Answer:
25% mixture of N15 and N14 and 75% of exclusively N14.
Explanation:
In the Meselson and Stahl experiment a double DNA chain formed by N15 is placed in a medium with only N14. Therefore, when replicated, the new chains will be synthesized with N14 (lighter). This can be corroborated by centrifuging the sample.
Before replication, a single band corresponding to the double helix of N15 DNA is observed.
After a single replication, only one band corresponding to DNA is observed with 1 strand N15 and 1 strand N14.
After the second replication, two bands will be observed. One for DNA of 1 strand N15 and 1 strand N14 and the other for DNA of 2 strands N14.
The same will happen for the third replication. At this point, the DNA present will consist of a 25% mixture of N15 and N14 and 75% of exclusively N14.
This experiment proves that DNA replication is semi-conservative.
Final answer:
After three rounds of replication, 25% of the DNA would contain exclusively 14N, while the remaining 75% would be a mix of 14N and 15N. No DNA would contain exclusively 15N.
Explanation:
The Meselson and Stahl experiment was conducted to determine how DNA replicates. They used E. coli bacteria and labeled the DNA with a heavy isotope of nitrogen (¹5N). After one round of cell division in 14N media, the DNA sedimented halfway between the 15N and 14N levels, indicating that it now contained fifty percent 14N. This result supports the semi-conservative replication model.
After three rounds of replication, the percentage of DNA containing exclusively 15N would be zero, as the initial heavy isotope of nitrogen would be diluted with each round of replication. The percentage of DNA containing exclusively 14N would be 25%. This is because the 14N DNA will replicate during each round, resulting in an increasing amount of 14N-only DNA with each cycle. The remaining 75% of the DNA would be a mix of 14N and 15N, as some of the original 15N DNA would still be present after three rounds of replication.
Which of the following minerals helps maintains osmotic pressure, regulates pH, and required for the conduction of nervous impulses along axons?
a. Copper
b. Chlorine
c. Phosphorus
d. Sodium
Answer: d. Sodium
Explanation:
Sodium (Na), has atomic number 11, it makes up 2.8% of Earth's crust by weight and 0.2% of the human body by weight. It is the principal positive ion outside cells, has an essential role in maintaining water balance inside the cells, important in nerve function, and blood pressure regulation when combined with potassium.
A client has a new tracheostomy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include when performing tracheostomy care?Select one:a. Remove soiled dressing with sterile gloves.b. Suction the tracheostomy before beginning care. c. Change tracheostomy ties when soiled.d. Clean disposable inner cannula with hydrogen peroxide.
The interventions should the nurse include when performing tracheostomy care is to change tracheostomy ties when soiled. So, the correct option is C.
What do you mean by Tracheostomy?
It is a surgical procedure to create an opening through the neck into the trachea (windpipe). Its function is to relieve difficulties in breathing.
It is mandatory to change the tracheostomy ties whenever they are wet or dirty. If such conditions do not arise then they are changed every 24 hours. It is important to keep such ties clean and dry. During the process of changing, gloves should be properly washed to avoid the chances of contamination.
Therefore, the interventions should the nurse include when performing tracheostomy care is to change tracheostomy ties when soiled.
To learn more about Tracheostomy, refer to the link:
https://brainly.com/question/8056885
When performing tracheostomy care, a nurse must adhere to hygiene and infection-prevention practices. This includes removing soiled dressings with sterile gloves, suctioning the tracheostomy before care, changing tracheostomy ties when soiled, and cleaning the disposable inner cannula with hydrogen peroxide to prevent the risk of infection.
Explanation:When performing tracheostomy care for a client with a new tracheostomy, the nurse must prioritize hygiene and infection-prevention practices. The nurse should start by adhering to strict handwashing protocol before and after patient interaction. It is crucial to reduce any potential bacterial flora from the nurse's skin to prevent infecting the tracheostomy site.
