Answer:
Explanation:
The homozygous recessive individual can only produce 1 type of gamete (aabb).
The heterozygous individual can produce 8 types of gametes, of which 2 are parental and the rest are recombinant.
Genetic distance (m.u.) = Frequency of Recombination (%)
If the distance between genes A and B is 50 m.u., 50% of the gametes produced by the heterozygous individual, and therefore the offspring, will have recombinant phenotypes.
Without knowing that the genes are located on the same chromosomes, I'd think they are on different chromosomes, because you would get the same result: 50% recombinant offspring.
Whenever the genes on the same chromosome are separated by at least 50 m.u., or they are in different chromosomes, crossing over between them can happen with no restrictions and they will behave as independent of one another.
Given a genetic distance of 50 map units (centimorgans, cM), we would expect to see approximately 50% of offspring expressing recombinant phenotypes due to recombination or crossover events. This rate corresponds to a 50% recombination frequency. If we didn't know the genes resided on the same chromosome, we'd expect a Mendelian ratio assuming independent assortment.
Explanation:Given the genetic distance of 50 map units or centimorgans (cM) apart, genes A and B indicate that they are far apart on the same chromosome. Thus, the likelihood of recombination or crossover events between these genes resulting in recombinant phenotypes is high. Specifically, the recombination frequency corresponds to the genetic distance, meaning that with a distance of 50 cM, we expect about 50% of the offspring to express recombinant phenotypes.
Since you asked how one might interpret this information without knowledge of these genes being on the same chromosome, it is important to mention that if we didn't know this, we would expect to see Mendelian ratios assuming independent assortment of the genes. That is, the appearance of recombinant and parental types would be approximately equal, again indicative of a 50% recombination frequency.
This is due to the random segregation during the formation of gametes, where it's equally likely that either allele from one parent will be passed on to the offspring. This recombination frequency therefore, indicates that every type of allele combination is represented with equal frequency or 50 percent of offspring are recombinants. The other 50 percent retain the original, parental combinations of traits.
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Heat is a product of
a. respiration
b. photosynthesis
c. osmosis
d. diffusion
Answer: Respiration
Explanation:
Respiration can be defined as the process by which the gaseous exchange takes place in between the lungs and outer environment.
In the cellular respiration, the chemical energy in the sugar is converted or transferred into ATP.
Some part of it is released in the form of heat. The chemical energy changes into heat energy.
Hence, the correct answer is option B
The two major theories of the origin of flight are the Top-down (arboreal) theory and the Bottom-up (terrestial) theory. However, there is a hybrid theory known as the WAIR theory. Which of these best describes that theory?
a. Wings were used to support gliding from tree to tree and eventually transitioned into a flapping motion
b. Wings were used to help predatory runners to keep their balance or add lift while leaping to catch prey
c. Wings were used to generate lift to takeoff during flapping flight
d. Wings were used in a flapping motion to help climb up steep inclined slopes such as trees
e. Wings were used to generate propulsion while swimming in the water
Answer:
d. Wings were used in a flapping motion to help climb up steep inclined slopes such as trees
Explanation:
According to Top-down ( arboreal ) theory, feathered bird/dinosaur were tree dwelling species. They leaped in between trees to catch prey or avoid predators. They evolved flight mechanism to be able to glide better. According to Bottom-up ( terrestrial ) theory, feathered bird/ dinosaur were ground dwelling species. They used feathers to be able to sprint better and maintain balance while doing so. They also got lift with the help of feathers before running.
Both of these theories either considered origin of flight as a mechanism formed from tree dwelling species or by ground dwelling species. WAIR theory or Wing Assisted Incline Running theory had components from both of them. According to it, birds could run along steep or inclined slopes using wings, so they neither had to be completely tree dwelling or completely ground dwelling. Wings propelled them up the slopes and also conserved their energy.
Explain what is meant by the antiparallel polarity of the two strands of DNA within the double helix.
Answer:
The two DNA strands have anti parallel polarity which means that they are directional and anti parallel to each other. The polarity to these strands is conferred by the deoxyribose sugar molecule in nucleotide. The sugar molecule has 5 Carbon atoms. The third carbon is attached to an OH group and the fifth carbon is attached to a phosphate molecule. This asymmetry is responsible for giving DNA molecule a direction.
