Answer:
an adolescent who lives in a traditional culture.
Explanation:
Antony is an adolescent who primarily do household works including taking care of his younger siblings, grandparents, uncles, aunts and cousins. From the description, it is clear that Antony used to do this work in his adolescent age. Although at this age, he must be studying, playing and must have big dreams.
It can be stated from the description that Antony lives in a traditional cultured family where Antony is only helping his family in household works.
A client is admitted with obsessive compulsive disorder. She must make her bed perfectly before she leaves her room. She has lost her job for being late and has lost her apartment due to being unemployed. She asks the nurse if there is any hope for her? What statement is the most true about OCD?
Answer: Her making her bed perfectly
Explanation: Her losing her job and apt. have no correlation with OCD. OCD is like being an over the top perfectionist is the best way I am able to describe it.
Which one of the following is NOT associated with nitrate exposure in humans?a. brittle bonesb. goiterc. blue baby syndromed. risk of developing insulin-dependent diabetes
Answer: Brittle Bones
Explanation: Nitrate exposure is very harmful for the individuals. Blue baby syndrome is the most common and important condition associated with the nitrate exposure.
Its is caused if there is a elevated level of nitrate in the drinking water. When nitrate is ingested in the human body, it reacts with hemoglobin and converts it into methanoglobin that is incapable of carrying oxygen.
It also hinders the proper functioning of thyroid gland and insulin dependent diabetes.
The problem that is not associated with the exposure of nitrate is" Brittle bones".
A 17-year-old girl presents 2 days following a generalized seizure, her second in 6 months. Both seizures occurred between 3 AM and 6 AM while she was sleeping, in the week before her menses. Her medical history is unremarkable and she takes no medications. Results of physical and neurologic examinations are normal, and a pregnancy test done in the emergency department is negative. EEG shows activity consistent with a generalized seizure disorder. What medication is best at this time?
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Lamotrigine would be best for her at this time.
Lamotrigine is a antiepileptic medication which should help her symptoms and reduce seizures.
Heavy smokers often develop abnormally high blood pressure. The nicotine in tabacco in a potent vasoconstrictor. Explain the connection between these two facts, including what kind of blood vessels are likely affected
Answer:
When we smoke the smoke of the cigarette contains nicotine compounds which get into our lungs and from there it makes it's way into our blood stream. This causes constriction of our blood vessels when the diameter of our blood vessels becomes less the area through which the blood travels becomes less than healthy vessels thus the blood has to travel with greater velocity to maintain the same flow of nutrients and oxygen to the tissues of our body. The faster moving blood exerts a greater force on the walls of the vessels of our body thus the pressure of blood increases.
Arteries are the type of blood vessels that are affected by nicotine smoking.
An otherwise healthy 17-year-old girl presents with a 4-month history of episodes of déjà vu or unpleasant olfactory aura, followed by a period of staring, confusion, and unresponsiveness that lasts 30 to 90 seconds. She then develops headache, nausea, and extreme fatigue. More recently, the episodes are associated with depersonalization, a sinking feeling, and periods of “blacking out.” She has mild short-term memory deficits on examination. MRI scan of the brain is normal. Which of the following medications is most likely to improve her symptoms?
Answer: none
Explanation:
You never gave me any of the medications to choose from which would be more likely to improve her symptoms !!!
Christopher came down with chickenpox after spending time in his child's daycare the chickenpox represent a link in the chain of transmission in this scenario
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The chickenpox represent a link of an infectious agent
Answer:
infectious agent
Explanation:
A 35 years old female client has just been admitted to the post anesthesia recovery unit following a partial thyroidectomy. Which statement reflects the nurse’s accurate understanding of the expected outcome for the client following this surgery?
(A) The client will be restricted from eating seafood
(B) The client should not eat anything for the following hours
(C) The client should consume more soft drink
(D) The client should do nothing
Hi !
A 35 years old female client has just been admitted to the post anesthesia recovery unit following a partial thyroidectomy. Which statement reflects the nurse’s accurate understanding of the expected outcome for the client following this surgery?
(B) The client should not eat anything for the following hours
Final answer:
The correct answer is (B), indicating that the client should not eat anything for the following hours after a partial thyroidectomy, as the surgical team would focus on the patient's recovery and preventing complications.