Based on the options provided, and taking into consideration standard medical procedures, all the interventions are necessary. The nurse should a. Remove soiled dressing with sterile gloves in order to prevent contamination. Similarly, c. Changing tracheostomy ties when soiled is important to reduce the risk of microbes spreading to the tracheostomy site. The step b. Suction the tracheostomy before beginning care is typically required to free the airway passage from any mucus or discharges. Lastly, the nurse should d. Clean disposable inner cannula with hydrogen peroxide. Hydrogen peroxide is a commonly used antiseptic that aids in eliminating bacteria, thus preventing the risk of infection.
Learn more about Tracheostomy Care here:https://brainly.com/question/36585612
#SPJ3
What are Intramembranous and endochondral ossification?
Answer:
The direct conversion of mesenchymal tissue into bone is called intramembranous ossification .The process by which a cartilage intermediate is formed and replaced by bone cells is called endochondral osssification.
Explanation:
Intramembranous ossification is one of the two essential process during the fetal development of the gnathosome skeltal system by which rudimentary bone tissue is created. It is the process of bone development from fibrous membranes. It is involved in the formation of the flat bones of the skull, mandible and the clavicle. This type of ossification also helps in healing of bone fractures.
Endochondral Osssification: Method of forming a bone through cartilage intermediate. It is also involved in the formation of long bones.
Thermal homeostasis can be defined as…
The ability to change internal body temperatures to match changing external environmental temperatures
The ability to maintain relatively constant, stable internal body temperatures that closely follow changing external environmental temperatures
The ability to maintain relatively constant, stable internal body temperatures when dealing with changes in external environmental temperatures
None of the above
Answer:
The ability to change internal body temperatures to match changing external environmental temperatures
Explanation: this is basically the same thing as homeostasis as this is occurring in warm blooded mammals
Which of the following is not a function of astrocytes? A. provide the defense for the CNS B. guide the migration of young neurons, synapse formation, and helping to determine capillary permeability C. support and brace neurons D. anchor neurons to blood vessels E. control the chemical environment around neurons
Answer:
A. provide the defense for the CNS
Explanation:
Astrocytes are star-shaped cells (glial cells) that are present in the brain and also in spinal cord.
Astrocytes perform number of the functions there, including; guidance to axons, synapse formation, supporting and bracing to the neurons, control of chemical environment around the neuron and control the blood brain barrier too.
Astrocytes provide various supports to neurons in the CNS but providing the defense for the CNS is primarily the function of microglial cells, not astrocytes.
Explanation:The primary role of astrocytes, a type of glial cell in the central nervous system (CNS), includes: maintaining the concentration of chemicals in the extracellular space, providing nutrients and structural support to neurons, and contributing to the blood-brain barrier. Specifically, astrocytes support neurons by anchoring them to blood vessels and controlling the chemical environment around them. They also guide the migration of young neurons and play a role in synapse formation. However, providing the defense for the CNS is not a function directly carried out by astrocytes. This function is principally performed by another type of glial cell known as microglial cells, which act as the main form of active immune defense in the CNS.
Learn more about Astrocytes Functions here:https://brainly.com/question/34188968
#SPJ11
The double-stranded DNA molecule of the newly discovered Elradicus libanii has a length of 34 micrometers. How many base pairs are present in this molecule?
Answer:
100 000
Explanation:
The average length of a base pair (bp) is 340 pm [340 × 10^(-12) m]
Length of DNA = No. of bp × length of bp
34 × 10^-6 m = n × 340 × 10^-12 m
n = (34 × 10^-6)/(340 × 10^-12) = 100 000
The DNA molecule contains 100 000 base pairs.
To find the number of base pairs in a 34 micrometer DNA molecule of Elradicus libanii, convert the length to nanometers and divide by the length of one base pair (0.34 nm). The calculation results in 100,000 base pairs.
Explanation:To determine the number of base pairs in the DNA molecule of the newly discovered Elradicus libanii, we need to utilize the length of one base pair and the total length of the molecule. We know that each base pair in a DNA molecule is approximately 0.34 nm in length. First, we convert the given length of the DNA molecule from micrometers to nanometers; 1 micrometer = 1000 nanometers, so 34 micrometers is the same as 34,000 nanometers.
