Answer:
Flashbacks; PTSD, are the right answers.
Explanation:
In the given situation, Bradley is most likely suffering Flashbacks associated with PTSD disorder. In the above excerpt, Bradley is suffering from Post-traumatic stress disorder. It is because of this disorder that he experiences some of the flashbacks from the memories of the war. He can feel the events and smell the gunfire. This is significant of the fact that he is witnessing those events in his mind. These activities and flashbacks are associated with PTSD.
Further Explanation:
Introduction:
PTSD is the abbreviation for Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder, it is a mental disorder that can occur after an individual is flashed to a traumatic experience, such as warfare, physical assault, and other threats. The symptoms of this disease include nightmares, flashbacks, severe anxiety, and stubborn thoughts about the situation.
Effects:
In this particular situation, the individual suffers from the failure to get recovered from the experiences of past events, which were terrifying and horrifying for him. It leaves a significant impact on the mind of the individual which leads to the emergence of flashbacks in the future. The thoughts about the event keep flashing back to the individual, thereby leaving him unbearable to cope up with the situation. The individual suffers from temporary difficulties to adjust with such flashbacks.
Symptoms: The symptoms of this disorder can be experienced after a short interval of the event. The symptoms may vary from person to person and it may appear at any time after the event ends. Not just it hampers the individual solely, but it also wrecks the social and personal experiences and relationships of the person. This disorder binds slowly in the lives and starts to trail upon the normal daily lives of the people.
Treatment: The intensity of the symptoms decides whether to see and consult the doctor. The best it when the doctor is consulted immediately and at soon as possible. Early and immediate treatment can help the individual get rid of the disorder before it gets worse.
Avoidance: These symptoms can be avoided by not thinking extensively about such events. Also, the things, places, and people associated with the event which promotes the remembrance of it should be avoided. Avoidance of the thoughts related to the disorder is the core and the simplest way of getting rid of it.
Keywords:
mental disorder, traumatic experience, flashbacks.
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Bradley is most likely experiencing Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), a condition marked by distressing re-experiences, negative emotional states, and avoidance of stimuli connected to traumatic events, all of which stem from his tours of duty in the war.
Explanation:Based on the question, it appears that Bradley is most likely suffering from Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), associated with his war experiences. PTSD is a disorder resulting from exposure to a traumatic event leading to symptoms that include intrusive and distressing memories of the event, flashbacks, avoidance of stimuli associated with the event, persistently negative emotional states such as fear, anger, guilt and shame, feeling detached from others, irritability, and an exaggerated startle response. Given Bradley's two tours of duty in Iraq, it's reasonable to suggest that the symptoms he experiences - reliving experiences, sensing gunfire and feeling fear - are connected with PTSD.
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Fiona’s parents expect her to get good grades and get along with her siblings, and when she breaks the rules she has to go into time out. When she has trouble with homework, her parents help her understand the concepts but still expect her to do the work. She has to be ready for bed at a certain time, and arguing about bedtime doesn’t work. Her parents always give her hugs and tell her they love her before she goes to bed. Fiona’s parents have a(n) ________ parenting style.
A) authoritative
B) authoritarian
C) indulgent
D) neglecting
Answer:
A
Explanation:
They are authoritative and tell her what to do, but they arent authoritarian because they still appreciate her and give her hugs. An authoritarian is a dictator that does not show any remorse or compassion to its subject(s). Therefore, your answer
is A
John was taught by his teacher to say, “Hello” when greeting people. Now when he meets people he not only says “hello,” but also says: “hi,” “good to see you” and “hey there.” John’s behavior change is an example of:
Answer:
The correct answer would be, Response Generalization.
Explanation:
In simple words, Response Generalization is the spreading of the effects of a behavior which strengthen the contingency to other responses that are similar to the target response. Response Generalization is actually the possibility or occurrence of the similar response or behavior which occurs once.
So if John says some more words to greet people when he meets them, other than what he was taught by his teacher, his behavior change is the example of Response Generalization. For example, if he is taught to say Hello while greeting people, he can continue this behavior by saying Hi, good to see you, hey there, etc. This is response generalization.
Answer:
Response Generalization
Explanation:
Also called stimulus generalization. the act or process of responding to a stimulus similar to but distinct from the conditioned stimulus. Also called response generalization. the act or process of making a different but similar response to the same stimulus.
When an incident expands ________________________________. A. functions and positions remain the same throughout the incident regardless of expansion. B. only the functions and positions necessary are filled. C. all functions of the Command and General Staff must be filled. D. all functions of the Command and General Staff are filled and the entire list of elements within each Section.
Answer:
The correct answer would be option D, All functions of the command and General Staff are filled and the entire list of elements within each section.
