Answer:
a. PPOs are denatured at high temperature
Explanation:
Polyphenol oxidase, PPO, is one of the most studied enzymes in the food industry as it is responsible for enzymatic browning reactions in fruits and vegetables. One of the reasons why its study is important is because commercially it is undesirable, since it modifies the sensory, nutritional and in general quality properties that impair the commercialization of a product.
The importance of controlling polyphenol oxidase is that it largely determines the quality and economic value of fruits and vegetables harvested, stored and processed. Bruising, chopping and other mechanical procedures damage the walls of fruits and vegetables which allows oxygen to penetrate, resulting in darkening or enzymatic browning reactions.
Enzymatic browning can be controlled through the use of chemical and physical methods, often used in combination. The commonly used physical methods are the reduction of temperature, oxygen and the use of modified atmospheres or coating films. The use of chemical methods will depend on what you want to inhibit, be it the enzyme, the substrate (oxygen or phenolic compounds) or the products.
Indicate whether each of the following words or phrases applies to proteins, DNA, or both. a. a macromolecule composed of a "string" of subunits b. double-stranded c. four different subunits d. 20 different subunits e. composed of amino acids f. composed of nucleotides g. contains a code used to generate other macromolecules h. performs chemical reactions
Answer:
a. A macromolecule composed of a "string" of subunits stands both for DNA as well as proteins. Both are the macromolecules (large molecule) made of their respective subunits ( DNA made of polynucleotides and Proteins made of amino acids) and contains the stretch of monomers in their structure.
b. Double-stranded stands for DNA as DNA is a double stranded molecule contains two nucleotide chains runs with anti parallel polarity. The one strain has polarity in 5' to 3' direction and other strand has polarity in 3' to 5' direction.
c. Four different subunits stands for DNA. DNA contains the four nitrogenous bases adenine, guanine, thymine and cytosine. These four different nitrogenous bases with deoxyribose sugar and phosphate group may be responsible for the four different subunits of DNA.
d. 20 different subunits stands for proteins. 20 different standard amino acids are known for the formation of proteins. These 20 different amino acids makes the subunits.
e. Composed of amino acids stands for proteins. Proteins are the polymers of the amino acids. Amino acid contain the amine group, carboxylic acid group, hydrogen and R hydrocarbon chain.
f. Composed of nucleotides stands for DNA. DNA are the polymers of nucleotides. The nucleotide contains nitrogenous base, pentose sugar and the phosphate group.
g. Contains a code used to generate other macromolecules stands for DNA. DNA contains nitrogenous bases in the form of codes to generate RNA as well as protein.
h. Performs chemical reactions stands for proteins. Enzymes are made of protein that are responsible for the metabolic and enzymatic reactions of the body.
Which of the molecules shown in question 5 has an asymmetric carbon? Which carbon is asymmetric?
Answer:
The molecule on the right; the middle carbon is asymmetric
Explanation:
Without additional information on the substituents attached to the carbon atoms, it's not possible to confirm the presence of an asymmetric carbon in the molecule described, which has a carbonyl group on the second carbon of a five-carbon chain. The provided question seems to be about classifying hydrocarbons rather than determining chirality.
Explanation:To determine which molecule has an asymmetric carbon, we need to examine the structure provided. An asymmetric carbon atom, often referred to as a chiral carbon, is one that has four different groups attached to it. However, based on the information provided, which only details a molecule with a carbonyl group on the second carbon of a five-carbon chain, there's no mention or indication of an asymmetric carbon. Generally, asymmetric carbons are found in molecules with diverse substituents, which is not explicitly stated in the given description.
For a carbon to be asymmetric, it usually cannot be part of a carbonyl group because the carbonyl carbon is double-bonded to an oxygen, leaving only two other groups that can be attached, which is insufficient for chirality (asymmetry). Therefore, we cannot confirm the presence of an asymmetric carbon without additional information on the substituents attached to the carbon atoms.
Lastly, the provided question seems to be about classifying hydrocarbons as aliphatic or aromatic, and as alkanes, alkenes, or alkynes if they are aliphatic. This is unrelated to the presence of asymmetric carbons, which is more relevant to discussions of stereochemistry in organic compounds.
