Body Cavities:
For each organ below, identify the body cavities using the following: cranial, vertebral, thoracic, pleural, pericardial, peritoneal, abdominal and pelvic.
*Note: more than one term may be necessary to correctly answer the following below.
Stomach ________________
Ovaries _________________
Small intestine ___________________
Brain __________________
Kidneys _____________________
Lungs ____________________
Spinal cord _________________
Heart ________________
Urinary bladder _____________________
Liver _____________________

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

The answer are:

 - Stomach: abdominal and peritoneal cavity

- Ovaries: pelvis and peritoneal cavity

- Small intestine: abdominal and peritoneal cavity

- Brain: cranial cavity

- Kidneys: abdominal and peritoneal cavity

- Lungs: thorax and pleural cavity

- Spinal cord: spine

- Heart: pericardic and thorax

- Urinary bladder: Pelvis and peritoneal cavity

- Liver: abdominal and peritoneal cavity

Answer 2

Final answer:

The stomach, small intestine, kidneys, and liver are located in the abdominal cavity and peritoneal cavity, the ovaries and urinary bladder are in the pelvic cavity, the brain in the cranial cavity, the lungs in the thoracic and pleural cavities, the spinal cord in the vertebral cavity, and the heart in the thoracic and pericardial cavities.

Explanation:

Body Cavities and Organ Locations

For each organ listed, the body cavity or cavities in which it is located are specified

Stomach: abdominal cavity, peritoneal cavity

Ovaries: pelvic cavity, peritoneal cavity

Small intestine: abdominal cavity, peritoneal cavity

Brain: cranial cavity

Kidneys: abdominal cavity, peritoneal cavity (technically, they are posterior to the peritoneum, in the retroperitoneal space)

Lungs: thoracic cavity, pleural cavity

Spinal cord: vertebral (spinal) cavity

Heart: thoracic cavity, pericardial cavity

Urinary bladder: pelvic cavity

Liver: abdominal cavity, peritoneal cavity

The body is divided into two main cavities: dorsal and ventral. The dorsal cavity contains the cranial cavity and the spinal (vertebral) cavity. The ventral cavity includes the thoracic body cavity (further divided into the pleural and pericardial cavities) and the abdominopelvic cavity (which further divides into the abdominal and pelvic cavities). The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominopelvic cavity by the diaphragm.


Related Questions

Treatment for osteomyelitis include:
a. IV antibiotics.
b. Antipyretics.
c. Narcotic pain management
d. Non-weight bearing on the affected limb.
E. Passive ROM on the affected limb.

Answers

Answer:

The answers are A, B, C, E

Explanation:

The treatment of osteomyelitis in general should include the following management:

1- Intravenous antibiotic.

2- Intravenous or oral analgesic.

3 - Keep the affected bone at rest, that is, avoid mobility or weight in it. Passive movements can be made to the affected bone as long as it is tolerated.

4 - Narcotics in case the pain becomes very intense.

5 - Local heat.

How can the use of the nurse's personal communication device(s) impact patient care positively and/or negatively? What are the ethical and legal implications? What does the professional literature say about how communication devices can support safe nursing practice?

Answers

Answer:

To begin with, a nurse´s private life, symbolized in the use of her private communication devices, should be separate from her professional field. In essence, unless absolutely necessary, a nurse should not carry with her communication devices that are personal, as her time of work, is the time that must be reserved to give the best nursing care possible.

The use of communication devices, such as cellphones, can have both negative and positive impact on nursing care. But mostly, negative. On the plus side, a nurse who carries a cellphone can easily access necessary information that might help her in her care. But that would be the extent of it. On the negative side, there are many issues involved. First, a nurse handles a lot of private information on her patients, and the use of personal devices is a way to infringe on that. She might make the mistake of informing someone outside about a patient´s situation, and that would be a violation of all the rights of patients. Second, hyginie. Usually cellphones are a huge medium to transport pathogens, and very few nurses realize this. So it can also become a source of infection. Third, a nurse´s attention will not be fully given to her patients, to her care, but it will be split between her professional, and personal, worlds, increasing the risk of making mistakes in her care.

