (a species of barnacle) is competitively excluded from the lower intertidal zone by
b. balanoides (another species of barnacle), what could be concluded about the two species? in the hypothesis that
c. stellatus (a species of barnacle) is competitively excluded from the lower intertidal zone by
b. balanoides (another species of barnacle), what could be concluded about the two species? the fundamental and realized niches of
b. balanoides are identical, but the fundamental and realized niches of
c. stellatus are different. the fundamental and realized niches of
b. balanoides are different, but the fundamental and realized niches of
c. stellatus are identical. the fundamental and realized niches of
b. balanoides and
c. stellatus are identical. the fundamental and realized niches of
b. balanoides and
c. stellatus are different.

Answers

I think the conclusion would be that the fundamental and realized niches of B. balanoides are identical, but the fundamental and realized niches of C. stellatus are different.A barnarcle is a type of arthropod constituting the infraclass Cirripedia in the subphylum Crustecea, and thus related to crabs and lobsters. B. balanoides is a barnacle that attaches to rocks, especially during intertidal zones while C.stellatus is a species of acorn barnacle common on rocky shores in south West Eangland, Ireland, and Southern Europe.

If a cell becomes arrested within the cell cycle because it is unable to replicate its dna, which of the stages would you predict it would become arrested in?

Answers

that would be the gap 1 phase/

In two to three sentences, explaining how the creation of recombinant DNA is like cutting and pasting

Answers

Recombinant DNA is a type of artificial DNA which have genes that are taken from different organisms. During this process, a gene is take from one organism and putting the gene into another organism. Basically, the technology follows cut and paste scheme to form the new brand of DNA.

So to conclude this the technology cuts part of the DNA out to create a new DNA so you are cutting and pasting new DNA which is incredible. 

Hope this helped. 

Answer:

Recombinant DNA is a type of artificial DNA which have genenes that are taken from different organisms. During the process,a gene is taken from one organism and putting the gene into another organism. Basically, the technology follows a cut and paste scheme to form the new brand of DNA.

Explanation:

While assessing a patient who has fever, cough, and myalgia, the nurse confirms that the patient has pneumonia. which other symptom would the nurse expect to find in the patient?

Answers

Stabbing pain located in the chest with a cough on one side.

A visceral motor neuron whose cell body is within the cns is called a(n)________ neuron. a visceral motor neuron whose cell body is within the cns is called a(n)________ neuron. upper motor preganglionic somatomotor lower motor postganglionic

Answers

I believe the answer is preganglionic neuron. Preganglionic neurons originates in the brainstem or the spinal cord. It is part of the autonomic nervous system. The preganglionic fibers affect the heart, lungs, and abdominal organs with exception of the distal portion of the colon. The cell body of preganglionic neuron is in the brain or spinal cord (CNS), its axon exits the CNS as part of a cranial or spinal nerve. It convey nerve impulses from the CNS to autonomic ganglia. 

The muscle that generates the most power during elbow flexion is the __________. the muscle that generates the most power during elbow flexion is the __________. brachialis triceps brachii brachioradialis biceps brachii

Answers

The muscle that generates the most power during elbow flexion is the brachialis. The brachialis muscle is the primary muscle that helps the elbow joint move.

Answer: brachialis

Hope this helps! :)
Final answer:

The biceps brachii, located in the upper arm, generates the most power during elbow flexion. Other muscles contribute, but the biceps brachii is the primary muscle responsible.

Explanation:

The muscle that generates the most power during elbow flexion is the biceps brachii. This muscle is located in the upper arm and is the one most visible during elbow flexion. It flexes the forearm at the elbow and also assists in supination, which is the action of turning the palm upward or forward. While the brachialis and brachioradialis also contribute to elbow flexion, and the triceps brachii acts as an antagonist muscle during this movement, the primary muscle responsible for the most power during this action is the biceps brachii.

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Complete the following analogy

Popcorn: movie as____: baseball

A: Apple
B: pretzel
C: peanut
D: potato chips

Answers

I don’t know but it’s either b or c

The answer is C. peanut

What is the main feature that distinguishes bacteria cells from cells of other organisms?