Explanation:
The statement that reflects the nurse's accurate understanding of the expected outcome for the client following a partial thyroidectomy is: (B) The client should not eat anything for the following hours. Postoperative care of a thyroidectomy typically includes a period of fasting to allow for the recovery of the throat and to prevent complications such as aspiration. The surgical team, which consists of the surgeon, nurse, and anesthesia professional, would review aloud the key concerns for the recovery and care of the patient and would commonly advise to restrict food and drinks for a certain period post-surgery.
Which are functions of epithelial tissue?
structure
protection
absorption
movement
sensing
secretion
Hi !
Functions of epithelial cells include secretion, selective absorption, protection, transcellular transport, and sensing.
Answer:
protection
absorbtion
secretion
on edgunity
Explanation:
For which locations does the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) enforce safety? kitchens in private homes backyard farms community malls personal art studios
Answer:
Community Malls
Explanation:
It's the only answer thats a place with official jobs. A normal farm would be there too, but a backyard farm is someones hobby and not a paying occupation, so OSHA isn't in charge of that.
Answer:
The answer is C(community malls)
Explanation:
got it correct
Folate is required for DNA synthesis and cell division, metabolism of amino acids and for synthesis of normal red blood cells. What is the best source of folate in the diet? 1) Chicken and fish 2) Cooked potatoes 3) Ready-to-eat fortified cereals
Answer:
3) Ready-to-eat fortified cereals
Explanation:
Folate is a vitamin B complex, soluble in water and present in several items of the daily diet. Folate occurs naturally in food and folic acid is the synthetic form of folate used in medicines.
Folate is necessary for numerous body functions. Among them: DNA synthesis and repair, cell division and growth, production of new proteins, formation of red blood cells. Folate is important for cardiovascular and nervous system health. In addition, folate plays an important role in the health of the skin, nails and hair, fights acne and dermatitis, leaves the skin with a healthy glow, controls oiliness, increases immunity, among other benefits.
A good source of folate is ready-to-eat cereals.
The best way to protect your family from carbon monoxide poisoning is to install a whole-house air ventilation system. True or False
Answer:
False.Explanation:
There are several ways to protect your family from carbon monoxide poisoning. First, we have to know what can cause having carbon monoxide inside a home. Gas fires, central heating systems, cookers, and every device that uses gas. It's important to know that carbon monoxide cannot be easily detected, so we cannot even tell if we are breathing it, that's a reason why air ventilation system is not a way to protect the family.
Actually, the best way to have protection against carbon monoxide poisoning is to install CO alarms all over the house, this way, people will be able to know when they are breathing this gas, avoiding poisoning.
In fact, CO gas is dangerous because of that specific characteristic, not having a smell, or visual feature, it's practically invisible. The main effect of CO inhalation is the lack of oxygen in our body, because CO gas takes the place of oxygen inside our body.
The statement is false.
Let first understand that whole-house air ventilation system is a ventilation system that covers the whole building.
The air ventilation system works by exchanging indoor and outdoor air and thus providing the building with fresh air.Carbon monoxide poisoning are caused by smoke from fuel, machines and etc. Symptoms of the poisoning are dizziness, weakness, vomiting, chest pain etcThe air ventilation system is not design to prevent and protect the house from carbon monoxide poisoning, rather its does ensure their is fresh air intake into the building.
In conclusion, installation of fire alarm system will play a better role in prevention of carbon monoxide poisoning because its will gives signal when its observes traces of high concentration of carbon monoxide in the air.
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Do iodine pills help with radiation exposure?
Iodine pills can help reduce the risk of thyroid cancer caused by radiation exposure by saturating the thyroid gland with stable iodine. They should be used in conjunction with other protective measures.
Explanation:Iodine pills are used to prevent radioactive iodine from being absorbed by the thyroid gland, which can help reduce the risk of thyroid cancer caused by radiation exposure. They work by saturating the thyroid gland with stable iodine, so that it will not take up radioactive iodine if it is present in the environment. However, it is important to note that iodine pills are not a cure-all and should be used in conjunction with other protective measures, such as evacuation or seeking shelter, when it comes to radiation exposure.
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Binge drinking is defined for the typical adult as
Answer:
Binge drinking is defined for the typical adult as 4 or more drinks for females or 5 or more drinks for males in about two hours.
inge drinking is the consumption of a large amount of alcohol in a short period of time. It can lead to various health risks and consequences.
Binge drinking is a term used to describe the consumption of a large amount of alcohol in a short period of time. For the typical adult, binge drinking is defined as consuming five or more drinks for men, or four or more drinks for women, within a couple of hours. This behavior can lead to various health risks and consequences.