What is the difference between chromosome mutation and gene mutation? Explain with examples (one page)
Answer:
Gene mutation:
Gene mutation may be defined as change or alteration in the nucleotide sequence of the gene. DNA replication errors and mutagens are responsible for the gene mutation. A single gene may affected in this mutation. For example: Sickle cell anemia is caused by the replacement of GAG to GUG results in the formation of valine instead of glutamic acid. The shape of RBCs changed from the biconcave to the sickle cell shape.
Chromosome mutation:
Chromosome mutation may be defined as the change or the alteration of chromosome number or structure. Chromosome mutation occurs due to errors during crossing over. The segment of the chromosome may get changed. Large number of genes may get affected. For example: Down syndrome occurs due to the presence of extra chromosome at chromosome 21.
Which of the following is a true statement regarding the operational definition of a gene?
a. most genes encode one polypeptide and can be operationally defined by the complementation test
b. most genes encode two polypeptides and can be operationally defined by the antiparallel test
c. most genes encode for less than one polypeptide can be operationally defined by the complementation test
d. most genes encode for one polypeptide and can be operationally defined by the Fluctuation test
Answer:
a. most genes encode one polypeptide and can be operationally defined by the complementation test
Explanation:
Genes are the stretch of DNA that code for specific polypeptides. In general, one gene codes for the only polypeptide.
Genes are defined by complementation tests which in turn tell if two mutations have occurred in the alleles of the same gene or different gene.
For the purpose, an organism with the homozygous genotype for one recessive mutation is crossed with an organism having the homozygous recessive genotype for another mutation.
If the two mutations are in the same gene, the progeny would show the mutant phenotype. On the other hand, if two mutations are in different genes, the progeny would exhibit normal phenotype.
The correct answer is 'a. Most genes encode one polypeptide and can be operationally defined by the complementation test.'
The one gene-one enzyme hypothesis, later revised to the one gene-one polypeptide hypothesis, was proposed by Beadle and Tatum. It states that each gene encodes a single polypeptide.A complementation test is used to determine if two mutations that produce similar phenotypes are in the same gene or in different genes. This test helps define operationally what constitutes a distinct gene.This discovery was crucial for understanding genetic pathways and earned Beadle and Tatum the Nobel Prize in Physiology and Medicine in 1958.Chloroplasts ______________
a. move complex sugars through the cell membrane
b. store water
c. control cellular activities
d. absorbs light in photosynthesis
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Chloroplast is a cell organelle which is found specifically in the plant cell. It stores pigment named as chlorophyll.
This pigment traps the sunlight which is used for the process of photosynthesis.
In the process of photosynthesis the light energy that is trapped in the chloroplast is converted into chemical energy.
This energy is used for the various metabolic processes in plant cell.
Compare/Contrast the growth process and life cycleof plants and
animals.
Answer:
Comparison between the growth process and life cycle of plants and animals:
A single cell is enough to initiate life in plants and animals. The cells of both the plants and animals multiply to increase their number. The gametes in animals and the plants that produce flower, shows sexual reproduction and are haploid in nature. The egg and sperm of animal is similar in function with the megaspore and microspore of plants.
Differences between the growth process and life cycle of plants and animals:
The fertilization of plants depends on other animals ( like bees and bird) but the animal fertilization does not depends on other organisms. Well developed parental care is present in animals but absent in plants. The growth of most plants includes the alternation of generation whereas limited animals shows alternation of generation.
The activation of receptor tyrosine kinases is characterized by
a. dimerization and phosphorylation.
b. dimerization and IP3 binding.
c. a phosphorylation cascade.
d. GTP hydrolysis.
Answer:a. dimerization and phosphorylation.
Explanation:
Phosphorylation as well as dimerization are responsible for the activation of the receptor tyrosine kinase.
The dimer forms when two monomers combine together. This process is known as dimerization.
This process activates the monomers and basically add up the ATP molecule to the tyrosine. Proteins are added up to the phosphorylated tyrosine which causes the structural change in the protein. This leads to the cellular response.