The double helix structure has both these strands in opposite direction so that the 5 prime carbon of one strand faces the 3 prime carbon of another. The anti parallel structure of DNA strands lets the base pairs complement each other. Anti parallel structure is also more stable than parallel structure.
Which of the following traits evolved multiple times over the course of the evolution of vertebrates?
a. Hair
b. Flight
c. Oviparity
d. Homodonty
Answer:
The correct answer is option b, that is, flight.
Explanation:
Our atmosphere is comparatively thick, and it possesses the tendency of supporting the creatures, which are light. The factual flight, however, relies upon the fact that whether an individual is sufficiently light, and is equipped with appropriate characteristics, and has a desire to make a since the attempt to make aloft.
The birds are the most apparent fliers in the world we live in. The first bird appeared in the fossil about sixty-five million years ago. Like birds, bats also have developed an elegant approach to flight. Similarly to birds, they exhibit lightweight and slender bones, and a compact skeleton, and have developed strong muscles for flapping flight.
Final answer:
b) Flight is the trait that evolved multiple times in vertebrates, with different species developing unique wing structures through convergent evolution.
Explanation:
The trait that evolved multiple times over the course of the evolution of vertebrates is flight. Flight has evolved independently in different vertebrate lineages through a process known as convergent evolution. This is evident in the wings of pterodactyls, birds, and bats, which are structures adapted for the purpose of flight, but each has a unique anatomical development despite the forelimbs being homologous structures. On the other hand, hair has evolved only in the lineage leading to mammals, and oviparity, though widespread, is not an example of multiple independent evolutionary events. Homodonty, the condition of having teeth uniform in shape, may have appeared in different lineages but is not as clear an example of repeated evolution as flight. The development of traits like a high metabolism, a four-chambered heart, and other modifications have supported the evolution of flight in vertebrates.
Which of the following statements about genetically modified organisms (GMOS) are correct? Select all that apply. options: Transgenic goats have been engineered with a human gene that produces blood anticoagulant protein. Transgenic mice are frequently used to study the effects of gene mutations. Transgenic bacteria are used to produce protein for human consumption. Transgenic bacteria are used to produce human growth hormone.
Genetically modified organisms (GMOS) can have various applications, including producing anticoagulant proteins in goats and studying gene mutations in mice. Transgenic bacteria are also used to produce proteins for human consumption.
Explanation:The correct statements about genetically modified organisms (GMOS) are:
Transgenic goats have been engineered with a human gene that produces blood anticoagulant protein. This means that these goats can produce blood anticoagulant proteins that can be used for medical purposes.Transgenic mice are frequently used to study the effects of gene mutations. These mice have specific genes modified to understand the effects of genetic mutations on different aspects of biology.Transgenic bacteria are used to produce protein for human consumption. Through genetic engineering, these bacteria can produce specific proteins that can be used for various purposes, including human consumption.Learn more about Genetically modified organisms (GMOS) here:https://brainly.com/question/32271387
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Final answer:
Correct statements about GMOs include the engineering of transgenic goats to produce a blood anticoagulant protein, the use of transgenic mice to study gene mutations, and the use of transgenic bacteria to produce proteins like human growth hormone for human consumption.
Explanation:
Among the statements about genetically modified organisms (GMOs), several are correct:
Transgenic goats have indeed been engineered with a human gene to produce a blood anticoagulant protein in their milk, which has been approved by the FDA for use in humans.Transgenic mice are commonly utilized in research to study the effects of gene mutations, providing valuable insight into genetic functions and diseases.Transgenic bacteria are employed in the production of proteins for human consumption, such as insulin and various other medically important substances.Additionally, transgenic bacteria have been used to produce human growth hormone, among other proteins, for therapeutic purposes.
Bryophytes never formedforests (mats maybe, but not forests)
because
A) they possess flagellated sperm.
B) of bacterial parasites
C) they lack lignified vascular tissue.
D) they have no adaptations to prevent desiccation.
E) their rhizoids were too weak.
Answer:
C) they lack lignified vascular tissue. ( Since they do not have vascular tissues, they are not able to develop vertically like the trees we know.)
Explanation:
A) Plants do not have "sperm". They have sporophytes or gametophytes.
B) No specific parasitic bacteria of bryophytes are known.
D) In fact, they have. Although they require water for their reproduction, some species of bryophytes are found in deserts.
E) Rhizoids are not weak, otherwise they would not have the ability to keep bryophytes attached (mosses).