This is why, even from the time of nursing school, nurses are told that these devices can be used for good, as long as they are placed in certain spots specifically designed, such as lunch rooms, or staff lounges. They can be used as a means for consultation, or getting in contact with people from their own work, if necessary, but they must not be carried around, and definitely should not be consulted outside of the resting time alloted to them.

What is the Icd 10 code for gastroesophageal reflux disease?

Answers

ICD-9CM offers one code: 530.81. ICD-10-CM includes two codes (but doesn’t include the abbreviation GERD): K21.0, gastro-esophageal reflux disease with esophagitis. K21.9, gastro-esophageal reflux disease without esophagitis

Assisting muscles are called _____________.

Answers

Answer:

Synergists

Explanation:

A lot of muscles are involved in an action. The principle muscle involved  is called the primer mover or agonist.

For example an action like uplifting a cup. The primar mover is actually the biceps branchii. However, these muscles are assisted by brachialis which are known as synergist. A synergist behaves like a fixator which stabilizes the bone and thus, assist the action of uplifting the cup.

Thus,

Assisting muscles are called synergists.

The assisting muscles are called synergistic muscles.

The assisting muscles are called synergistic muscles. Synergistic muscles are muscles that work together to perform a specific movement or action. For example, when you bend your arm, the biceps and brachialis muscles are synergistic muscles because they work together to flex the elbow joint.

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Why are lipids such efficient energy storage molecules as compared to carbohydrates?
A. They are hydrophobic.
B. They contain 4 kcal per gram of fat.
C. They are less compact than carbohydrates.
D. They hold a lot of water.
E. None of the above

Answers

Answer:  Option  A

Explanation:

Lipids belongs to the group of biological molecules that includes fat, oils and some steroids. They are better for storing energy as compared to carbohydrate because they are more weight efficient due to its hydrophobic nature.

Lipids can be stored without storing a lot of water. Besides this carbohydrates requires water to get stored inside the body.

So, lipids are better storage molecules for energy as compared to that of carbohydrates.

Final answer:

Lipids are efficient energy storage molecules because they have high energy content per gram owing to their carbon-carbon and carbon-hydrogen bonds. They are hydrophobic which means they are more compact as they do not hold water. This makes them better at energy storage compared to carbohydrates. The correct answer is A.

Explanation:

The question asks why lipids are such efficient energy storage molecules as compared to carbohydrates. The correct answer to this question is that lipids provide more energy per gram than carbohydrates. Lipids have a high energy content because their fatty acid chains contain numerous carbon-carbon and carbon-hydrogen bonds, which are capable of storing a lot of energy.

Moreover, lipids are hydrophobic and, therefore, do not bind to water, making them more compact energy stores since they do not require water for storage. This is in contrast to carbohydrates, which can bind water and thereby are less efficient on a per gram basis.

Lipids are essential not just for energy storage but also for other functions like forming a major component of cell membranes, insulating and protecting organs, and contributing to the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins such as A, D, E, and K.

The descending limb of the nephron loop is impermeable to water while the ascending limb of the nephron is permeable to water.
a. True
b. False

Answers

Answer: Option B. "False"

Explanation:

Nephron can be defined as the functional unit of the kidney.

Descending limb and ascending limb are the combinly called loop of nephron or henle and are the part of renal tubule in the nephron.

Descending limbs and  ascending limbs have different permeabilities to water and salt that causes high osmolarity in the Medulla.

The thin descending limb is having high permeability to water as they have low permeability to ions and urea while the thick ascending limb has impermeablity to water as there is active reabsorption of ions.

Hence, the correct option is B.

Final answer:

The statement is false. The descending limb of the nephron loop is permeable to water and the ascending limb of the nephron loop is impermeable to water.

Explanation:

The statement 'The descending limb of the nephron loop is impermeable to water while the ascending limb of the nephron is permeable to water' is false. In reality, the opposite is true. The descending limb of the nephron loop, part of the kidney’s urine-forming apparatus, is permeable to water and impermeable to solutes. Contrarily, the ascending limb of the nephron loop is impermeable to water, but it allows for the passage of ions and sodium chloride.