The activation of receptor tyrosine kinases is primarily characterized by dimerization and phosphorylation. This process occurs when a ligand binds to the receptor, causing two receptors to pair up and cross-phosphorylate each other on specific tyrosine residues.
Explanation:The activation of receptor tyrosine kinases is primarily characterized by dimerization and phosphorylation. Once a ligand binds to the receptor, two receptors pair up or 'dimerize'. The cytoplasmic sides of the receptors come close together and cross-phosphorylate each other on specific tyrosine residues. This acts as a 'flag' to other proteins in the cell, signalling them to interact with the phosphorylated tyrosines of the receptor.
Option B does not apply to receptor tyrosine kinases directly, as IP3 binding is usually seen in other signalling pathways such as G-protein coupled receptors. Options C and D describe other signal cascades that can potentially be triggered by the activation of the receptor but are not part of the direct characterization of receptor tyrosine kinase activation.
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Citrate produced in the mitochondria is exported to the cytosol by the citrate transporter. In the cytosol, citrate is converted to ____1_____. What enzyme is activated by increased levels of citrate? ____2_____?
a. (1) malate and acetyl-CoA; (2) fatty acid synthase
b. (1) acetyl-CoA and oxaloacetate; (2) fatty acid synthase
c. (1) malonyl-CoA; (2) acetyl-CoA carboxylase
d. (1) acetyl-CoA and oxaloacetate; (2) acetyl-CoA carboxylase
Answer:
d. (1) acetyl-CoA and oxaloacetate; (2) acetyl-CoA carboxylase
Explanation:
ATP- Citrate lyase (ACLY) is an enzyme present in the cytosol. ATP- Citrate lyase (ACLY) is involved in breaking down the citrate, once it has arrived in the cytosol, into acetyl-CoA and oxaloacetate.
Acetyl-CoA carboxylase is produced as a result of increased levels of citrate in the cytosol. This enzyme plays an important role in the regulation of the synthesis of fatty acids as well as degradation of the fatty acids.
Insulin and growth hormones are both steroid hormones.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
False
Explanation:
On the basis of their chemical composition, hormones are classified into two broad categories: lipid-soluble and water-soluble hormones. The water-soluble hormones include amine hormones, proteins, and peptide hormones and eicosanoid hormones.
Steroids hormones are lipid-soluble hormones. Examples of steroid hormones include aldosterone, cortisol, etc.
The hormones that are made of more than 50 amino acids are categorized as protein hormones. These hormones generally have 50-200 amino acids in their chemical structure. Both growth hormone and insulin are the protein hormones.
For example, insulin hormone consists of peptide chains A and B with 21 and 30 amino acids respectively. The peptide chains are joined together by disulfide bonds. Likewise, the growth hormone is made of as many as 191 amino acids.
Which of the following best describes the logic of scientific inquiry?
a. If generate a testable hypothesis, tests and observations will support it.
b. If my pridiction is correct, it will lead to a testable hypothesis.
c.If my observations are accurate, they will support my hypothesis.
d. If my hypothesis is correct, I can except certain test results.
Answer:
d. if my hypothesis is correct, I can expect certain test results
Explanation:
To create a theory is not enough to state an assumption. Called scientific research, the practice tries, through a logical procedure, to produce tested, proven and safe scientific knowledge. This concept is based on the logic of scientific research that states that a hypothesis must be tested, because if the hypothesis is correct, certain test results can be expected. For this, some rules or phases are part of the process. And they are: observation, hypotheses, research method and conclusion.
Thus, we can conclude that among the alternatives presented, the one that best describes the logic of scientific investigation is the letter D.
If my hypothesis is correct, I can expect certain test results, best describes the logic of scientific inquiry.
The ways and the methods used by the researchers and scientists to analyze and study the natural environment based on the proof collected from their studies is called scientific inquiry.
What are the characteristics of scientific inquiry?The assumptions made by the researchers are not enough to postulate a theory and requires intense analysis and evidence to back the findings. The findings undergo many experiments, trials, and legal processes to establish it as a theory.