Explain the biological basis for assigning all human populations to a single species. Can you think of a scenario by which a second human species could originate in the future?
Answer:
Molecular biology (DNA sampling) is the best proof.
Explanation:
An study published in the journal of science found that 99.9% of humans are quite similar. The scientific team analysed DNA from 1,056 people from 52 populations in Africa, Eurasia (Europe, the Middle East, Central and South Asia), East Asia, Oceania and the Americas.
The phenotype ( visible appearance) results from a very small proportion of differences in genetic traits, hence the concept "race" is more a cultural concept than a biological concept.
Plantlike photosynthesis that releases O2 occurs in
(A) cyanobacteria.
(B) archaea.
(C) gram-positive bacteria.
(D) chemoautotrophic bacteria
Answer:
Cyanobacteria. (Ans. A)
Explanation:
Cyanobacteria are prokaryotes, are a phylum of bacteria. They are also called as blue-green algae and obtain their energy through the process of photosynthesis. They are commonly found in fresh water and terrestrial environment such as land, in rocks even in animal cells (fur).
Cyanobacteria are photosynthetic (oxygenic) bacteria. They harvest the energy of sun, absorb carbon dioxide and release O2. Cyanobacteria also contain chlorophyll such as plants and algae and convert carbon dioxide to sugar through the process of carbon fixation.
Cyanobacteria lack nucleus and other organelles like found in algae and plants. Instead of these they have double outer cell membrane and folded inner thylakoid member which are used in the process of photosynthesis.
Plant like photosynthesis that releases oxygen occurs in cyanobacteria and the correct option is option A.
Cyanobacteria are a group of prokaryotic organisms that are photosynthetic. They are also known as "blue-green algae" because they produce a blue-green pigment called phycocyanin.
Cyanobacteria are found in a wide variety of habitats, including freshwater, saltwater, and soil. They are also found in extreme environments, such as hot springs and deserts.
Cyanobacteria are important for the environment because they produce oxygen. They are also responsible for the formation of some types of rocks, such as stromatolites.
Thus, the ideal selection is option A.
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Huntington disease is a rare fatal, degenerative neurological disease in which individuals start to show symptoms, on average, in their 40s. It is caused by a dominant allele. Joe, a man in his 20s, just learned that his father has Huntington disease. a. What is the probability that Joe will also develop the disease? b. Joe and his new wife have been eager to start a family. What is the probability that their first child will eventually develop the disease?
Answer:
a. 50% b. 25%
Explanation:
If you have a dominant disease, you will always have it if you have the gen.
Joe's father has it.
If his father was heterozygous dominant, he has two genes for the same trait and could have the other gen recessive.
In this case, you have a 50% chance of joe having the disease.
If his wife did not have the disease, and joe has it, the chances of their child to have it is 25%
To know that, you can draw the possibilities.
Joe's father: Aa (A is the dominant, sick gen)
Joe's mother: aa
Aa x aa = Aa Aa aa aa = 50% having it Aa 50% not having it aa.
Joe's possibilities: Aa or aa
Joe's wife: aa
Possibilities of offspring:
Aa x aa = 50% having it Aa 50% not having it aa.
aa x aa = 100% not having the disease.
Their child has 1/4 posibilities to have it
Joe has a 50% chance of having inherited Huntington's disease from his father, and if Joe carries the allele, there is also a 50% chance that he will pass the allele on to his child, potentially resulting in the child developing the disease.
Explanation:Huntington's disease is an autosomal dominant disorder, meaning only one copy of the defective allele is enough to cause the disease. If a person has the disease, they carry at least one copy of the mutated allele.
a. Given Joe's father has Huntington's disease, and assuming his mother does not carry the gene (since it's not indicated that she has the disease or is a carrier), Joe has a 50% probability of having inherited the disease-causing allele from his father.
b. If Joe inherited the Huntington allele, there's a 50% chance that he would pass this allele on to any of his children. Therefore, the probability that Joe and his wife's first child will eventually develop the disease is also 50%, provided Joe carries the allele. If Joe does not have the allele, then their child cannot inherit the disease from him.
If photosynthesis is happening which of the following would you expect to happen? Choose all that apply.
a. 02 levels will rise
b. CO2 levels will rise
c. O2 levels will fall
d. CO2 evels will fall
Answer:
The correct answer will be options-A and D.