Now, to find the number of base pairs, we divide the total length of the DNA molecule by the length of one base pair:
Total length of DNA molecule = 34,000 nmLength of one base pair = 0.34 nmNumber of base pairs = Total length of DNA molecule ÷ Length of one base pairTherefore, the number of base pairs = 34,000 nm ÷ 0.34 nm/base pair = 100,000 base pairs.
Thermal decomposition of rail car load of limestone to lime and carbon dioxide requires 7.92 x 106 kJ of heat. Convert this energy to calories. Once you have the value, determine its log (base 10) and enter this in decimal format with three decimal places. Do not include units.
Answer:
[tex]9.276[/tex]
Explanation:
As we know that one kilo joules is equal to [tex]239.006[/tex] gram calories
Given ,
Energy required by thermal decomposition of rail car load of limestone to lime and carbon dioxide is equal to
[tex]7.92 * 10^6[/tex] Kilo joules
This kilo joules of energy is converted into calories and is equal to
[tex]7.92 * 10^6 * 239.006\\= 1.892*10^9[/tex]
On taking the log of this value, we get -
log ([tex]1.892 * 10^9[/tex]) [tex]= 9.276[/tex]
Hence, the answer is [tex]9.276[/tex]
To convert the given energy from kJ to calories use the conversion factor 1 kJ = 239 cal. The log (base 10) of the converted energy is 9.28.
The thermal decomposition of limestone to lime and carbon dioxide requires 7.92 x 10^6 kJ of heat. To convert this energy to calories, we can use the conversion factor: 1 kJ = 239 calories.
Therefore, 7.92 x 10^6 kJ = 7.92 x 10^6 kJ x 239 cal/1 kJ = 1.89 x 10^9 cal.
The log (base 10) of 1.89 x 10^9 is 9.28 (to three decimal places).
21. Which step in cellular respiration occurs outside of the inner membrane space of the cell mitochondria? a. Krebs Cycle c. Transition Reaction b. Citric Acid Cycle d. Phosphorylation Reaction
Answer: c. Transition Reaction
Explanation:
During the transition reaction, Acetyl-CoA is formed and connects the first stage of glycolysis with the Krebs Cycle (Citric Acid Cycle). In the presence of oxygen, pyruvate enters the mitochondria and is oxidized to form a compound of 2 carbon, acetate, with energy and CO2 release. During this process, the acetate binds to a coenzyme(coenzyme A (CoA)) - forming the acetyl-coenzyme A.
The 3 steps:
1. pyruvate is oxidized and forms acetate with liberation of CO2;
2. the energy released in the oxidation of pyruvate is stored in the reduction reaction of NAD+ to NADH + H+
3. The acetate molecule combines with coenzyme A to form acetyl-coenzyme A.
The Citric Acid Cycle or Krebs Cycle occurs outside of the inner membrane space of the cell mitochondria.
Explanation:The step in cellular respiration that occurs outside of the inner membrane space of the cell mitochondria is the Citric Acid Cycle or Krebs Cycle. This cycle takes place in the mitochondrial matrix and involves a series of redox and decarboxylation reactions. During the cycle, high-energy molecules including ATP, NADH, and FADH₂ are produced.
Learn more about Citric Acid Cycle here:https://brainly.com/question/30421074
#SPJ3
What element of fibrous joints gives the joint its ability to resist stretching and control the amount of movement at the joint?
Answer:
Fibrous joints are the immovable joints which do not move so they are also known as fixed joints.
These joints are connected by the connective tissue made up of collagen protein. The length of these connective tissue fibres controls the movement of the bones like:
1. Suture joints have short fibres so they are mostly immobile.
2. Syndesmosis present between tibia and fibula in the ankle have slightly longer fibers so they can show movement if needed.
Thus, correct answer is collagen and length of these fibers.
Fibrous joints are stabilized by fibrous connective tissue, primarily strong collagen fibers, which prevent dislocation by holding bones tightly together and limit movement at the joint.