For example, binge drinking can increase the risk of accidents, injuries, and alcohol poisoning. It can also lead to liver damage, heart problems, and addiction. It is important to be aware of the risks associated with binge drinking and make informed decisions about alcohol consumption.
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Larry thinks he is the center of the universe. He hates waiting in lines, insisting that his time is way too important for such trivial matters. Although he easily exploits other people for his own personal gain, he also wants everyone to think he is as great as he thinks he is. Recently, when his wife's aged mother died, he was secretly a little annoyed at the timing, because it interfered with his vacation. Which of the personality disorders mentioned in your text does Larry best fit
Answer:
Narcissism
Explanation:
You have not pointed out the alternatives, but this disorder is clearly identified as narcissism.
Narcissistic people have a distorted sense of self, believing that they are superior to others. Typically, these people have an arrogant tone, place a high value on consumption, luxury and impose an image of perfection. These people don't care about each other either, and they get angry when some loss of life gets in the way of their plans. These traits fit the description of Larry, a classic narcissist.
How long does it take for stitches to dissolve after oral surgery?
Answer: About two weeks or so.
Explanation:
Cervical cancer can result from a sexually transmitted disease. True or False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Having a sexually transmitted disease can increases a person's risk for several types of cancer. A sexually transmitted disease like HPV can cause cancers of the mouth, throat, and anus in both sexes.
Suki and lily decide to go to a party. Lily drives them there and then drinks a lot of liquor in a short amount of time. Lily then says tired and tells suki to get in the car because they're leaving. Suki tells lily in a hesitant, low voice that she doesn't think lily is safe to drive.
Answer:
Suki is correct.
Explanation:
Lily shouldn't be driving because she is drunk due to the fact of drinking a lot of alcohol and not be able to concentrate on the road or her vision might be blurry. Also, she may be able to quickly react to a situation while driving. She may put herself and Suki in a dangerous situation and get into an accident. Not only is driving under the influence dangerous, but Lily is also breaking the law and have to be punished.
Final answer:
Suki's mistakes included not being assertive enough when addressing Lily's drinking and driving and eventually getting into the car despite recognizing the danger. She should have refused the ride and suggested alternative transportation options.
Explanation:
Suki made several mistakes when it came to ensuring safety on the night of the party. Initially, she correctly expressed her concern when she noticed Lily was unsafe to drive due to heavy drinking. However, Suki's first mistake was not being assertive enough in her refusal to get into the car with a driver under the influence.
She voiced her concern in a 'hesitant, low voice,' which may not have conveyed the seriousness of the matter. The second and critical mistake was giving in to Lily's pressure and getting into the car despite her discomfort.
To ensure both their safety, Suki should have refused to get in the car with Lily and instead suggested alternative transportation options, such as calling a taxi, using a ridesharing service, or reaching out to a sober friend or family member for a ride. This would have addressed the issue of drinking and driving and the potential for a dangerous situation.
A baby's heart rate does not increase after intubation and the breath sounds are louder on the right side than the left side of the chest. Which of the following is a common cause of asymmetric breath sounds in an intubated baby?
(A) Endotracheal tube inserted too deep.
(B) Monitor blood glucose levels because of the risk of hypoglycemia after birth.
(C) Stop chest compressions; continue positive-pressure ventilation.
(D) His blood glucose level should be checked soon after resuscitation and then at regular intervals until stable and normal.
Answer:
(A) Endotracheal tube inserted too deep.
Explanation:
A baby's heart rate does not increase after intubation and the breath sounds are louder on the right side than the left side of the chest. An Endotracheal tube inserted too deep is a common cause of asymmetric breath sounds in an intubated baby.
The correct option is A: Endotracheal tube inserted too deep
Endotracheal tube is a type of tube that is inserted directly through the mouth to create a breathing passage in order to enable inhalation and exhalation to take place.
Therefore the cause of asymmetric breath sounds was solely because the Endotracheal tube was push too deep causing the sound on the right lung to be more louder than that of the left lung.
Inconclusion the correct option is A: Endotracheal tube inserted too deep
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A researcher conducts a focus group to learn about attitudes towards hygiene and disease prevention. Two weeks after the focus group, the researcher learns one of the subjects had a heart attack at home and was hospitalized, but made a full recovery. Based on HHS regulations, should the researcher report this event to the IRB?
Answer: No it should not be reported because it is unrelated to the participation in the study.