Explanation:
Photosynthesis is a complex process which forms the glucose, the energy molecule of the plant. Photosynthesis takes place in the two phases: light-dependent reaction and light-independent reactions.
The light-dependent reaction leads to the breakdown of the water molecule which produces oxygen whereas in light-independent reaction, the carbon dioxide gets fixed during the carboxylation step of cycle utilizing the carbon dioxide.
Therefore, if photosynthesis takes place then it will lead to a rise in the level of oxygen and reduction in the amount of carbon dioxide. Thus, options-A and D are the correct answer.
During photosynthesis, plants use carbon dioxide to create glucose and release oxygen. Hence, O2 levels rise, and CO2 levels fall.
Explanation:In the process of photosynthesis, plants use sunlight to convert water and carbon dioxide (CO2) into glucose and oxygen (O2). Thus, during photosynthesis, you can expect that the levels of carbon dioxide (CO2) will fall as it is being used up, and the levels of oxygen (O2) will rise as it is being produced. So, the correct choices would be: a. O2 levels will rise, and d. CO2 levels will fall.
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Alteration of DNA or Chromatin structure is a form of gene regulation seen more in Eukaryotes than Bacteria, why is this?
Answer:
Eukaryotes are more composite in comparison to prokaryotes like bacteria. In eukaryotes, the processes of translation and transcription take place in distinct compartments like translation take place in cytosol and transcription takes place in the nucleus.
However, in bacteria both the procedures take place in cytosol as the genetic substance of bacteria is found in the mid of the cell, which lacks nuclear membrane.
In prokaryotes these processes are comparatively simple, however, in eukaryotes, these processes are highly composite and need regulation. In prokaryotes the control takes place only at the level of transcription, while in eukaryotes the regulation of gene takes place at both transcription and posttranslational level.
How does the hypothalamus monitor water in the body?
A. If blood is too concentrated, the hypothalamus nerve cells will contain too much salt.
B. If blood is too concentrated, the hypothalamus it registers dehydration in its own cells.
C. If blood is too concentrated, the hypothalamus registers ADH in the blood.
D. If blood is too concentrated, nerve cells in the hypothalamus it has nerve cells that lose water by osmosis and fire more slowly.
E. If blood is too concentrated, in the hypothalamus it registers that its cells are losing water by osmosis.
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-C.
Explanation:
Hypothalamus is a part of the brain which controls many important functions of the body by producing hormones.
When the amount of water gets reduced in the blood, it leads to a change in the osmolarity which can be easily detected by the osmorecpetors present in the neurons of the hypothalamus.
In response, neurons secrete Anti-diuretic hormone in the blood which acts in the tubules of the kidney where they help in re-absorption of the water from the body.
Thus, Option-C is the correct answer.
Mutations that occur without a known cause are known as:
a. spontaneous mutations
b. induced mutations
c. harmful mutations
d. adaptive mutations
e. reversion mutations
Answer:
a. spontaneous mutations
Explanation:
Spontaneous mutations occur randomly in all cells and without any agents. Induced mutations are the result of some exposure to a physical or chemical agent called a mutagen. Mutations can be classified as harmful and adaptive regardless of whether they were spontaneous or induced mutations. The reversal mutation is when a given mutation is reversed by another mutation so that the nucleotide is changed back to its original state.
Describe the path that air takes as it enters and passes through the human respiratory system.
Answer:
In our respiratory system, there is a pair of external nostril situated above the upper lip that receives atmospheric air and passed to the pharynx (a common passage for air and food). The pharynx passed this air to the trachea via larynx (known as the soundbox). The trachea is an extended part which is divided into left and right primary bronchi. Bronchi divide into secondary bronchi, tertiary bronchi, and bronchioles that ending up in thin terminal bronchioles. Each terminal bronchiole constitutes a number of irregular-walled, thin and vascularised bag-like structures called alveoli which are the primary sites of gases exchange.
Over a period of several years, a large hospital kept track of the number of births of babies displaying the trait achondroplasia. Achondroplasia is a very rare autosomal dominant condition resulting in dwarfism with abnormal body proportions. After 120,000 births, it was noted that there had been 27 babies born with achondroplasia. One physician was interested in determining how many of these dwarf babies result from new mutations and whether the apparent mutation rate in his area was higher than normal. He looked up the families of the 27 dwarf births and discovered that 4 of the dwarf babies had a dwarf parent. What is the apparent mutation rate of the achondroplasia gene in this population? Is it unusually high or low?