The scientific inquiry is based on the testing of the evidence and the results can be assumed of the assumptions by the method of the research and conclusions.
Therefore, option d is correct.
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Define the following and give an example for each: (
a) cytokine
b)interleukin
c) chemokine
d) chemoattractant
Answer:
A) Cytokine are the different type of the proteins, peptides and glycoproteins released by immune system like interleukin, interferon, chemokine and growth factors. These cells affect other cells by various means. These are cell signalling molecule regulates hematopoiesis and immunity. Example: interlukins.
B) Interleukins are a group of the cytokines that mediate cell communication and help in cell differentiation, cell growth and regulating motility. As they are cytokines and play role in cell signalling these proteins are essential in immune response. Interleukins 1 is an example of interleukins.
C) Chemokine are also protein molecules that are cytokines, acts as chemoattractants as they attracts other cells to the site of the infection or injury so they can destroy or kill pathogens or microbes. Example : CCR1
D) Chemoattractants are the cytokines that lead the migration of the immunity cells to the site of infection or injury. Chemokine is an example of chemoattractant.
Cytokines are signaling molecules like TNF-alpha that influence immune responses. Interleukins, such as IL-2, are a type of cytokine that regulate the immune system. Chemokines, including IL-8, direct immune cell migration, and chemoattractants like C5a attract immune cells to infection sites.
The student has asked for definitions and examples of cytokines, interleukins, chemokines, and chemoattractants:
Cytokine: A cytokine is a signaling molecule that allows cells to communicate with each other, influencing cell behavior and immune responses. An example is tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha), which promotes inflammation.Interleukin: A type of cytokine that was initially found to be expressed by white blood cells. It plays a crucial role in immune system regulation. For instance, interleukin-2 (IL-2) stimulates the growth of T-lymphocytes.Chemokine: A subgroup of cytokines that specifically induce chemotaxis in nearby cells. They direct the migration of immune cells to infection sites. An example is interleukin-8 (IL-8), which attracts neutrophils to sites of inflammation.Chemoattractant: A chemical substance that attracts cells, particularly immune cells, to move toward its higher concentration. An example is C5a, a component of the complement system that attracts phagocytes to sites of infection.In the male,
a. FSH is not secreted by the pituitary
b. FSH receptors are located in the leydig cells
c. FSH receptors are located in the spermatogonia
d. FSH receptors are located in the sertoli cells
e. FSH receptors are located in posterior pituitary gland
Answer:
The correct answer is option d.
Explanation:
FSH or follicle-stimulating hormone refers to a gonadotropin, which is produced and secreted by the anterior pituitary gland's gonadotropic cells. It monitors the growth, development, reproductive procedures, and pubertal maturation of the body.
In males, FSH instigates Sertoli cells to produce ABPs or androgen-binding proteins, regulated by negative feedback mechanism of inhibin on the anterior pituitary. Mainly, the stimulation of Sertoli cells by FSH maintains spermatogenesis and instigates secretion of inhibin B.
FSH receptors are located in the sertoli cells in males.
Explanation:The correct answer is D. FSH receptors are located in the sertoli cells.
In males, FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) is secreted by the pituitary gland and plays a crucial role in the production of sperm. FSH receptors are primarily located in the sertoli cells, which are found in the seminiferous tubules of the testes. These cells support and nourish developing sperm cells, and FSH binding to its receptors on the sertoli cells stimulates spermatogenesis.
Therefore, option D is the correct answer.
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Graded Assignment Lab Report: Investigating Biological Compounds Answer the questions below. When you are finished, submit this assignment to your teacher by the due date for full credit. Total score: ____ of 25 points Identifying Organic Compounds (Score for Question: ___ of 6 points) Record the results of this lab in the following data table. Answer: Water Potato Egg White Milk Unknown Forming Conclusions (Score for Question 1: ___ of 9 points) Which macromolecules were present in each of the samples? Answer: (Score for Question 2: ___ of 5 points) What was the role of the water test tube in each phase? Answer: Type your answer here. Communicating Results (Score for Question 3: ___ of 5 points) Describe a chemical indicator. What is it? What is it used for? How does it work? Answer: Type your answer here.
do you still need the answer?