Answers

they are unicellular prokaryotes, that are lacking membrane bound organelles.

Bacteria are unicellular prokaryotes which are lacking membrane bound organelles.

What is Bacteria?

Bacteria are defined as tiny unicellular organisms that are found almost everywhere on Earth and are vital to the planet's ecosystems. Some species can live in extreme conditions of temperature and pressure.

Bacteria are present in the human body which is estimated to have more bacterial cells than human cells. Most bacteria in the body are harmless, and some are even helpful, while a relatively small number of species cause disease.

Bacteria are type of microorganisms which come in various shapes that can be spheres, they can be rods, or they can be spirals.

Thus, Bacteria are unicellular prokaryotes which are lacking membrane bound organelles.

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Which of the following is not true regarding the cacao tree? a. It originated in the Amazon. b. The cacao tree produces fruit all year long. c. Cocoa is made from the whole cacao fruit. d. The cacao fruit has a mango flavor. Please select the best answer from the choices provided A B C D

Answers

Answer: c. Cocoa is made from the whole cacao fruit.

Cacao trees are grown in the Amazon and tropical regions of America. These are evergreen tree belonging to family Malvaceae. The cocoa fruit taste like mango. Cocoa is made from seeds or beans of cocoa fruit. The seeds are used to make cocoa mass, cocoa powder, confectionery and chocolates.

Cocoa is made from the seeds of the cacao fruit, thus, the untrue statement is that Cocoa is made from the whole cacao fruit.

What is the Cacao fruit?

The cacao fruit is a tropical fruit with the scientific name Theobroma cacao.

The cacao fruit is known to have originated from the Amazon.

The cacao tree produces fruit all year long.

The cacao fruit has a mango flavor. It is important in the production of chocolates and chocolate beverages and the seeds are used to make cocoa.

Therefore, the untrue statement is that Cocoa is made from the whole cacao fruit.

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If systolic blood pressure exceeds ________ mmhg while exercising, it should be monitored by a physician actions personal

Answers

I think the answer is 180 mmHg. In a healthy person with a normal systolic pressure of 120 mmHg, vigorous aerobic fitness training can increase systolic pressure to 180 mmHg and take about 10-20 minutes to return to resting levels. During upright exercise, the normal blood pressure response is to observe a progressive increase in systolic blood pressure with no change or even slight decrease in diastolic blood pressure. The slight decrease in diastolic pressure is due to vasodilation of the arteries from the exercise bout.

Which of the four nitrogen bases of DNA is the most important in the organism’s ability to generate energy to power cellular processes?


Guanine

Adenine

Thymine

Cytosine

Answers

The answer to this is Adenine. 

The correct answer is adenine.

A nitrogen-containing base or nitrogenous base refers to an organic molecule with a nitrogen atom, which possesses the chemical features of a base. The prime biological role of a nitrogenous base is to combine with the nucleic acids together.

Adenine is a nucleobase and its derivatives exhibit numerous functions in biochemistry including cellular respiration, in the form of both the cofactors NAD and FAD and the energy-rich adenosine triphosphate.


The tranquilizers valium and librium are classified in which schedule of the controlled substances act

Answers

IV is the correct answer.

In a long-term water-monitoring study, what environmental factors might influence the testing parameters of the WQI? How would you manage the study to eliminate these influences?

Answers

The environmental factors that influence the testing parameters of the WQI are precipitation, climate, flow conditions and groundwater. The quantity of water affects the quality of the water. Fast-flowing mountain streams have different chemical, physical and biological characteristics than slower moving boreal and prairie streams. Rains typically wash substances into river. If lowering water quality when you have the sample and tested water, the test would be more accurate.  


Precipitation, climate, flow condition, and groundwater are the environmental factors that might influence the testing parameters of the WQI.

What is WQI?

WQI is the water quality index.

The index is created for the assessment of surface waters across the state.

This is a non-regulatory measurement to test the water quality.

This is used to test the quality of the stream, black water, and brown water.

Thus, the factors are Precipitation, climate, flow condition, and groundwater.