Answer:
In the population of the study, mutation in the achondroplasia gene is unusually high
Explanation:
In this population, the incidence of genetic mutation that leads to achondroplasia would be 6 children for every 30,000 births. In the general population, achodroplasia has an incidence of 1 per 30,000 births, which indicates that in this specific population, the mutation rate is high above average, which can be explained by a high prevalence of the gene in the population.
Achondroplasia is a genetic disease with inheritance of an autosomal dominant pattern and to suffer from the disease, only one copy of the defective gene is necessary.However, in recent years after several studies it has been possible to demonstrate that even achondroplasia could be generated even in new mutations in the germ cells of the parents.
Final answer:
Explanation of the apparent mutation rate in a population for the achondroplasia gene and interpretation of the findings.
Explanation:
Achondroplasia Mutation Rate Calculation: The apparent mutation rate of the achondroplasia gene in this population can be calculated by considering the number of new mutations. Out of the 27 babies born with achondroplasia, 4 had a dwarf parent, indicating 23 new mutations. So, the apparent mutation rate is 23/120,000, which is 0.00019 or 0.019%.
Interpretation of Mutation Rate: The apparent mutation rate in this case is relatively low, as only a small percentage of the births exhibited new mutations. It suggests that the mutation rate in this population for the achondroplasia gene is not unusually high.
Simply, translation is a copy of _______________
a. DNA from mRNA
b. DNA from DNA
c. protein from RNA
d. RNA from DNA
Answer:
c. protein from RNA
Explanation:
Translation is a process that occurs in the ribosomes where tRNA is used to read the mRNA strand and translate the codons into complementary amino acids.
What is the probability of producing a child that will phenotypically resemble either one of the two parents in the following four crosses? How many phenotypically different kinds of progeny could potentially result from each of the four crosses? a. Aa Bb Cc Ddx aa bb cc dd b. aa bb cc ddx AA BB CC DD c. Aa Bb cc Ddx Aa Bb cc Dd d. aa bb cc ddx aa bb cc dd
Final answer:
In genetic crosses involving parents with different combinations of dominant and recessive alleles, the likelihood and number of phenotypically different progenies vary. Simple crosses with one parent being completely dominant and the other completely recessive result in offspring that phenotypically resemble both parents. More complex crosses yield a greater variety of possible phenotypes.
Explanation:
The question involves predicting the potential phenotypes and genotypes of offspring from various genetic crosses. Using basic principles of Mendelian genetics and the rules for multihybrid fertilization, we assess each cross for the number of phenotypically different kinds of progeny and their respective probabilities. These principles include analyzing the segregation of alleles and applying the product and sum rules for determining probabilities in genetic outcomes.
Cross Analysis
Aa Bb Cc Dd x aa bb cc dd: This cross between two parents with completely heterozygous and completely homozygous recessive genotypes respectively, would result in offspring that are all Aa Bb Cc Dd, resembling both parents phenotypically since all traits are dominantly represented. There is 1 kind of phenotypically different progeny. aa bb cc dd x AA BB CC DD: This cross results in offspring all having heterozygous genotypes for each trait (Aa Bb Cc Dd), again resembling both parents phenotypically. Only 1 kind of phenotypically different progeny is possible. Aa Bb cc Dd x Aa Bb cc Dd: Considering each gene separately and using the product rule, the offspring could have a variety of combinations, leading to multiple phenotypically different kinds. We apply rules for multihybrid crosses leading to a varied mix of phenotypes, potentially resembling both parents in various combinations. aa bb cc dd x aa bb cc dd: This cross between two homozygous recessive parents results in offspring identical to the parents with the genotype aa bb cc dd. There is 1 kind of phenotypically different progeny, which directly resembles both parents.
The probability of producing a child that phenotypically resembles either one of the two parents in these crosses varies, but in cases where one parent is completely dominant and the other is completely recessive, all offspring will phenotypically resemble both parents due to the dominance of traits. In more complex crosses, like the third example, multiple phenotypes can result, thereby reducing the probability that an offspring will resemble one parent over the other.
The term cancer means
A) out of control.
B) cell division.