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Why cannot we domain the peristalsis when a diarrheal condition is present?

Answers

Answer:

Peristalsis is defined as the involuntary movement which involves contraction and relaxation of muscles present in the digestive tract originates from the esophagus.

In diarrheal condition  the Peristalsis movement does not take place properly as it is not a voluntary muscle movement so it can not be controlled consciously. it is important to digestion but, in case of diarrhea or constipation something goes haywire with peristalsis . this condition can also be defined as motility (hypermotility) disorder.

Where does systemic venous blood enter the heart?
A. right ventricle
B. left atrium
C. right atrium
D. left ventricle

Answers

Answer:

C. Right atrium

Explanation:

The right side of the heart receives deoxygenated blood from the body through superior and inferior vena cava. The right atrium contracts and the blood is passed from the atrium to the right ventricle which later contracts and sends blood to the lungs through the pulmonary artery to reoxygenate.

The best treatment for an acute thigh contusion is? What should the athlete wear when he/she returns?

Answers

The best treatment for an acute thigh contusion is to wrap your thigh with a wet bandage to insulate skin. This is important because, you could become more injured if you didn't do proper steps to the healing process.

Which of the following is NOT true about muscle cells?
a. The sarcoplasmic reticulum and the t-tubules are physically fused together
b. It is multinuclear
c. The plasma membrane is called a sarcolemma
d. An AP arriving at the neuromuscular junction triggers the release of Calcium into the cytoplasm

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer will be option B.

Explanation:

The muscle cells are the long, cylindrical, tubular structure which is made up of the myofilaments- actin and myosin.  

The plasma membrane of a muscle cell is known as sarcolemma and the cytoplasm of the cell is known as sarcoplasm. Each muscle cell has the small holes present on its sarcolemma through which the nerve impulse are transmitted from the sarcolemma to sarcoplasmic reticulum where calcium ions are released into the sarcoplasm.

In the given question the, the muscle cell is multi-nucleated which is the case of skeletal muscles only. The muscle cells have a single nucleus in smooth and cardiac muscles.

Thus, option B is the correct answer.

Final answer:

The correct answer is d. An AP arriving at the neuromuscular junction triggers the release of Calcium into the cytoplasm. This statement is not true about muscle cells.

Explanation:

The correct answer is d. An AP arriving at the neuromuscular junction triggers the release of Calcium into the cytoplasm. This statement is not true about muscle cells. In reality, an action potential (AP) at the neuromuscular junction triggers the release of acetylcholine, which then causes a depolarization of the muscle cell membrane. This depolarization leads to the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, allowing for muscle contraction.

The sarcoplasmic reticulum and t-tubules are physically fused together in muscle cells, which allows for efficient communication between the plasma membrane and the sarcoplasmic reticulum during muscle contraction. This fusion is vital for the process known as excitation-contraction coupling.

The plasma membrane of muscle cells is called sarcolemma. This specialized membrane surrounds the muscle cell and helps maintain the internal environment of the cell.

Muscle cells are indeed multinuclear. Unlike most cells in our body that only have one nucleus, muscle cells contain multiple nuclei. These nuclei are necessary to provide adequate genetic material for the synthesis of proteins required for muscle contraction and maintenance.

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Infectious mononucleosis is caused by?
a) HSV-1
b) HSV-2
c) EBV
d) CMV

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer to the question: Infectious mononucleosis is caused by:___, would be: C: EBV, or Epstein-Barr virus, a herpesvirus 4, of the same family of the herpes virus.

Explanation:

Infectious mononucleosis, also known as Mono, is an infectious disease caused by the Epstein-Barr virus, from the herpes virus family. This illness is also called glandular fever, as usually, especially in children, which is the usual time when people are affected by the EBV, there is an enlargement of the lymphatic nodes in the throat, which means the throat looks swollen, there is fever, tiredness, and some times, the spleen and liver can also be attacked and affected. It usually resolves by itself, there is no vaccination available  for it and treatment is exclusive for pain and fever.