Explanation:
In a common typical organizational structure, there are clear lines of authorities and responsibilities. Every member of the staff has been assigned a specific task to be done. Each member performs his or her duties effectively and try to accomplish the objectives of the company. When an incident happens, and that is not normal, and that escalates or expands, then each and every member in the line of the organizational structure comes in action, and all functions of the command and general staff are filled and the entire list of elements within each section.
When an incident occurs and expands, only the necessary roles and functions within the incident command system are filled, not all. The complexity and scale of the incident determine which roles should be filled.
Explanation:When an incident expands, the correct answer is B. only the functions and positions necessary are filled. This means that not all roles within an incident command system (ICS) are filled immediately. The complexity and scope of the incident dictate the need for more roles to be filled. For a minor incident, only a few key positions may be required. But as an incident grows or becomes more complex, additional roles may be activated to support the response.
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Ellwood & McGraw explain that in indigenous cultures, ________________ rituals for young people "emphasized that the spirits of nature work through the natural processes of the human body."
Answer:
Ellwood & McGraw explain that in indigenous cultures, initiation rituals for young people "emphasized that the spirits of nature work through the natural processes of the human body."
Explanation:
Initiation rituals are rites of passages marking entrance or acceptance into a group or society. They could also be a formal admission to adulthood in a community or one of its formal components. A person being subject of the initiation ceremony in traditional rites is called an initiate.
In 2003, the Supreme Court ruled on two different University of Michigan cases related to affirmative action. They ruled that it was – to use race as one of a number of considerations while also ruling that it was – to give minority applicants a specific number of bonus points in the application scoring system.
Answer: Constitutional, unconstitutional.
Explanation:
In Grutter v. Bollinger, the Supreme Court of the United States judged that the student admissions process can constitutionally favor underrepresented minority groups as long as race is not the only factor considered.
Gratz v. Bollinger ruled a points-based admissions policy that granted bonus points to minority applicants, unconstitutional since it was breaking the Equal Protection Clause of the 14th Amendment.
Final answer:
The U.S. Supreme Court in 2003 ruled that affirmative action policies in university admissions must consider race as one of many factors in a holistic and individualized manner, as seen in the Grutter v. Bollinger case. However, it also ruled against mechanical point systems favoring minorities, as was the case in Gratz v. Bollinger. These decisions align with the principles established by the 1978 Regents of the University of California v. Bakke ruling.
Explanation:
In 2003, two significant Supreme Court decisions shaped affirmative action policies in university admissions. The first case, Gratz v. Bollinger, addressed the undergraduate admissions at the University of Michigan, where the Supreme Court ruled that policies awarding a specific number of bonus points to minority applicants were unconstitutional. This decision stated that such a point system was too mechanical and not sufficiently individualized. The second case, Grutter v. Bollinger, involved the University of Michigan Law School. The Supreme Court upheld the law school's admission policy, which considered race as one of many factors in a less quantitative, more holistic approach to admissions. This close 5-4 ruling emphasized that race could be considered to enhance diversity but should not be the sole determinant in the admissions process.
Drawing from these cases, affirmative action is permissible when race is used as one part of an individualized assessment in higher education admissions. However, policies that allocate a specific number of points or resemble a quota system based on race are not allowed. These rulings followed the precedent set by the 1978 Regents of the University of California v. Bakke decision, which also underscored the importance of a flexible, individualized consideration of applicants' race rather than rigid quotas or separate admissions tracks.
The growth rate __________. by definition is always a positive number to indicate in what ways the population is growing can actually indicate the population is shrinking rather than growing can be positive or negative, but not zero ignores migration
Answer:
Can be positive or negative, but not zero.
Explanation:
The growth rate can be positive or negative, but not zero.
Final answer:
The population growth rate can be positive, negative, or zero and is determined by the birth rate, death rate, and the rates of immigration and emigration. It accurately reflects the rate of increase or decrease in a population's size.
Explanation:
The population growth rate (r) indicates how a population's size changes over time. It can be a positive or negative number, or even zero. A positive growth rate signifies an increasing population, while a negative growth rate indicates a decreasing population. The rate is influenced by the birth rate (b), death rate (d), immigration (i), and emigration (e). The formula used to calculate this rate is r = (b + i) - (d + e). This calculation reflects all aspects of population change, including natural increase and movements due to immigration and emigration.
suppose you hate reality shows, but you pretend to like them in order to fit in, feel good, and be accepted by your friends, who all love reality television. This is an example of ________ social influence.
The behavior of pretending to like reality shows despite disliking them to fit in with friends is an example of conformity, a form of social influence. This action also incites cognitive dissonance, a discomfort caused by conflicting attitudes or beliefs.