C) crab
D) lobster
Answer: B) Cell Division
Explanation: Cancer is the rapid division of cells. It comes in many forms (Eg: Brain Cancer, Breast Cancer) and can be deadly.
Muscle cells differ from nerve cells mainly because they
a. express different genes.
b. contain different genes.
c. use different genetic codes.
d. have unique ribosomes.
Answer: a. express different genes.
Explanation:
The nerve cells is functional for controlling the coordination of the body, respond to the external stimuli, voluntary actions in the body. The muscle cells contract and relax to facilitate the locomotion.
All the somatic cells of a living being have the same genomic make up. However, completely differentiated cells of particular tissue lineages express distinct genes, as required so as to perform specialized functions in the body.
Muscle and nerve cells differ because they express different genes, despite containing the same genetic material; gene expression regulation allows for cell specialization.
Explanation:Muscle cells differ from nerve cells mainly because they express different genes. Both muscle and nerve cells contain the same set of genes within their DNA, but they do not turn on, or express, the same genes. Different cell types, like muscle and nerve cells, use the expression of different sets of genes to specialize their functions. Despite having the same genetic code and genome, it is the regulation of gene expression that allows cells to differentiate and perform diverse roles within an organism.
All of the following are respiratory enzyme complexes involved in the electron transport chain except?
a. NADH dehydrogenase
b. NADPH dehydrogenase
c. Cytochrome C reductase
d. Cytochrome C oxidase
Answer:
NADPH dehydrogenase.
Explanation:
Electron transport chain may be defined as the sequential steps of transfer of electrons through the complexes and couple with proton gradient. The ATP is generated by the electron transport chain.
NADPH dehydrogenase is an ezymes that are used for the conversion of NADPH into NADH+. The NADH dehydrogenase is complex I of the electron transport chain. The NADPH dehydrogenase is not the enzymes complexes and not involved in the electron transport chain.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
Final answer:
The electron transport chain in mitochondria does not include NADPH dehydrogenase, which is instead associated with processes like photosynthesis. The other complexes listed are involved in the different steps of the mitochondrial electron transport chain. So the correct option is a.
Explanation:
The subject of this question is the respiratory enzyme complexes involved in the electron transport chain, specifically which one is not part of this process. The correct answer to the question is b. NADPH dehydrogenase. The other options provided are indeed part of the electron transport chain, as follows:
Complex I (NADH dehydrogenase or NADH-coenzyme Q oxidoreductase) accepts electrons from NADH.Complex III (Cytochrome C reductase) receives electrons from coenzyme Q and passes them to cytochrome c.Complex IV (Cytochrome C oxidase) receives electrons from cytochrome c and completes the electron transport chain by reducing oxygen to water.NADPH dehydrogenase is not a component of the mitochondrial electron transport chain; rather, it is associated with other processes such as photosynthesis in plants.
Explain the differences between prokaryotes, eukaryotes and mitochondria(eukaryotic organelle). Which 2 of those 3 are most similar?
Eukaryotic
Cells with a differentiated nucleus that contains all the DNA, limited by nucleus membrane, and has a cytoplasm limited with the plasma membrane that contains organelles.
The ribosomes are bigger, 80 S (svedbeg is the measuring unit)
Procaryotic
All its genetic material spread on the cytoplasm.
This kind of cell does not have organelles. All biologic processes made in specific places in the plasma membrane.
The ribosomes are smaller, 70 S.
Mitochondria
It's an organelle you can find inside a eukaryotic cell.
It has two membranes, one outsider, and one insider.
The insider one has folded.
Scientific believe that millions of years ago, the mitochondria was a bacteria and the eukaryotic cell phagocyte it and became part of it.
The ribosomes are the same size that procaryotic cells.
Define reading frame and discuss its significance to the genetic code.
Basically, a reading frame is the result of DNA or RNA nucleotide sequencing in non-overlapping triplets. It's like taking the strand of DNA and / or RNA and stretching it into a straight line. Thus, all nitrogenous bases would be in sequence and aligned as in a row. Each three nitrogenous bases (codon) encodes a protein.
The reading structure has revolutionized the field of genetics and evolution, since we can see the sequencing of the genes of individuals, we can make comparisons between their DNAs to discover possible evolutionary relationships between them. In addition, it is also very important in medicine to locate sequences where there are genetic mutations (base exchanges or subtractions).