The MOST common metallic ligating clips are made of which of the following materials?
A. chromium
B. aluminum
C. titanium
D. silver

Answers

Answer: Titanium

Explanation:

Titanium is used as the most commonly and widely used material as metallic ligating clips because they have more durability, malleability than other materials.

This properly helps the metal to bend and form clip. It is also used because of its least reactivity and does not gets corrode easily.

It is highly biocompatible as it does not releases ions around the surrounding tissues and organs.

Because of all the above reasons, titanium is used for making metallic ligating clips.

Which muscle is deeper in the body: the internal oblique muscle or the transverse abdominal muscle? Is the trapezius muscle located in the abdomen, back, head, neck, or thorax?

Answers

Answer:

The transverse abdominal muscle is present deeper in the body and the trapezius muscle is located in the back.

Explanation:

The transverse abdominal muscle is a layer of muscle that is present on the anterior (front) and lateral (side) abdominal wall and is present below the internal oblique muscle.

The trapezius muscle is a paired surface muscle which is located in the back. The main function of this muscle is to move the scapula and support the arm.

Final answer:

The transverse abdominal muscle is located deeper in the body compared to the internal oblique muscle. The trapezius muscle is not positioned in the abdomen, but can be found in the upper part of the back, extending to the neck and head.

Explanation:

The transverse abdominal muscle is deeper in the body compared to the internal oblique muscle. This muscle is arranged transversely around the abdomen, similar to the front of a belt on a pair of pants. On the other hand, the internal oblique muscle is situated more superiorly and extends in the direction wherein our thumbs usually when other fingers are in the pants pocket.

The trapezius muscle is not located in the abdomen. Rather, it's a muscle that stabilizes the upper part of the back, thus it's located in the back and extends to the neck and the base of the skull. This muscle plays a crucial role in movements of the neck and shoulder.

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In describing a contracted sarcomere vs. a relaxed sarcomere, the contracted lacks which structures/components, while they are present in the relaxed sarcomere.
Where 1. A-band 2. I-band 3. Z discs 4. H-zone 5. M-line

A. 1 & 2
B. 3 & 4
C. 3, 4 & 5
D) 1 & 4
E) 2 & 4

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer will be option E- 2 & 4.

Explanation:

The sarcomere is a segment made up of thick and thin filaments between the two Z-lines or disc of a myofibril.

Sarcomere structurally can be divided into bands:  

A-band- which is also known as the anisotropic filament is made up of thick filaments called myosin. H-zone- the zone in the A-band which appears lighter in color in the microscope  I-band- an isotropic band made of thin filament called actin.

Upon contraction of muscle, these filaments form an overlapped structure due to which I-band shortens along with H-zone of A- band. Due to the shortening of these bands, only A-band without H-zone and I-band appears between two A-lines. These bands upon relaxation again take their normal form.

Thus, option E- 2 & 4 is the correct answer.

Final answer:

The I-band and H-zone are the structures that are reduced or no longer apparent in a contracted sarcomere when compared to a relaxed sarcomere; the A-band stays the same length during contraction. So the correct option is E.

Explanation:

In describing a contracted sarcomere vs. a relaxed sarcomere, specific structures are altered. In a relaxed sarcomere, all bands and zones are visible and at their maximum lengths. During contraction, certain regions shorten while others remain unchanged. In a contracted sarcomere, the I-band and the H-zone are the structures/components that are reduced or no longer apparent.

The I-band consists only of thin filaments and spans the distance between adjacent thick filaments. The H-zone is the central region of the A-band where only thick filaments are present. As contraction occurs, thin filaments slide towards the M-line, diminishing the H-zone and pulling Z-discs closer together, thereby reducing the I-band. However, the A-band, which contains both thin and thick filaments, remains the same length even during muscle contraction.

The site of final maturation and storage of sperm cells before their ejaculation is:
a. seminal vesicles
b. seminiferous tubules
c. epididymus
d. glans penis
e. sperm bank

Answers

b. seminiferous tubules

The site of final maturation and storage of sperm cells before their ejaculation is epididymis. So, the correct option is (C).