Chemical indicators are substances used to test for the presence of specific compounds or conditions. They undergo a noticeable change in color or form when they come into contact with the target compound or condition.
Explanation:Chemical indicators are substances used to test for the presence of specific compounds or conditions. They are often used in laboratory experiments to detect the presence or absence of certain macromolecules or chemical reactions. A chemical indicator works by undergoing a noticeable change in color or form when it comes into contact with the target compound or condition.
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We can represent atoms by listing the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons - for example 2P+, 2no , 2e- for helium. Which of the following represents the 18O isotope of oxygen?
a. 7P+ , 2no , 9e-
b. 8P+ , 10no , 8e-
c. 9P+ , 9no , 9e-
d. 10P+ , 8no , 9e-
Answer:
b. 8P+ , 10no , 8e-
Explanation:
An isotope is a form of a chemical element whose atomic nucleus of an element contains a specific number of neutrons and protons. For example, the nucleus of a carbon atom contains 6 neutrons(no) and 6 protons(P+) and similarly in the nucleus of oxygen contains 8 neutrons and 8 protons . The number of neutron can varies in the nucleus of that element. Variation in neutrons form isotopes of the element. In nature, oxygen has three stable isotopes, ¹⁶O, ¹⁷O, and ¹⁸O, but ¹⁶O most abundant. The ¹⁸O isotope of oxygen contains 8 protons(P+), 8 electrons(e-) and 10 neutrons(no) instead of normal 8 neutrons.
The isotope symbol for oxygen-18 is 8P+, 10no, 8e-.
Explanation:The isotope symbol for oxygen-18 can be represented as 8P+, 10no, 8e-. The number 8P+ represents the number of protons in the oxygen atom, which is 8. The number 10no represents the number of neutrons, which is 10. And the number 8e- represents the number of electrons, also 8. Therefore, the correct answer is option b. 8P+, 10no, 8e-.
As a Drosophila research geneticist, you keep stocks of flies of specific genotypes. You have a fly that has normal wings (dominant phenotype). Flies with short wings are homozygous for a recessive allele of the wing-length gene. You need to know if this fly with normal wings is pure-breeding or heterozygous for the wing-length trait. What cross would you do to determine the genotype, and what results would you expect for each possible genotype?
To determine the genotype of a Drosophila fly with normal wings, a test cross with a homozygous short-winged fly is conducted. If all offspring have normal wings, the parent is homozygous; if offspring show a 1:1 ratio of normal to short wings, the parent is heterozygous.
To determine if a fly with normal wings is pure-breeding or heterozygous for the wing-length trait, you would perform a test cross by crossing it with a fly that is homozygous for the short wings (the recessive allele). This means crossing the fly with the unknown genotype (normal wings) with a fly that is homozygous recessive (short wings).
If the fly with normal wings is homozygous dominant (pure-breeding), all offspring will have normal wings because they would all receive at least one dominant allele. However, if the normal-winged fly is heterozygous, approximately half of the offspring will have normal wings and half will have short wings, indicating the presence of the recessive allele in the parent with normal wings.
A Punnett Square can illustrate the expected outcomes:
If the normal-winged fly is homozygous (WW), all offspring will be Ww (normal wings).
If the normal-winged fly is heterozygous (Ww), the offspring will be 1:1, half Ww (normal wings) and half ww (short wings).
why is it important to stain young cultures of bacteria with the grain stain?
Answer:
Explanation:
Grain stain is a stain that is used for wood polishing. It is used for culture of new and young bacteria so as to support the innoculation of these young bacteria, supports their growth and survival.
Answer:
Grain stain is a stain that is used for wood polishing. It is used for culture of new and young bacteria so as to support the innoculation of these young bacteria, supports their growth and survival.
Explanation:
What is carrying capacity?
a. Exponential growth
b. Growth rate
c. The minimum number of individuals an environment can support
d. Logistic growth that starts off fast but slows down as the population gets larger
e. The maximum number of individuals an environment can support
Answer:
e. The maximum number of individuals an environment can support
Explanation:
Carrying capacity refers to the largest population size that can be supported by a specific habitat for an indefinite period of time. The concept of carrying capacity assumes that the environment of the habitat should remain constant.