Which would have the highest melting temperature?
a. 5'-AATTCGAAT-3'
b. 5'-ACGGCTACG-3'
Answer:
Option (b).
Explanation:
Melting temperature may be defined as the temperature at which the DNA strand melts. The melting temperature depends on the Guanine and cytosine content of the DNA.
The thymine binds with Adenine with two hydrogen bonds whereas cytosine binds with guanine with three hydrogen bonds. More energy is required to break the guanine cytosine bonds and they have high temperature. The second strand 5'-ACGGCTACG-3' contains more GC content and hence have high melting temperature.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
Predict phenotypes associated with nondisjunction of sex chromosomes.
Answer: The new daughter cells will have an abnormal amount of genetic material. That is called aneuploidy and it is the presence of an abnormal number of chromosomes. Different clinical conditions are the result of this nondisjunction.
Explanation:
Normal cells are diploids, that means they have two copies of each gene, one of each chromosome. So normal cells have two homologous chromosomes, one from each parent.
During anaphase of cell division, each pair of chromosomes is separated by the mitotic spindle. The separated chromosomes are then pulled by the spindle to opposite poles of the cell, and eventually will end up in the new daughter cells.
Nondisjunction is the failure of homologous chromosomes to separate properly during cell division, so it is the miss segregation of them. The new daughter cells will have an abnormal amount of genetic material. Different clinical conditions are the result of this nondisjunction.
Sex chromosomes participates in sex determination of an individual. Females have two X chromosomes (XX), while males have one X and one Y chromosome (XY) So nondisjunction of sex chromosomes could be:
XX: one cell with no chromosome and the other cell with two X chromosomes.XY: one cell with no chromosomes and the other cell with XY chromosomes.According to which gametes are fused during fertilization, different phenotypes can be given. For example, if a gamete with one chromosome fuses with another gamete with two chromosomes, the result will be an individual with three chromosomes (it could be XXY, or XXX) called trisomy.
Triple X syndrome is characterized by an extra X chromosome in females. Those affected are often taller than average, but most females have a normal sexual development. Klinefelter syndrome is known XXY individuals, and it causes infertility in males, breast growth, less body hair and weaker muscles.
And if a gamete with no chromosome fuses also with another gamete with no chromosome, the result is a nullisomy. But due to the lack of genetic material, the nullisomic gametes are rendered unviable for fertilization.
And if a gamete with no chromosome fuses with another gamete with one chromosome (normal) the result is a monosomy, the presence of only one chromosome from a pair. The result can be an individual who is X or Y. People with Turner syndrome have one X chromosome and it is the only monosomy that is seen in humans because other cases monosomy are lethal.
Any of those examples is called aneuploidy and it is the presence of an abnormal number of chromosomes.
How would the artificial mRNA 5'..GUGUGUGU'.. code? (a). two-base, not overlapping (b). two-base, overlapping (c). three-base, not overlapping d. three-base, overlapping e. four-base, not overlapping 3' be read according to each of the following models for the genetic
Answer:
The sequence given is:
5'....GUGUGUGU...3'
a. The two base, not overlapping model would be as follows:
GU GU GU GU
b. The two base overlapping model would be as follows:
GU UG GU UG GU UG GU UG
c. The three base non-overlapping model would be as follows:
GUG UGU GU
d. The three base overlapping model would be as follows:
GUG UGU GUG UGU GUG UGU GU
e. The four base non-overlapping model would be as follows:
GUGU GUGU
What is an antigen? Antibody?
Answer:
Explanation:
Antibodies are proteins manufactured by the body that help fight against foreign substances called antigens.
Antigens are any substance that stimulates the immune system to produce antibodies. Antigens can be bacteria, viruses, or fungi that cause infection and disease
From which part of the embryvo are embryonic stem cell lines derived?
Answer:
Undifferentiated inner cell mass
Explanation:
Human embryo has two types of cells in its initial stage, trophoblast and inner cell mass. Trophoblast forms the placenta and inner cell mass form the entire human body. Inner cell mass are pluripotent in nature i.e. they can give rise to any body part under right conditions.
Embryonic stem cells are derived from the inner cell mass. They are derived from pre implantation embryo since after implantation the inner cell mass begins to differentiate. Embryonic stem cells can replicate indefinitely without differentiating. They can give rise to all the three germ layers: ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm. They can treat a number of disorders like genetic disorders, Parkinson's, spinal cord injury, cancers etc.