What are Sperm cells?

Sperm is defined as the male reproductive cell or gamete in the heterozygous forms of sexual reproduction. Animals which produce motile spermatozoa (sperm) with a tail is known as a flagellum while some red algae and fungi produce non-motile sperm cells which is known as spermatia.

The function of a sperm cell is to be released during sexual intercourse which meets an ovum which is the egg cell is biologically produced by the female body. Once they unite, the sperm will penetrate and fertilize the egg to create new genetic material.

At the top of each testicle is the epididymis, which is a cord-like structure where sperm mature and are stored.

Thus, the site of final maturation and storage of sperm cells before their ejaculation is epididymis. So, the correct option is (C).

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What cells recognize and destroy antibody-coated cells:
a) B- and T-lymphocytes
b) basophils and mast cells
c) dendritic cells
d) macrophages and neutrophils
e) NK cells

Answers

Answer:

The correct option is : e) NK cells

Explanation:

The antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity, is a special cell-mediated mechanism of immune defense. This mechanism involves active lyses or the breakdown of the cell membrane of the antibody-coated target cell by an effector cell of the immune system.

The effector cell required in the antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity are known as Natural Killer cells or the NK cells. The NK cells show interaction with the IgG antibodies and recognize and destroy the antibody-coated target cells.

What disorder fits the clinical manifestation of the following:
a) Hypertension, tachycardia, palpitations, severe headache, diaphoresis, heat intolerance, weight loss, constipation
b) Polydipsia, nocturia, polyuria, hypernatremia, increased plasma osmolality, large volume of dilute urine
c) Polydipsia, nocutria polyuria, increased appetite, weight loss, hyperglycemia, glycosuria
d) Weakness, fatigue, hypotension, hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia, elevated ACTH
e) Lethargy, cold intolerance, hoarseness, nonpitting boggy edema around the eyes, coarse hair, decreased body temperature
f) Tachycardia, diaphoresis, tremor, pallor, confusion, decreased LOC, perhaps seizure
g) Virilization: lack of breast development, hirsutism, increased muscle bulk
h) Polyuria, decreased LOC, Kussmaul breathing, acetone smell to breath, hyperglycemia, decreased blood pH, ketonuria, glycosuria
i) Hypertension, hypokalemia, increased blood pH, increased urine potassium

Answers

Answer:

I'm say c it's just a wild guess

If a mass casualty event occurs involving a nuclear power plant accident, along with burns and open wounds, most victims and their clothing will be contaminated with:
A. infectious organisms.
B. ionizing radiation.
C. biological agents
D. chemical agents

Answers

Answer: Option b

Explanation:

If nuclear power plant accident takes place then most of the people get affected by this mass exposure.

This exposure affects mass of population, with burns, wounds and ionizing radiation. Ionizing radiation can be defined as the radiation that is caused due to different types of particles like gamma, alpha, beta particles.

These particles have the ability to penetrate inside the body and cause mutation. Many other genetic deformities can also be encountered with expose to ionizing radiation.

hence, the correct answer is option B

Explain the importance of knowing Heimlich Maneuver.

Answers

Answer:

The technique is called the Heimlich maneuver, or abdominal thrusts. Abdominal thrusts lift your diaphragm and expel air from your lungs. This causes the foreign object to be expelled from your airway. And The Heimlich maneuver is a lifesaving first aid technique. It is preformed when someone is choking and unable to breathe. The maneuver consists of a person wrapping their arms around the other, using the technique to thrust a piece of food or foreign object out of their throat.In order to show others that you are chocking, hold your hands around your throat. Make sure to educate your family and friends about this signal. It is important that they know what to do if they are chocking and it is important for them to know what to look for if someone else is chocking.

Explanation:

As a practicing nurse, how do you establish a therapeutic relationship? A positive environment for an initial assessment? Any differences for an assessment of an infant that you would make?