Carrying capacity is represented by letter "K" and changes in response to the changes in the environmental conditions of the system.
For example, good rainfall in grassland would increase its carrying capacity for grazing animals while a drought would reduce it due to reduced availability of food.
Explain why disease alleles for cystic fibrosis (CF) are recessive to the normal alleles (CF+), yet the disease alleles responsible for Huntington disease (HD) are dominant to the normal alleles (HD+).
Answer:
Cystic fibrosis mutation is recessive to normal allele because only one functional or normal allele is enough to produce a functional protein. So, if mutation is present in one allele then also, a normal protein can be made from normal allele. The presence of normal protein prevents the expression of disease.
In addition, mutated allele only results in the loss of function of protein which can be compensated by the expression of normal allele. It does not add any toxic effect to the protein. Consequently, the disease is inherited in autosomal recessive fashion.
In contrast, Huntington mutation not only alters the structure of the functional protein but also adds toxicity to it. The altered protein is enable to interact with 100s of other proteins and inhibit or decrease their function. So, if only one allele is present then also, the mutated protein will be produced and it will result in the phenotype. Consequently, it is inherited as autosomal dominant fashion.
If the DNA content of a diploid cell in the G1 phase of the cell cycle is x, then the DNA content of the same cell at metaphase of meiosis I would be
a. 0.25x.
b. 0.5x.
c. x.
d. 2x.
Answer:
d. 2x.
Explanation:
At metaphase the DNA chromatides are duplicated. This explains that if in G1 phase of the cell cycle the DNA content is x, then the content in metaphase of meiosis I is 2x.
Which of the following represents the most likely location of sensory receptors that monitor internal body temperature and serum osmolarity?
a. Carotid bodies
b. Hypothalamus
c. Solitary nucleus
d. Nucleus ambiguus
e. Anterolateral medulla
Answer:
The correct option is: b. Hypothalamus
Explanation:
Hypothalamus is a small structure present below the thalamus of the brain. It is part of the central nervous system, which contains several nuclei having diverse functions.
It is responsible for producing and secreting neurohormones that stimulates or inhibits the secretion of the pituitary hormones.
The hypothalamus is the primary location of sensory receptors and the thermostat of the body. It is responsible for monitoring the internal body temperature and serum osmolarity.
What would occur if the repressor of an inducible operon were mutated so it could not bind the operator?
a. irreversible binding of the repressor to the promoter
b. reduced transcription of the operon’s genes
c. buildup of a substrate for the pathway controlled by the operon
d. continuous transcription of the operon’s genes
Answer:
d. continuous transcription of the operon’s genes
Explanation:
An operon is a group of genes that function together to form a polycistronic mRNA. It has a structural gene, a promoter region, an operator region and a regulatory gene. Structural gene codes for the product. RNA Polymerase binds to promoter region to begin transcription. Regulatory gene codes for the repressor protein and repressor protein binds to the operator region.
If the repressor is mutated, it wont be able to bind to the operator region so the operon will go into continuous induced state. Operon genes will be transcribed continuously since there is no repressor molecule to halt the process.
Inducible operon is the increased response in presence of inducer. Continous transcription of the operon's gene would occur if the repressor is mutated.
What are repressor and operon?Operon is the group of the functioning genes together that makes up the polycistronic mRNA. Operon includes a structural gene, operator, promoter, and regulatory gene in its structure.
For the process of transcription to occur RNA polymerase binds to the promoter region and the structural gene codes for the formation of the product.
Regulatory region codes for the formation of the repressor proteins that bind at the region of the operator to terminate or stop the process of transcription.
When in case of mutation at repressor protein the process of transcription will continue and will be arrested in the induced state. This will result in continuous transcription of the operon genes.
Therefore, if the repressor is mutated then option d. continuous transcription will occur.
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explain what happens to the bands A,I,H when aconraction occurs
in the muscles.