The element that gives fibrous joints their ability to resist stretching and thus control the amount of movement at the joint is the fibrous connective tissue. Fibrous joints are composed of strong collagen fibers that prevent dislocation at joints by firmly holding the bones together. Additionally, the presence of yellow elastic fibers can provide some degree of flexibility within these joints, though movement is typically very limited. There are three types of fibrous joints: sutures, which are found in the skull; syndesmoses, which bind bones together with longer fibers; and gomphoses, which are peg-and-socket joints.
Place a single word into each sentence to make it correct, then place each sentence into a logical paragraph order. Hemodialysis is the ____________ cleansing of wastes from the blood.
Answer:
Hemodialysis is the extracorporeal cleansing of wastes from the blood.
Explanation:
Hemodialysis is the process of kidney dialysis. This process is used for the purification of blood. Extracorporeal blood purification includes removal of waste product such as urea , water and toxic elements from patients body. This process is used when patient's kidney is not working properly.
How does the epithelium of the colon differ from that of the small intestine?
Answer:
Colon epithelium:
The colon of large intestine is lined by the simple columnar epithelium. The epithelium covers the brush border and also lines the goblet cells of the colon.
Small intestine epithelium:
The epithelium of small intestine is lined by the mucosa epithelium tissue as well as the simple columnar epithelium. These tissue secrete mucus in the small intestine.
3. Which of the following is not an X-linked trait?
hemophilia
cystic fibrosis
Duchenne muscular dystrophy
color-blindness
Answer:
Cystic fibrosis
Explanation:
X- linked trait may be defined as the trait that is located on X chromosome or the inheritance of the trait is based on the X chromosome. The disorders associated with X-linked trait is known as sex linked disorder.
Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder that affects the digestive system, lungs and liver. The homozygous recessive condition is responsible for the disease cystic fibrosis. Hence, cystic fibrosis is not an X-linked trait.
Thus, the correct answer is option (2).
The purpose of DNA profiling is to ______. transfer genes from one species to another species determine whether two samples of DNA came from the same individual definitively convict a suspect assess the safety concerns associated with genetically modified organisms
Answer: Determine whether the two samples of DNA came from the same individual definetively convict a suspect.
Explanation:
DNA profiling is a technique for examining the DNA composition of the organism. The DNA can be extracted from hair, skin, bodily fluids and nails. The technique involves the following steps:
1. Extraction of the DNA from the cells.
2. The DNA can be cut into fragments by using enzyme.
3. Separation of DNA fragments using a gel.
4. Transfer of DNA over the paper.
5. Adding the radioactive probe over the paper. The radioactive probe forms a complementary pair with the DNA strand.
6. Observing the strands on the X-ray film.
It is a useful technique for identification of the living being from which it has come from. It is useful in comparing the two samples that is which obtain from the crime scene and the one which comes from the suspect. Thus will help in conviction of suspect.
Choose one of these hormones: Glucagon, Insulin, or Thyroid hormone.
What factors will stimulate the release of this hormone?
What are the metabolic effects of this hormone? (Be specific)
Is this hormone regulated by a positive or negative feedback mechanism?
Explain why.
Answer:
Hormone - Insulin.
- High blood glucose level.
- Decrease blood glucose levels.
- Negative feedback.
Explanation:
- Insulin hormone releases from the beta cells of pancreas. The increase in the blood sugar levels in the bloodstream stimulates the release of insulin in the body.
-The insulin hormone balances the blood glucose level and keeps it in normal range. The insulin stimulates the muscles, bones and other body parts to absorb more glucose and helps in the reduction of high blood glucose levels.
- Insulin is controlled by negative feedback mechanism because high levels of insulin hormone in the blood decreases the further secretion of insulin.