Answers

Answer:

As a practicing nurse, the establishment of therapeutic relationships with patients is really important, because it will ensure a positive interaction between the professional and object of care, as well as success in the endeavours from both to achieve the goals of care.

As such, there are several steps that can be taken to ensure that this environment is positive. The first is the attitude with which the nurse establishes raport. The nurse must show a positive, and professional attitude, be polite and nice with the patient, speak to them using words that are clear and appropriate to the age, and educational level of the patient and their family, explain her/his purposes with a set program of care, or a procedure, and always be available and ready to answer the questions that are pertinent to the patient´s care. It is also important for the nurse to show the patient that any and all information received during care will remain strictly confidential. THe initial relation can be established through greeting,  introduction of the nurse to the patient and their family if available, explanation of the purpose of the nursing plan the nurse will carry out, and constant readiness to listen atentively to the patient and their family. This, if done during the initial assessment, attentive listening, explanation, and oppenness, as well as showing a professional, yet not unreachable stance, will ensure a good initiation of therapeutic relationship.

In children, there is something also very important. Nurses must always remember to treat the pediatric patient as a participant in care, not simply the object of care. Children, especially at a certain age, will show more reluctance to allow a nurse near if they fear, or are uncertain, of what will happen. Also, vocabulary, actions and attitude must be appropriate for the age of the child. Finally, the nurse must count with the help, or engage the participation, of the parents, or guardians, of the child. They will be vital to establish raport and a positive caring environment.

Duodenum is the first portion of the small intestine. It is approximately 25 centimeters (10 inches) in length. It receives chyme from the stomach through the _________ valve.

Answers

Answer:

The answer is pylorus

Explanation:

The pylorus is the valve located between the lower part of the stomach and the first portion of the duodenum.

What is AIDS caused by?
A. a virus
B. a bacterium
C. mosquito bites
D. a mutation on a cell’s receptor site

Answers

Answer:

The answer is A: virus

Explanation:

AIDS (acquired immunodeficiency syndrome) is caused by the late-stage HIV virus; as a manifestation of the patient's great immune compromise, which is practically without defense to resist any infectious attack on the organism.

An increase in afterload will result in a(n) ________
a. decrease in heart rate.
b. increase in heart rate.
c. decrease in stroke volume.
d. increase in cardiac output.
e. increase in stroke volume

Answers

Answer:

i think: c. but, not question on this answer????

Explanation:

Answer: Option C.

Explanation:

Afterload is defined as the pressure exerted by the heart that work against to eject blood during systole or ventricular contraction.

Afterload is said as proportional to the average arterial pressure. when systemic vascular resistance and aortic pressure are increased, that results increase in afterload by ventricular dilation and by aortic valve stenosis. As a result in the increased afterload, there is an increase in end-systolic volume and a decrease in stroke volume.

Hence, the correct option is C.

Which of the following pairs is not correct?
a) Skeletal muscle : striated
b) Cardiac muscle : voluntary
c) Cardiac muscle : striated
d) Smooth muscle : involuntary

Answers

Answer:

B) Cardiac muscle: voluntary

Explanation:

As we know the skeletal muscle is striated and voluntary and smooth muscle is involuntary. The muscle cardiac has a different classification it is striated but involuntary. The contraction is different from the skeletal muscle this is thanks to the action potential dilivered in the muscular cells of the heart because of the sodium and calcium levels. The sodium is rises very fast but is decrease in the same way and the calcium is in a sustained level that allows the action potential.

Answer:

b) Cardiac muscle : voluntary

Explanation:

Define cardiac output, heart rate, and stroke volume.

Answers

Answer:

- Cardiac output = defined as the amount of blood that comes out with each ventricular contraction in a minute. Normally in a healthy and young person it is 4.5 L / min.

- Heart rate = It is the amount of heartbeats in a minute. Normally it goes between 60 to 100 contractions per minute.

- Stroke Volume = It is the amount of blood ejected from the heart to the aorta and to the pulmonary artery in each contraction.

Describe three signs of a stroke.

Answers

Answer: Difficulty speaking, blurred vision, and trouble with coordination.