Answer:
The functional unit of a muscle cell is known as a "sarcomere" which covers the distance between the two Z-lines.
The sarcomere consists of A-zone which contains both thick and thin filaments, H-zone which contains only thick filaments and I band which contains only thin filaments.
During muscle contraction, thick and thin myofibrils slide over each other due to which the distance between two z-line get reduced. The H and I zone gets shortened but A zone does not shorten but come close to other A- bands and disappears.
During the inflammatory process the first thing that happens is
Answer:
they release substances
Explanation:
also known as inflammatory mediators
Answer:
Vasconstriction
Explanation:
Scientists always identify biodiversity hotspots by counting the number of endemic species.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
The Correct Answer is True.
Explanation:
Biodiversity hot spots focus attention on areas where a large number of species can be protected with the least number.The United States has passed a law in 1973 to protect its biodiversity
has three major parts:
This law forbids citizens and the government from harming and killing of the listed species.This law also forbids the trade of those spices which are listed species by this law.United States fish and wildlife service need to maintain the official list of endangered and threatened species and maintain their recovering plan.
Final answer:
Biodiversity hotspots are identified by the presence of high numbers of endemic species and significant human-induced disturbance; just counting endemic species is not the sole criteria.
Explanation:
Biodiversity hotspots are specific geographical areas that not only house a high number of species but are also characterized by a large number of endemic species. The statement that scientists always identify biodiversity hotspots by counting the number of endemic species is false. While the number of endemic species is a critical factor, the original criteria for a hotspot also included the condition that 70 percent of the area is disturbed by human activity. Thus, a biodiversity hotspot is identified not merely by the count of endemic species, but also by the level of threat posed to these species due to human disturbance.
By definition, in a biodiversity hotspot, you are most likely to find B. A large number of endemic species. This term refers to species that are native to a specific geographical area and are not found naturally elsewhere.
Which of the following is not a consequence of partial hydrogenation of vegetable oils?
a. lower melting temperature
b. reduction of some cis double bonds to single bonds
c. increased risk of cardiovascular disease upon consumption by humans
d. conversions of some cis double bonds to trans double bonds.
e. longer shelf life
Answer:
The correct answer is option a. "lower melting temperature".
Explanation:
Food makers add hydrogen to vegetable oil in order to make them more solid. The melting point of vegetable oils that go trough a partial hydrogenation process do not lower, actually, the melting point increases. Vegetable oils that are partially hydrogenated are partially saturated, which in consequence increases its melting point to the point that they could be solid at room temperature.
Lowering of melting temperature isn't a consequence of partial hydrogenation of vegetable oils. Instead, it creates more saturated fats, increasing the melting temperature. Other consequences include conversion of cis double bonds into single or trans bonds, risk increase of cardiovascular diseases, and extended shelf life.
Explanation:The partial hydrogenation of vegetable oils leads to several outcomes, but a 'lower melting temperature' is not one of them. On the contrary, hydrogenation causes an increase in melting temperature because it converts unsaturated fats (present in vegetable oils) into saturated fats, which are solid at room temperature. During partial hydrogenation, cis double bonds are converted into single bonds or trans double bonds, which is associated with a greater risk of cardiovascular disease when consumed by humans. Furthermore, these alterations enhance the oil's shelf life due to the increased resistance to rancidity.
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2 Points
What do restriction enzymes do?
O
A. They separate DNA fragments so they can be seen.
O
B. They illustrate which chromosomes are present.
O
c. They cut strands of DNA at specific sites.
O
D. They make one DNA sample into many copies.
SUBMIT
Answer:
Hello my friend! The correct answer is: C) They cut strands of DNA at specific sites.
Explanation:
These enzymes are endonucleases, that is, inside (hence the endo-inside prefix) of DNA molecules, cutting them into well-defined locations.
These are enzymes always "poke" the DNA molecule at certain points, leading to the production of fragments containing sticky ends, which can bind to other ends of DNA molecules that have been cut with the same enzyme.