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Dr. bruce says "its beneficial features are the ability to map ongoing psychological activities of the brain without injecting radioactive substances into the patient's body. in addition, they are much more widely available procedures than what was used before." what is dr. bruce describing?

Answers

Functional Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)

The heart is a cone-shaped muscular organ located within the ________ of the thorax. its apex rests on the ___________ and its superior margin lies at the level of the_________ rib. approximately two-thirds of the heart mass is seen to the left of the ___________.the heart is enclosed in a serosa sac called the. the heart has __________ chambers. relative to the roles of these chambers, the _____ are the receiving chambers, whereas the ________ are the discharging chambers.

Answers

The heart is a cone-shaped muscular organ located within the mediastinum of the thorax.

The mediastinum is the space lined with membranous tissue between the lungs. The mediastinum contains not only the heart but also the great vessels (pulmonary artery, aorta, pulmonary veins, and the superior and inferior vena cava), as well as parts of the esophagus and the trachea.

Its apex rests on the diaphragm and its superior margin lies at the level of the 2nd rib.

The apex of the heart is the conical area created by the confluence of the ventricles, but mainly by the left ventricle. It rests on the diaphragm. The superior margin of the heart, also known as the base, lies at the level of the second rib.

Approximately two-thirds of the heart mass is seen to the left of the midsternal border.

This is because to the left of the midsternal border lies the left ventricle which comprises most of the heart mass as the left ventricle is the one responsible for pumping blood throughout the systemic circulation and significant pressure should be overcame; resulting to the physiologic hypertrophy of the left ventricle.

The heart is enclosed in a serosal sac called the pericardium. The loosely fitting double outer layer consists of the outermost fibrous pericardium, lined by the parietal layer of the serous pericardium.

The pericardium is one of three layers of the heart (other ones being the myocardium and the endocardium); and is the outer layer of the heart. The pericardium is composed of two tissues, the fibrous pericardium and the serous pericardium. The pericardium functions to lubricate the movement of the heart by the action of the pericardial fluid. 

The heart has four chambers. Relative to the roles of these chambers, the atria are the receiving chambers, whereas the ventricles are the discharging chambers.

The four chambers of the heart are namely the right atrium, right ventricle, left atrium, and the left ventricle. Venous blood goes to the right atrium via the vena cavas then to the right ventricle via the tricuspid valve; then to the pulmonary circulation via the pulmonary artery where it will be oxygenated. From the pulmonary circulation, the left atrium will receive the oxygenated blood via the pulmonary veins then to the left ventricle via the mitral valve where it will be pumped to the systemic circulation via the aorta.

Please help..How does Gregor Mendel's work demonstrate support for the concepts of dominant and recessive alleles?

Answers

Gregor Mendel used peas to conduct his experiments in genetics. He showed how different alleles gathered from each of the parents, when combined, would reemerge as various characteristics in the offspring.

Which best describes the role of a negative feedback loop?
The output is reduced so the body can maintain homeostasis
The output builds so the body can maintain homeostasis
Hormone levels In the blood increase to increase effects
Hormone levels In the blood decrease to increase effects

Answers

The role of the negative feedback loop is,

that the output is being reduced so that the body can maintain homeostasis.

The negative feedback loop is a homeostatic control mechanism through which levels of hormones are maintained within a narrow range by feeding the product back to decrease its production.

Answer:

Explanation:

Which best describes the role of a negative feedback loop?

The output is reduced so the body can maintain homeostasis

The output builds so the body can maintain homeostasis

Hormone levels In the blood increase to increase effects

Hormone levels In the blood decrease to increase effects


How many parts does the scientific name of an organism have?

1
2
3
4
please answer quick :)

Answers

i may be wrong but i believe its 2.

Answer:

The answer is 2

Explanation:

The scientific process of naming an organism is called binomial nomenclature. The prefix bi means 2 therfore the answer is two.

Hope this helps!

It has been argued that declining levels of which hormone help to explain the aging-out process?

Answers

The declining levels of testosterone leads to aging. Testosterone is the male hormone that is responsible for a man's fertility, muscle mass, fat distribution throughout the body. It is also helps in improving secondary sexual characteristics and maturing the male's reproductive organs.