Explanation:
The study was based on health and hygiene and disease prevention. Based on this study the diseases that can be taken into consideration which is related to health and hygiene.
The heart attack is not a disease which is caused by being into an unhygienic environment.
So, heart attack cannot be reported to IRB because the study was not based on this topic.
Under HHS regulations, a researcher need not report a participant having a heart attack, if the event isn't connected to the research study. However, if in doubt, reporting to the IRB is recommended.
Explanation:According to the Health and Human Services (HHS) regulations, an unexpected event that involves risks to the participant or others must be reported to the Institutional Review Board (IRB). However, in the scenario presented, the heart attack of the participant does not seem to be related to the research conducted about hygiene and disease prevention. Therefore, the researcher would not technically need to report this event. Nonetheless, if there is any doubt, it's recommended to inform the IRB to ensure ethical guidelines are being followed.
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An established patient presents to the clinic today for a follow-up of his pneumonia. He was hospitalized for 6 days on IV antibiotics. He was placed back on Singulair and has been doing well with his breathing since then. An expanded problem focused exam was performed. Records were obtained from the hospital and the provider reviewed the labs and X-rays. The patient was told to continue antibiotics for another two weeks to 20 days, and the prescription Keteck was replaced with Zithromax. Patient is to return to the clinic in two weeks for recheck of his breathing and follow up X-ray. What CPT® code is reported
hI §
Answer:
Code is reported 992
13
Answer:
The CPT code that is reported is the number 32960 called the therapeutic pneumothorax.
Explanation:
Pneumothorax is diagnosed by a chest x-ray. In some cases, a CT scan may be necessary to provide more specific images. An ultrasound can also be used to identify a pneumothorax. The goal is to avoid pressure in the lung to allow it to expand again. The methods to achieve these objectives depend on the severity of the lung collapse and sometimes on the general state of health
What causes high co2 levels in blood test
High levels of CO2 in the blood, or hypercapnia, can occur due to impaired respiratory functions, hypoventilation caused by certain drugs, and renal dysfunctions. Hypocapnia, or abnormally low blood levels of CO2, arises due to conditions that cause hyperventilation. High CO2 levels in the blood can also lead to a condition known as respiratory acidosis.
Explanation:High CO2 levels in blood, or hypercapnia, can occur due to many factors. These include situations that impair respiratory functions, such as pneumonia and congestive heart failure. Reduced breathing, or hypoventilation, caused by substances like morphine, barbiturates, or ethanol can also lead to hypercapnia.
On the other hand, hypocapnia, which are abnormally low blood levels of CO2, occurs due to any cause of hyperventilation that expels CO2 from the body. This may occur as a result of salicylate toxicity, elevated room temperatures, fever, or strong emotional responses.
Also, renal regulation helps to maintain the body's acid-base balance as part of the buffering system, and it can contribute to abnormal CO2 levels in case of dysfunction.
High CO2 levels can lead to a state called respiratory acidosis which is problematic because it means there is an excess of CO2 present in the blood. Bicarbonate levels could be normal initially, but if the body compensates, these levels would increase in an attempt to re-establish the correct ratio of bicarbonate and carbonic acid/CO2.
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Fever ________. (A) decreases the metabolic rate of the body to conserve energy(B) is a higher-than-normal body temperature that is always dangerous(C) production is regulated by chemicals that reset the body's thermostat to a higher setting(D) causes the liver to release large amounts of iron, which seems to inhibit bacterial replication
Answer:
Option B
Explanation:
Well you feel dizzy and your forehead get hot when you get a fever so it is Option B
(C) production is regulated by chemicals that reset the body's thermostat to a higher setting
Why our body reacts so to fever?The increase in those white blood cells impacts your hypothalamus. This makes your body warm up, inflicting a fever. inside the early levels of a fever, you regularly sense cold and start to shiver. this is your body's reaction to a rising temperature.
regular body temperature stages from 97.5°F to 98.9°F (36.4°C to 37.2°C). It has a tendency to be lower in the morning and better at night. most healthcare providers consider a fever to be a 100.4°F (38°C) or higher.
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A 12-year-old child at a soccer game grabs their chest and begins to make wheezing noises. After you obtain consent to provide care, the child’s parent informs you that the child has a history of asthma, but does not have an inhaler nearby. What care should you provide?