Pepsin is a digestive enzyme. It is made in an inactive form, pepsinogen, which is activated by the acidity of the stomach to self-cleave. The cleaved molecule is active pepsin, which goes on to cleave more pepsinogen molecules, leading to a cascade of rapid pepsin activation. This pathway is an example of:
Answer: Positive feedback loop
Explanation:
Even before the food reaches the stomach (before ingesting it), the glands of the stomach mucosa begin to release its gastric secretion. The main characteristic of this secretion is acidity, as measured by pH (one of the physiological variables).
This acidity is a result of the presence of hydrochloric acid, which is part of the secretion composition. In addition to it, water, pepsinogen (which will give rise to the enzyme pepsin) and the intrinsic factor. The acid has a function of the protection of the entire system by eliminating microorganisms. It is also responsible for the activation of pepsin (which only occurs with acid pH), the enzyme that digests proteins containing the amino acids leucine or phenylalanine or tryptophan or tyrosine.
The concept of Positive feedback loop states that the body tries to increase the value of a variable (acidity, in the case of pepsinogen) when it is below its optimal value (called a point adjustment) and decreases this value when it is above optimal.
40. Which of the following statements regarding substrate-level phosphorylation is correct?
a. Does not involve phosphate transfer
b. Does not produce ATP
c. Depends one distinct enzyme type
d. Occurs twice in glycolysis
Answer: c. Depends one distinct enzyme type
Explanation:
Glycolysis is the common metabolic pathway to all living things and consists of the incomplete oxidation of the glucose in pyruvate and occurs in the cytosol of eukaryotes and prokaryotes. During the substrate-level phosphorylation ATP is generated when a high energy P is directly transferred from a compound phosphorylated (substrate) to ADP. P got its energy during an initial reaction, in which the substrate itself is oxidized. During this process one distinct enzyme (Succinyl CoA) type is used.
Substrate-level phosphorylation involves the transfer of a phosphate group from a substrate molecule to ADP, producing ATP. It does not depend on one distinct enzyme type. It occurs twice in glycolysis.
Explanation:Substrate-level phosphorylation is a biological process where a phosphate group is transferred from a substrate molecule to adenosine diphosphate (ADP), producing adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Therefore, statement b is incorrect as ATP is indeed produced in this process. Statement c is incorrect because substrate-level phosphorylation does not depend on a single specific enzyme type, but multiple depending on the pathway (glycolysis or citric acid cycle). Referring to statement d, yes, in glycolysis, substrate-level phosphorylation occurs twice. Therefore, among the provided options, statement d is correct.
Learn more about Substrate-level Phosphorylation here:https://brainly.com/question/29460654
#SPJ3
Compare and contrast epidural and subdural hemorrhages.
Answer:
Epidural hemorrhages:
Epidural hemorrhage causes the laceration of middle meningeal artery. Temporal bone is mainly associated in this type of hemorrhage. Individual may suffer from loss of consciousness. Neurosurgery is important to treat the epidural hemorrhages.
Subdural hemorrhage:
Subdural hemorrhage causes the rupture of bridging veins. Dura matter of brain is mainly associated in this type of hemorrhage. Individual may suffer from minor head trauma. Neurosurgery is important to treat the epidural hemorrhages as well.
In watermelons, bitter fruit (B) is dominant over sweet fruit (b), and yellow spots (S) are dominant over no spots (s). The genes for these two characteristics assort independently. A homozygous plant that has bitter fruit and yellow spots is crossed with a homozygous plant that has sweet fruit and no spots. The F1 are intercrossed to produce the F2. What will be the phenotypic ratio in the F2?
Answer:
9 Bitter and yellow spots
3 Bitter and no spots
3 Sweet and yellow spots
1 sweet and no spots
Explanation:
According to the given question, a homozygous plant with bitter fruit and yellow spots (BBSS) is crossed with a homozygous plant that has sweet fruit and no spots (bbss).
The F1 progeny would have bitter fruits with yellow spots. Crossing the F1 would obtain F2 progeny. As per the cross, the F2 progeny would have phenotypic ratio of 9 Bitter and yellow spots: 3 Bitter and no spots: 3 Sweet and yellow spots: 1 sweet and no spots.
Which of the structures is surrounded by the connective tissue sheath known as the perimysium?