A stroke is when there’s damage to the brain because of lack of blood

Three signs of a stroke:

1. Numbness of body parts.

2. Trouble speaking.

3. Dizziness and blurred vision.

If you experience any of these symptoms, go to the emergency room immediately.

You see a 30-month-old who speaks in mixed Spanish and English. The child’s vocabulary is normal but at the low end of the normal language spectrum. The parent is worried the child’s development will not be normal because she mixes up the two languages. You respond: a.“Your child’s speech is normal and bilingual children commonly intermix the wordsfrom both languages until about 3 years of age.” b.“Don’t be concerned because your child’s speech is normal and young childhood is the best time to learn languages.” c.“Stop speaking English at home to avoid confusion. She can always learn Englishoutside the home.” d.“The child may confuse the words now, but that will change by second grade.”

Answers

Hi !

You see a 30-month-old who speaks in mixed Spanish and English. The child’s vocabulary is normal but at the low end of the normal language spectrum. The parent is worried the child’s development will not be normal because she mixes up the two languages.

b.“Don’t be concerned because your child’s speech is normal and young childhood is the best time to learn languages.”

The term capacitance vessel refers to:
a. the mechanism by which blood can bypass a capillary plexus
b. blood vessels specifically adapted to adjust the surrounding temperature
c. the blood storage function of veins
d. large arteries that have the ability to stretch

Answers

Answer:

The answer is C: the blood storage function of veins

Explanation:

Capacitance vessels are venous vessels capable of storing up to 70% of circulating blood.

Describe the components and functions of the three lines of immune defense.

Answers

Answer and Explanation :

Three lines of immune systems are

ADAPTIVE IMMUNITY : It comes into action when first and second line of defense are not working or in other word fail in their work

       specific response in this adaptive immunity this is the third

       line of defense effector T cells and B cells

INNATE IMMUNITY : it come into into action when first line of defense fail to do his work

       its components are

       organ lymph nodes ,tonsils,  

     

BARRIERS AT BODY SURFACE : The barriers are used for the protection of body from infection there are mainly two types of infection physical infection and chemical infection these include skin, stomach tear etc

Final answer:

The immune system's three lines of defense consist of physical and chemical barriers for the first line, non-specific responses like inflammation and phagocytosis for the second, and the adaptive immune response involving lymphocytes and antibodies for the third line, all of which protect the body against pathogens.

Explanation:

The immune system's three lines of defense work together to protect the body from pathogens such as bacteria, viruses, and parasites. The first line of defense includes physical and chemical barriers like the skin, mucous membranes, and secretions like saliva and stomach acid which block or destroy incoming pathogens. The second line of defense consists of non-specific responses, including inflammatory responses, fever, and phagocytic cells like white blood cells that engulf and destroy invaders.

The third line of defense involves the lymphatic system and is known as the immune response. This specific adaptive immune response involves lymphocytes, like T-cells and B-cells, that can recognize and remember specific pathogens for a more rapid and stronger reaction in future encounters. This system also includes the production of antibodies tailored to neutralize or destroy specific antigens, and the ability of immune memory to provide protection against future infections by the same pathogen.

Overall, these three lines of defense work like a fortress with multiple layers of protection, ensuring that only pathogens that can breach all barriers pose a significant threat to the body. The immune system's adaptability and complexity are vital for survival in a world full of potentially harmful microbes.

Which of the following is/are NOT considered a pathogen? Select ALL that apply
a) athlete's foot fungus
b) cancer
c) chicken pox virus
d) hookworm intestinal parasite
e) meningococcus bacterium
f) pollen

Answers

Answer: b) cancer

Explanation:

A pathogen is an biological agent which is capable of invading the body of living beings and harm them by causing infection. Cancer and pollen cannot be considered as pathogens.

Cancer is a condition in which the cells of the body divide uncontrollably in an abnormal fashion. Due to this tumor of abnormal cells develop and these cells makes the immune system of the body weak. These infectious cells make the immune system weak and prove to be fatal.