Fossilized stromatolites
(A) formed around deep-sea vents.
(B) resemble structures formed by bacterial communities that are found today in some shallow marine bays.
(C) provide evidence that plants moved onto land in the company of fungi around 500 million years ago.
(D) contain the first undisputed fossils of eukaryotes.
Answer:
(B) resemble structures formed by bacterial communities that are found today in some shallow marine bays.
Explanation:
Extant stromatolites represent real "living fossils" for they are decendents of ancient forms that are associated with one of the first living forms on earth. Particularly, stromatolites are real bacteria communities where the autotrophic organism of the community are represented by cyanobacteria, which live along with heterotrophic bacteria. This clearly indicates that fossilized stromatolites points to bacteria (prokaryotes) as the first living things on earth (dated with not less than 3.5 billion year old)
Nowadays, stromatolites with cyanobacteria allows to reconstruct and understand fossilized forms. These current structures live in shallow marines ambients (e.g. Australia) but also in continental salt flats (e.g. Argentina) where few others bacteria can survive to these extreme conditions (high light exposure and salt concentration).
Stromatolites are sedimentary formations created by cyanobacteria that resemble structures found today in some shallow marine bays. They provide key insight into early photosynthetic life on Earth.
Explanation:Stromatolites are layered mounds, columns, and sheet-like sedimentary rocks that were originally formed by the growth of layer upon layer of certain cyanobacteria, a primitive form of photosynthetic life. Option (B) is correct - Stromatolites resemble structures formed by bacterial communities that are found today in some shallow marine bays. The cyanobacteria secrete a sticky substance to which sediment adheres, and if conditions are right and undisturbed by other organisms or strong currents, a new layer of cyanobacteria grows over it and the process repeats, leading to the formation of a fossilized layered structure.
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Predict the effects of the following types of gene mutations on the protein encoded by that gene (your answer can be just a few words for each).
Nonsense mutation
Missense mutation
Synonymous (silent) mutation
Single nucleotide insertion or deletion
Three nucleotide deletion
Chromosomal translocation
Answer:
Nonsense mutation: it causes a premature stop codon, so the protein cannot be fully synthesized.
Missense mutation: it causes change on the aminoacid encoded, so it can cause a change in the protein structure if the new aminoacid doesn't have the same chemichal properties as the original.
Synonymous (silent) mutation: it causes no change, the same aminoacid is encoded.
Single nucleotide insertion or deletion: changes the entire structure of the protein because it shifts the reading frame.
Three nucleotide deletion: one aminoacid will no longer be part of the protein, if this aminoacid was located, for example, on the active site of an enzyme, the protein could lose its function.
Chromosomal translocation: it can break a gene in two, causing the protein to no longer be able to be synthesized, or it can change the transcription regulation because it is now under the effect of other regulating sites that result in a different transcription pattern.
Which of the following is the correct anticodon sequence that corresponds with the codon sequence AUG?
a. AUG
b. GUA
c. TAC
d. UAC
e. CAU
Answer:
d. UAC
Explanation:
An anticodon, present on tRNA, is the complementary sequence to a determined codon on the mRNA. tRNA is responsible for placing the aminoacids in the correct order when a protein is being translated, and it does so by complementary binding the codons on the mRNA. Each tRNA can hold a different aminoacid, so, for example, the codon AUG encodes the aminoacid methionine, and this means that only a tRNA that has an anticodon with the sequence UAC will be able to hold metionine and place it on its position on the protein sequence.
Final answer:
The correct anticodon sequence that corresponds with the mRNA codon AUG is UAC. This anticodon-codon pairing is essential for the proper translation of genetic information from mRNA into proteins during protein synthesis.
Explanation:
The correct anticodon sequence corresponding to the codon sequence AUG is UAC. The anticodon is a sequence of three nucleotides forming a unit of genetic code in a transfer RNA (tRNA) molecule, corresponding to a complementary codon in messenger RNA (mRNA). During the translation process in protein synthesis, the anticodon pairs with a codon according to base-pairing rules (adenine (A) with uracil (U) and cytosine (C) with guanine (G)). Since the mRNA codon AUG codes for the initiation of protein synthesis and also specifies the incorporation of methionine (Met), the tRNA molecule with the anticodon UAC is the one that pairs with it, bringing methionine into the growing peptide chain.