Freediving is an activity in which a person dives, sometimes to great depth, without the use of scuba gear. The diver must hod his or her breath for the duration of the dive. (the record depth with no equipment such as diving fins, is 101m; the offical record time is over 11 minutes). historically freediving has been used by pearl divers and sponge divers.
some freedivers hyperventilate (breathe rapidly and deeply) before diving. hyperventilation can change the concentration of CO2 in the blood and may increase the length of time that a person feels like he/she can hold his/her breath.
how does hyperventilation affect blood pH?
a.) it increases CO2 and decreases H+ in the blood, increasing pH
b.) it decreases CO2 and increases H+ in the blood, increasing pH
c.) it increases CO2 and H+ in the blood, decreasig pH
d.) it decreases CO2 and H+ in the blood, increasing pH
Answer:
d.) It decreases CO2 and H+ in the blood, increasing pH
Explanation:
Carbon dioxide is eliminated from the body as a gas in exhaled air, during hyperventilation the volume of air breathed in and our increased above the normal, causing more [tex]CO_{2}[/tex] to exit the body affecting the equilibrium between bicarbonate ion and carbon dioxide:
[tex]CO_{2}+H_{2}O <- H_{2}CO_{3} <- H^{+}+HCO_{3}[/tex]
This change in the equilibrium (to the left) results in a pH rising because of the loss of H+.
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Describe the functions of the four photoreceptor proteins in human vision.
Answer:
In human vision, the cone visual opsins are grouped into four photoreceptor protein families LWS, SWS1, SWS2, RH2 .
SWS1: produce pigments sensitive to very short wavelengths, UV-violet, 360-450 nm. SWS2: produce pigments sensitive to short wavelengths, blue, 450-495 nm RH2: produce pigments sensitive to medium wavelengths, green, 495-560 nm LWS: produce pigments sensitive to long wavelengths, yellow-red, 560-770nm.
Explanation:
Photoreceptor proteins are light-sensitive proteins that mediate light-induced signal transduction, thus they are involved in the sensing and response to light in a variety of organisms.
The photoreceptor proteins are classified based on the chemical structure of the chromophores involved, the light absorption and on the protein sequence.
This photoreceptor proteins are located at the cone photoreceptor cells and are responsible of photopic vision.
For scotopic vision, rhodopsin is responsible. Rhodopsins are the visual pigments (visual purple) of the rod photoreceptor cell in the retina. They are responsible of human vision in dim light, as it contains a sensory protein that converts light into an electric signal.
Sunlight is required for all cellular organisms on Earth, because all organisms are either photosynthetic or dependent on a photosynthetic organism.
a. True
b. False
Answer: True
Explanation:
The sunlight is required for the living organism because all the living organism on the earth are either autotrophs or depends on the autotropic organism for their survival.
The green plants perform the process of photosynthesis by trapping sunlight. The other organism depends on the plants for their survival.
Hence, the given statement is true that all the living organism depends directly or indirectly on the sunlight.
Q:- You may have heard through various media of an animal alleged to be the hybrid of a rabbit and a cat. Given that cat (Felis domestica) has a diploid chromosomes number of 38 and a rabbit (Oryctologus cuniculus) has a diploid chromosomes number of 44, What would be the expected chromosomes number in the somatic tissues of this alleged hybrid?
Answer:
41 chromosomes
Explanation:
Cats have a dipoid chromosome number of 38, so their gametes will have half that number: an haploid number of 19 chromosomes.
Rabbits have a dipoid chromosome number of 44, so their gametes will have an haploid number of 22 chromosomes.
When a cat gamete (n=19) joins with a rabbit gamete (n=22) to form the hybrid zygote, it will have 19+22=41 chromosomes. When it undergoes mitotic division, all its somatic cells will have 41 chromosomes.
The expected chromosomes number in the hybrid between a rabbit and a cat is 41, calculated by averaging the chromosome counts of the two species.
The expected chromosomes number in the somatic tissues of the alleged hybrid between a rabbit and a cat would be 41. This number is calculated by taking the average of the chromosomes found in both species. The cat has 38 chromosomes, and the rabbit has 44 chromosomes, so when added together and divided by 2, the hybrid would be expected to have 41 chromosomes.