Answer: Muscle fibers in bundles or fascicles.
Explanation:
Skeletal striated muscle is involved in dense unshaped connective tissue, the Epimysium. From the epimysium depart fine septa of connective tissue to the muscle, separating the bundles and constituting the perimysium, carrying blood vessels and lymphatics and nerves. Every muscle cell is involved in the basal lamina, reticular fibers and a small amount of connective tissue, which form the endomysium. It anchors muscle fibers between them and contains blood capillaries and axons.
The structure surrounded by the connective tissue sheath known as the perimysium is B: fascicle.
The perimysium is a layer of connective tissue that surrounds bundles of muscle fibers, also known as fascicles. Each muscle is made up of many fascicles, which are surrounded by a connective tissue sheath called the epimysium. The epimysium is the outermost layer of connective tissue that surrounds the entire muscle.
The endomysium is a thin layer of connective tissue that surrounds each individual muscle fiber. The endomysium provides support and protection for the muscle fibers, and it also helps to keep them aligned.
For more such information on:connective tissue
https://brainly.com/question/408637
#SPJ12
The question probable may be:
Which of the structures is surrounded by the connective tissue sheath known as the perimysium? A , B or C?
Which of the following populations would be considered r-selected? Black Widow Spiders - they produce 1000s of offspring and few survive. Opossums- They carry offspring in a pouch on the mothers body Mallard Ducks - They lay up to one dozen eggs and provide parental care of their chicks Mammals - They produce few offspring and provide parental care
Answer:
Option 1.
Explanation:
r-selected species may be defined as the species that has higher growth rate, shows less parental care and the rate of survival of the off spring is low as compared with k selected species.
Black widow spiders have the ability to produce 1000 offspring. Their chances of survival are extremely low and only few species of black widow spiders survive. Hence, black widow spider is r-selected species.
Thus, the correct answer is option (1).
6. Which of the following has the lowest cost of production of recombinant proteins?
Bacteria / Mammalian cell culture / Transgenic plants / Yeast
Answer:
Bacteria
Explanation:
Bacteria constitutes large group of unicellular organisms that lacks membrane bound organelles and constitute cell wall. Bacteria are used for the production of recombinant proteins.
Bacteria can be selected easily for the recombinant protein formation. The plasmid of bacteria is helpful for the integration of desired genes and the production of protein. The bacteria culture can be maintained easily in the laboratory. The different strains of bacteria with different traits can be used for the production of different recombinant proteins at low cost.
Thus, the correct answer is option (1).
Determine whether the statement is true or false. Suppose P(t) represents the population of bacteria at time t and suppose P'(t) > 0 and P''(t) < 0; then the population is increasing at time t but at a decreasing rate. True
Final answer:
The statement is true; the population of bacteria is increasing at a decreasing rate when P'(t) > 0 and P''(t) < 0, indicating growth that is decelerating.
Explanation:
The statement “Suppose P(t) represents the population of bacteria at time t and suppose P'(t) > 0 and P''(t) < 0; then the population is increasing at time t but at a decreasing rate” is true.
P(t) denotes the population of bacteria at any given time ‘t’. When it is said that P'(t) > 0, it means the rate of change of the population with respect to time is positive, indicating an increasing population. However, P''(t) < 0 signifies that the second derivative of the population with respect to time is negative, suggesting that the rate at which the population is increasing is itself decreasing. This could be due to a variety of factors such as limited resources or other logistical growth constraints.
In essence, the population is growing, but the speed of its growth is slowing down. This type of behavior is commonly observed in populations that experience a period of rapid growth followed by a slowdown as they approach the carrying capacity of their environment or face other limiting factors.
The statement is true because the population increases at time t while the rate of this growth is decreasing, as indicated by P'(t) > 0 and P''(t) < 0.
The given statement is true. Suppose P(t) represents the population of bacteria at time t. The condition P'(t) > 0 indicates that the population is increasing at time t because the first derivative of P(t) with respect to time is positive. Meanwhile, P''(t) < 0 suggests that the rate of change of the population's growth is decreasing because the second derivative of P(t) with respect to time is negative. Therefore, while the population grows, it does so at a decreasing rate.