Multicellular fungal bodies are composed of ________

Answers

I believe the answer is hyphae. Hyphae are thin filaments that make up multicellular fungi. Kingdom fungi comprises of fungi such as molds, yeasts and mushrooms, eukaryotic heterotrophs that digest food outside of their bodies. Most fungi are multicellular but a few are unicellular such as yeasts. Hyphae are long branching filamentous structure of fungi. In most Fungi, hyphae are the mode of vegetative growth. 

Answer:

The correct word to fill the blank is "hyphae"

Explanation:

Multicellular fungi are made of a network of long, thin filaments known as hyphae.  Most of the fungi are multicellular. Multicellular fungal bodies are composed of a network of hyphae,  Hyphae or hypha (singular) is composed of, end to end connected tubular cells called septa.

Example: Molds and Mushrooms.

"blood vessels visible in the posterior view" of the heart include the

Answers

Blood vessels visible in the posterior view of the heart include the Superior and inferior vena cava and the pulmonary veins. The superior vena cava and the inferior vena cava drain systemic venous blood into the posterior wall of the right atrium. The pulmonary veins transport blood from the lungs back to the heart and are best seen in posterior view of the heart. Other features visible in the posterior view include, right and left atrium, right and left ventricle, aorta, aortic arch, pulmonary veins and arteries, coronary sinus, coronary artery and posterior interventricular artery.

A common example of a gis is getting driving directions from _______ _______. flashcards

Answers

The answer to this question is a global positioning system (GPS). A geographic information system (GIS) is a system to capture, store, manipulate, analyze, manage, and present spatial or geographic data. ArcGIS is a common software application with GIS functionality. So is Google Earth.

The correct answer is "" Maps"" or ""a GPS navigation device.""

 A Geographic Information System (GIS) is a framework for gathering, managing, and analyzing data. It is used to visualize data in a geographic context, which can be anything from a simple map to complex spatial analysis. One of the most common and practical uses of GIS technology is in GPS navigation devices and online mapping services like Maps, which provide driving directions based on spatial data.

  When you input your starting location and destination into Maps or a GPS navigation device, the system uses GIS data to calculate the best route. This includes considering road networks, traffic conditions, and other geographic information. The GIS technology then presents the route visually on a map and provides turn-by-turn directions.

Therefore, when filling in the blanks on the flashcards for a common example of a GIS, ""Maps"" or ""a GPS navigation device"" would be appropriate answers, as they both utilize GIS to provide driving directions and other location-based services.

What can isobars that are drawn very closely together reveal about the weather?

Answers

The closer together the isobars are, the greater the pressure difference and the stronger the wind will blow. 

The ________ is an example of a modern convergent boundary where two continents meet.

Answers

Covelent bond is the two

Answer is  Northerly movement of India relative to Eurasia

A convergent boundary is a lithospheric plate boundary that moves. When two plates come together, it is known as a convergent boundary. An example of convergent boundary is the boundary between the Eurasian Plate and the Indian Plate at the Himalayas.

An older client who has had multiple hospital admissions for recurring heart failure is returned to the hospital by an adult child. the client is admitted for observation to the coronary care unit and calmly states, "i know i'm sick, but i can really take care of myself at home." what should the nurse conclude that the client most likely is attempting to do?

Answers

The patient who had multiple hospital admissions for recurrent heart failure would like to maintain independence as to reduce the amount of supervision he/she requires. It brings control, dignity, fulfilment and self-esteem that they will have better quality life for themselves. Moreover, independence is important for them because it gives them hope and the will to live despite their medical condition.

Answer:

The nurse can conclude that the patient knowing that his illness is chronic prefers to die at home and not extend his suffering in the hospital. He was also able to make this decision since he thinks he is an elderly patient who can no longer improve his quality of life and wants to spend his last days resting at home with his family

What type of cells do you start with and end in mitosis and meiosis?

Answers

You start with a parent cell and end with daughter cells. 
If you need an answer with diploid/haploid cells then, if a haploid cell goes through mitosis you end with 2 haploid cells. In meiosis you start with a diploid cell and end with 4 haploid cells. 
I hope I helped!
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