A client with type 2 diabetes, who is taking an oral hypoglycemic agent, is to have a serum glucose test early in the morning. The client asks the nurse, “What do I have to do to prepare for this test?” Which statement by the nurse reflects accurate information? (A) "Eat your usual breakfast."(B) "Have clear liquids for breakfast."(C) "Take your medication before the test."(D) "Do not ingest anything before the test."
Answer:
The answer is D: do not ingest anything before the test.
Explanation:
Patients who will be assessed through fasting blood glucose should not eat any type of food as indicated by the test, since their values would reflect, while the patient is fasting, if there is a need to increase or decrease the dose of the oral hypoglycemic. In the morning hours always glycemia based, which is what is determined in this test, will always show variability.
Where is the heart located in the human body?
A) Between the right midclavicular line and the right border of the sternum and below the clavicle to the eighth rib.
B) Between the second and the fifth intercostal spaces from the right edge of the sternum to the left midclavicular line.
C) Between the third and sixth intercostal spaces from the left midclavicular line to the left midaxillary line.
D) Between the first and fourth intercostal spaces from the left midaxillary line to the left posterior axillary line.
Which statement is the best description of the sleep pattern for a normal adult?
A. Sleep problems decrease in middle aged adults.
B. Most of the sleep cycle is made up of rapid eye movement (REM) sleep.
C. An adult has four to six sleep cycles, each with non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep and rapid eye movement (REM) sleep, during a normal night's sleep.
D. A middle-aged adult requires less sleep than an elderly adult.
Hi !
Which statement is the best description of the sleep pattern for a normal adult?
C. An adult has four to six sleep cycles, each with non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep and rapid eye movement (REM) sleep, during a normal night's sleep.
A normal adult has four to six sleep cycles per night, consisting of both non-rapid eye movement (NREM) and rapid eye movement (REM) sleep. NREM occupies the majority of the sleep cycle, with REM making up the rest.
Explanation:The best description of the sleep pattern for a normal adult is that an adult has four to six sleep cycles, each with non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep and rapid eye movement (REM) sleep, during a normal night's sleep (Option C). These sleep cycles help in bodily restoration and memory consolidation. The first few stages of a sleep cycle are characterized by NREM sleep, which accounts for 75-80% of the sleep cycle, while REM sleep occupies the remaining portion, accounting for 20-25% of the sleep cycle.
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are often joined to other elements in a medical term by adding a
Answer:
Combining vowel
Explanation:
Example: a, e, i, o, u,
Answer:
this dont make sense
Explanation:
Which of the following disease-causing organisms is most similar to that which causes Zika?A. bacterium that causes Lyme diseaseB. virus that causes HIVC. nematode that causes onchocerciasisD. protozoan that causes malaria
Answer:
B. a virus that causes HIV
Explanation:
A 4-year-old child is brought to the emergency department after being in a motor vehicle accident. The child experienced head trauma in the accident. When assessing the child, which will be the first change noted in the presence of increasing intercranial pressure?
Change in level of consciousness.
Intercranial pressure may also be called brain swelling or cerebral edema. The skull contains the brain, blood and cerebrospinal fluid.What is the intercranial pressure?A brain injury or another medical condition can cause growing pressure inside skull.Signs of intracranial pressure include a headache and the feeling of increased pressure when lying down and relieved pressure when standing. Nausea, vomiting, vision changes, changes in behavior and seizuresTo know more about brain injury here
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A client after a trauma has difficulty opening his or her eyes to pain, has abnormal flexion motor response, and speaks inappropriate words. What is the status of the client utilizing the Glasgow Coma Scale? Record your answer using a whole number.
Based on the provided symptoms and using the Glasgow Coma Scale, the client's total score is 7, indicating a severe head injury.
Explanation:The symptoms described using the Glasgow Coma Scale shows a score of 7. This scale is used to gauge and record a patient's level of consciousness following a traumatic head injury based on three parameters: eye-opening, verbal response, and motor response. Each of these parameters is scored separately, and the total score ranges from 3 (indicating deep unconsciousness) to 15 (indicating full consciousness).
Given the following symptoms: difficulty opening eyes to pain (score 2), abnormal flexion motor response (score 3), and inappropriate words (score 2), the total Glasgow Coma Scale for this client is 7. This is classified as a severe head injury, requiring immediate medical attention and often indicates significant brain damage.
While neurological examinations and mental status exams provide detailed insights into different aspects of a patient's brain function, the Glasgow Coma Scale provides a quick and easy evaluation of a client's degree of consciousness.
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