Explanation:Suppose you hate reality shows, but you pretend to like them in order to fit in, feel good, and be accepted by your friends who all love reality television. This is an example of conformity as a social influence. Conformity is defined as the act of changing your behavior to go along with the group even if you do not personally agree with the group's actions or beliefs.
This behavioral change can occur due to various reasons, one of them being the desire to fit in and be accepted by others around you. For instance, in your case, despite disliking reality shows, you pretend to enjoy them so you can fit in with your friend group that loves watching these shows.
This example specifically relates to cognitive dissonance, a psychological discomfort that arises from a conflict in a person's behaviors, attitudes, or beliefs that runs counter to one's positive self-perception. You experience cognitive dissonance because you act contrary to your preferences by pretending to like reality shows while in reality, you actually dislike them.
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Final answer:
The student's behavior of pretending to like reality shows to fit in with friends who love them exemplifies normative social influence, which is conforming to a group norm to be accepted.
Explanation:
The situation described by the student is an example of normative social influence. This occurs when a person conforms to a group norm to fit in, feel good about themselves, and be accepted by the group. The student, in this case, is pretending to enjoy reality shows because their friends love these shows, and they wish to be part of the group and avoid rejection. This is a case of public conformity, where the individual’s outward behavior differs from their private beliefs, motivated by a desire for social acceptance.
Normative social influence is different from informational social influence, where a person changes their behavior based on the actions of others as a guide to what is correct, often occurring in situations of uncertainty. An example of informational social influence might be following others during an emergency when unsure what the best course of action is.
Many factors contribute to why someone may or not have a psychological disorder. The notion that pre-existing biological conditions may put someone at risk for developing a disorder with the additional burden of stressful experiences is the
(A) Post traumatic stress disorder
(B) Anxiety disorder
(C) dissociative disorder
(D) Specific phobia
The belief that pre-existing biological problems may put someone at risk of developing a disorder with the added load of stressful circumstances is an Anxiety disorder. Thus, option (B) is correct.
What is Anxiety disorder?Anxiety disorder produced by a medical disease involves feelings of severe anxiety or panic caused by a physical health issue. Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by continuous and excessive anxiety and stress about everyday activities or situations.
Childhood shyness or anxiety or nervousness in unfamiliar circumstances. Stressful and unfavorable life experiences or environmental factors. Anxiety or other mental illnesses in biological relations. Therefore, it can be concluded that option (B) is correct.
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Frank and Gina are looking at an abstract painting in a museum. Gina describes objects and people she thinks she sees in the painting. Frank says, "It's a bunch of paint thrown on a canvas." Gina responds, "No, there is so much here that you just don't see." During lunch, they agree that their experience reminds them of what concept they learned in introductory psychology?
Answer: the concept is projective testing
Explanation:
In Psychology, projective testing is designed to let a person respond to ambiguous stimuli, presumably revealing hidden emotions and internal conflicts projected by the person into this kind of evaluation.
Final answer:
Frank and Gina's experience with an abstract painting exemplifies Gestalt psychology concepts, which suggest that the brain perceives entire patterns or forms rather than just individual components. Their different interpretations highlight the interactive nature of viewing abstract art like Abstract Expressionism or Minimalism.
Explanation:
The concept that Frank and Gina's experience with abstract art reminds them of is likely Gestalt psychology. This area of psychology posits that the human brain tends to perceive objects as part of a greater whole and that this perception is not merely the sum of sensory inputs but involves a higher level of cognitive understanding. This concept is evident in their differing interpretations of the abstract painting - whereas Gina is able to perceive objects and form meanings beyond the chaotic appearance (figure-ground studies), Frank sees just the physical aspect of the paint on the canvas.
Abstract Expressionism and other movements like Minimalism challenge traditional notions of meaning in art. They suggest that the artistic value of a piece can exist in the viewer's perception, independent of representational imagery. Artists within these movements, such as Frankenthaler, employed techniques that emphasized the physical and formal elements of painting rather than clear representational content, inviting viewers like Gina to find their unique interpretations.
According to Piaget, which stage occurs from approximately ages 2 to 7, in which children's use of symbolic thinking grows, mental reasoning emerges, and the use of concepts increases?
Answer:
Preoperational Stage
Explanation:
Piaget proposed stages of cognitive development, and claimed that in the preoperational stage children have a significant cognitive development and are able to mentally represent an object that is not present as well as use symbolism and language to get what they want. However, their egocentrism does not allow them to distinguish between their own view and other people's views.
Homeostasis typically relies on negative feedback because positive feedback _______
Answer: Homeostasis depends on the ability of your body to detect and oppose these changes.
Explanation:
How was Gandhi viewed by the people in his nation?
Answer:
he was viewed as a bringer of peace.
Explanation:
Answer:
He was viewed as a hero.