12. Which of the following statements is true regarding biological cell theory? a. All organisms are made of cells c. All cells come from mitosis b. All cells possess a nucleus d. All cells come from meiosis
Answer:
a
Explanation:
all organism is made of cell.they are the basic structursl unit of life.
Answer:
All Cells come from Meiosis
32. Which of the following is NOT a major component of plant chloroplasts?
a. Stroma
b. Thylakoid
c. Granum
d. Cytosol
Answer: d. Cytosol
Explanation:
The highly organized system of membranes in chloroplasts is essential to the functioning of photosynthesis. These three components are part of plant chloroplasts:
Thylakoids - Internal membranes of chloroplasts that have sac-like organizations.
Grana - When those thylakoids are combined in piles, stacked on top of one another we call them Grana.
Stroma - The semiliquid membrane system enclosing the thylakoid that houses enzymes required to accumulate carbon molecules.
While all those components are part of plant chloroplasts, the cytosol is part of the largest of the internal membranes of eukaryotic cells, called endoplasmic reticulum (ER). More specific it is the region exterior of the ER, while the inner region is called the cisternal space.
The component that is not a major part of plant chloroplasts is cytosol. The stroma, thylakoid, and granum are all integral parts of chloroplasts, with the stroma housing the Calvin cycle, which are the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis.
The component that is NOT a major part of plant chloroplasts among the options given is cytosol (option d). The stroma is the fluid-filled space surrounding the thylakoids within the chloroplasts. A thylakoid is a membrane-bound compartment inside chloroplasts and cyanobacteria. They are the site of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis. Granum (plural: grana) refers to a stack of thylakoids within the chloroplasts. The cytosol, however, is the aqueous component of the cytoplasm of a cell, within which various organelles and particles are suspended, but it is not part of the chloroplast.
The light-independent reactions of photosynthesis, also known as the Calvin cycle, take place in the chloroplast stroma. While the light-dependent reactions occur in the thylakoid membranes, the thylakoid lumen, or the granum, all of which are related to the process of photosynthesis, the cytosol is involved in many metabolic pathways but is not where the Calvin cycle occurs.
Compare humoral immunity vs cell mediated immunity
Answer:
Humoral immunity:
Humoral immunity is mediated by the macromolecules present in the extracellular fluid. This immunity provides protection against the pathogens present in the extracellular fluid. B- cells are mainly produced by the humoral immunity. The plasma cell and memory cells are generated in the human body. Antibodies kill the pathogens in humoral immunity.
Cell mediated immunity:
Cell mediated immunity is activated by the infected cells. This immunity provides protection against intracellular pathogens. T- cells are mainly produced by cell mediated immunity. T helper cells and T killer cells are mainly produced in the cell mediated immunity. Cytokines kill the pathogens in case of cell mediated immunity.
Humoral immunity involves B cells producing antibodies to target extracellular pathogens and toxins, while cell-mediated immunity involves T cells targeting intracellular pathogens and some cancer cells.
Humoral immunity primarily involves B cells, which produce antibodies that circulate in the blood and lymph. These antibodies bind to pathogens and toxins in extracellular spaces, thereby preventing them from attaching to and invading host cells. On the other hand, cell-mediated immunity is concerned with T lymphocytes, or T cells, which target and eliminate intracellular pathogens such as viruses, some bacteria, and also some cancer cells. T cells can be subdivided into helper, cytotoxic, and regulatory T cells, each playing a unique role in orchestrating adaptive immune responses and maintaining immune system balance.
The dorsal rectus, ventral rectus, medial rectus, and lateral rectus muscles all control movement of the__________.
Answer:
they all control the eye
Explanation:
These muscles control the movement of the Eye.