Other Questions
8-1y=2-------------6-y=7---------------4= 22 - 64------------------ Tyson is a 25% partner in the KT Partnership. On January 1, KT makes a proportionate distribution of $16,000 cash, inventory with a $16,000 fair value (inside basis $8,000), and land with a fair value of $8,000 (inside basis of $12,000) to Tyson. KT has no liabilities at the date of the distribution. Tyson's basis in his KT partnership interest is $24,000. What is Tyson's basis in the distributed inventory and land? An oscillating mechanism has a maximum displacement of 3.2m and a frequency of 50Hz. At timet-0 the displacement is 150cm. Express the displacement in the general form Asin(wt + ). Suppose that 12% of people own dogs. If two people are randomly chosen, what is the probability that they both own a dog? Write your answer as a percent and round to the nearest hundredth of a percent. What are the details of frame transmission andreception that LAN interface handles? Simplify the expression 43 + 2(3 2). 14 16 66 68 Who says the following lines? ". . . there is special providence in the fall of a sparrow. If it be now, tis not to come; if it be not to come, it will be now; if it be not now, yet it will come: the readiness is all. . . . Let be." e equation 2x + 3y = 36, when y = 6? What is 1(y), when y = -5/8 Air enters a compressor at 100 kPa, 10C, and 220 m/s through an inlet area of 2 m2. The air exits at 2 MPa and 240C through an area of 0.5 m2. Including the change in kinetic energy, determine the power consumed by this compressor, in kW. Multiply. Express your answer in simplest form. 1/8 5/6 5/12 5/48 5/32 3/20 Suppose an object in free fall is dropped from a building. its starting velocity is 0 m/s. whats its speed (in m/s) of the object after falling 2 seconds? Casey sustained an injury after lifting weights. What can she do to overcome this barrier and prevent further injury? Check all that apply. A. Create or revise a safety plan to prevent further injuries Gibbons, small Asian apes, move by brachiation, swinging below a handhold to move forward to the next handhold. A 9.0 kg gibbon has an arm length (hand to shoulder) of 0.60 m. We can model its motion as that of a point mass swinging at the end of a 0.60-m-long, massless rod. At the lowest point of its swing, the gibbon is moving at 3.2 m/s .What upward force must a branch provide to support the swinging gibbon?Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units.(Textbook is College Physics by:Knight, Jones, and Field.) Point T is reflected over the y-axis. Determine the coordinates of its image. T (2, 5)a(2, -5)b(2, 5)c(-2, -5)d(-2, 5) Which cranial nerve carries motor commands to the chewing muscles? a. facial nerve b. hypoglossal nerve c. trigeminal nerve d. glossopharyngeal nerve Proteoglycans are part of the extracellular matrix; they provide structure, viscosity and lubrication, and adhesiveness. They are composed of proteins conjugated to carbohydrate components called glycosaminoglycans. The glycosaminoglycan component makes up the majority of the mass of a proteoglycan. Which of the following are possible components of glycosaminoglycans? Select all that apply. Determine which of the following statements about glycosaminoglycans are true. There is more than one true statement; select all the true statements. Dermatan sulfate and keratan sulfate are examples of glycosaminoglycans. Because glycosaminoglycans consist of only two residues, they generally have low molecular weights. Dextran is an example of a glycosaminoglycan. Glycosaminoglycans are heteropolysaccharides composed of repeating disaccharide units. The amino groups of the amino sugar derivatives provide a positive charge that offsets the negative charges from the sulfate or carboxylate groups. Mrs. Smithers, an 83-year-old established patient, is in today for follow-up after falling and breaking her arm 2 weeks ago. Her daughter is with her and insists on going back to the exam room. During the patient interview, you notice that each time you ask Mrs. Smithers a question her daughter answers before she is able to. How should you handle this situation A ; 1/2. B ; 1/3. C ; 2/3 D ; 4/9 Maria earns $60.00 for 8 hours of work and Marc earns $46.50 for 6 hours of work. Which person earns the most per hour? A. Maria. B. Marc. C. They earn the same amount. D. It cannot be determined.