The actions of the six muscles responsible for eye movement depend on the position of the eye at the time of muscle contraction.What are the muscles?Muscles are soft tissues. Many stretchy fibers make up muscles. A person have more than 600 muscles in body.Different types of muscles have different jobs. Some muscles help run, jump or perform delicate tasks like threading a needle.What are the function of muscles?The muscular system is composed of specialized cells called muscle fibers. Their predominant function is contractibility. Muscles, attached to bones or internal organs and blood vessels, are responsible for movement. Nearly all movement in the body is the result of muscle contraction.To know more about muscles here
https://brainly.com/question/9883108
#SPJ2
Use the following table to answer the question:
Element
Atomic Number
Oxygen
8
Lithium
3
Hydrogen
1
Carbon
6
Which element has the most protons in the nucleus?
Oxygen
Lithium
Hydrogen
Carbon
Answer:
I believe it's Oxygen because it's atomic number is 8 meaning it has 8 protons in the nucleus
Answer:
Oxygen
Explanation:
When we see oxygen in periodic table its atomic number is 8 which indicates that its 8th element which means that it has 8 protons in the nucleus.
Reference: Greenwood, Norman Neill, and Alan Earnshaw. Chemistry of the Elements. Elsevier, 2012.
1) how is cell division normally controlled
2) if DNA in G1 phase is damaged by UV or ionizing radiation, what will happen
Answer:
some specific safeguard protein are present
Explanation:
the specific protein which are present at G1 phase name cyclin dependent kinase they also initiate dna division
Two types of movement occur within the wall of the alimentary canal. In the esophagus, wavelike movements called ____________ move food towards the ____________ .
Answer:
In the esophagus, wavelike movements called peristalsis move food towards the stomach.
Explanation:
The esophagus is lined with smooth muscles. The function of the esophagus is to deliver food from pharynx to the stomach.
Peristalsis refers to the wave-like movement generated by the rhythmic contraction of smooth muscles. Alternating contraction and relaxation of smooth muscles that line the cavity of esophagus generate waves. This wave-like movement moves the food from esophagus to the stomach.
In pea plants, round peas (R) are dominant to wrinkled peas (r). You do a test cross between a pea plant with wrinkled peas (genotype rr) and a plant of unknown genotype that has round peas. You end up with three plants, all which have round peas. From this data, can you tell if the parent plant is homozygous dominant or heterozygous?
Answer:
The parent plant is a heterozygous.
Explanation:
If we have a recessive phenotype, the only way that the result ends up with a 75% of a dominant phenotype is doing a test cross with a dominant phenotype that have a heterozygous genotype. When both genotype are homozygous, the result ends up with a 100% of a dominant phenotype because if we do a test cross between them, the result is a combination of a dominant allele and a recessive one, therefore every time we have this combination (a heterozygous genotype) the phenotype that is showed is the dominant one, even tough there is a recessive allele.
Based on the data provided of three offspring all having round peas, it is not possible to conclusively determine if the parent of unknown genotype is homozygous dominant or heterozygous. Even if the parent is heterozygous, it could pass on the dominant gene each time leading to offspring with round peas. More data or a larger sample size of offspring would be needed for more certainty.
Explanation:The subject of your question relates to genetics, specifically referring to dominant and recessive traits in pea plants. As given, round peas (R) are dominant to wrinkled peas (r) and you've done a test cross between a pea plant with wrinkled peas (genotype rr) and a plant of unknown genotype, but has round peas. The three offspring plants also have round peas. This information alone, however, is not enough to definitively determine whether the parent plant of unknown genotype is homozygous dominant (RR) or heterozygous (Rr).
This is because even if the unknown parent is heterozygous (Rr), both dominant (R) and recessive (r) genes can be passed onto its offspring. If the recessive gene was passed on, the offspring would be rr (wrinkled peas), but if the dominant gene was passed on, the offspring would be Rr (round peas). By chance, it could be that the dominant gene was passed on all three times, leading to all three offspring having round peas. Hence, unless more data or offspring are available, it is not possible to conclusively determine the genotype of the unknown parent plant.
Learn more about Genetics here:https://brainly.com/question/30459739
#SPJ3