Explanation:
Because he was a man who lived humbly, loved humanity and was against violence.
Gandhi forged India's independence from British rule in 1947 by staging massive peaceful demonstrations against poverty and the fight for women's rights and religious tolerance.
* Therefor he was considered a hero because he was the main reason India got their independence from British.
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Grace enjoys going out with doug but has no plans to make their relationship "permanent." she doesn't always tell him the truth about where she's been or the other people in her life, and becomes annoyed when he asks too many questions or expects too much from her. according to lee's love theory, grace is a(n) ________ lover.
Answer:
Primary type of love: Also know as Ludus
Explanation:
"Ludic lovers want to have as much fun as possible. When they are not seeking a stable relationship, they rarely or never become overly involved with one partner and often can have more than one partner at a time. They don't reveal their true thoughts and feelings to their partner, especially if they think they can gain some kind of advantage over their partner. The expectation may also be that the partner is also similarly minded. If a relationship materializes it would be about having fun and indulging in activities together. This love style carries the likelihood of infidelity. In its most extreme form, ludic love can become sexual addiction."
From an early age, Kwaku got into trouble constantly. He continually violates the rights of others and he often lies, fights, and has problems with the law. Generally, he is impulsive and fails to think ahead. He is frequently deceitful and manipulative in order to get the things he wants, and he never regrets his misdeeds or considers the feelings of those he has harmed. Which of the following diagnoses accounts for Kwaku’s personality?
a. antisocial personality disorder
b. dependent personality disorder
c. obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
d. paranoid personality disorder
The answer is A. Antisocial personality disorder
Explanation:
The Antisocial personality occurs when individuals find difficulties to adapt to the rules, laws, and values of their context. Because of this, individuals such with this disorder tend to break the laws or rules of their context, besides violating the rights of others, using manipulation and not feeling regret, which shows they seem not to have a moral sense that fits with the ones of their context. All of this features occur in the case of Kwaku as he gets in trouble constantly, has issues with the law and violates the rights of others which shows he is unable to adapt to the rules, norms, and values of its context. Besides this, Kwaku shows a low moral level as despite all of these negative action he does not regret.
A single dad begins his day by making breakfast and putting his daughter on the school bus. Then he heads to his office where he works as an attorney. Later that day he serves as a coach for his daughter’s soccer team. These are examples of:
Answer: Social role
Explanation: This dad is an example of engaging in multiple related activities throughout the day, representing a social role. According to social role theory, such activities are linked and are made up of certain behaviors, obligations, rights, beliefs that interfere with a particular social concept and determine social status. In addition to duties, these activities also include freely chosen obligations, but regardless, they must all be fulfilled and faced.
A researcher leaves a research file in her car while she attends a concert and her car is stolen. The file contains charts of aggregated numerical data from a research study with human subjects, but no other documents. The consent form said that no identifying information would be retained, and the researcher adhered to that component. Which of the following statements best characterizes what occurred? (A) There was neither a violation of privacy nor a breach of confidentiality (B) The subjects' privacy has been violated. (C) Confidentiality of the data has been breached. (D) There was both a violation of privacy and a breach of confidentiality.
The following statements best characterizes about researcher : There was neither a violation of privacy nor a breach of confidentiality. The correct option is A.
In this scenario, based on the information provided, neither a violation of privacy nor a breach of confidentiality has occurred. The researcher adhered to the consent form by not retaining any identifying information of the human subjects. The file that was stolen contained aggregated numerical data, which means that the individual identities of the subjects were not included or compromised.
Thus, the ideal selection is option A.
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Final answer:
A breach of confidentiality occurred when the research file was stolen, but privacy was not violated because no identifying information was leaked.
Explanation:
The situation described constitutes a breach of confidentiality but not a violation of privacy. Although the stolen file contained aggregated numerical data from a research study with human subjects, no identifying information was retained, adhering to the consent form agreement. Confidentiality refers to the need to protect individual's personal information from being disclosed without their consent, and since no personal data was lost, privacy was maintained. However, because the physical security of the data itself was compromised (the file was stolen), confidentiality has technically been breached. This highlights the importance of maintaining physical security of research data.
Bob is head of his department at work. Lately, he's noticed that the older workers and the younger workers have separated into two groups (older versus younger), and the two groups are becoming increasingly hostile toward one another. Based on the famous study by Muzafer Sherif, what should Bob do to reduce conflict and hostility between the older and younger workers?
Answer:
Bob should give both groups a project that will help them reach a common goal.
Explanation:
In Muzafer Sherif's study in Robbers Cave showed that two groups can unfairly judge another group based on competition. If the groups need to work together to reach a common goal, this will eliminate competition and will reduce conflict and hostility between the groups. The hope would be that the older group of workers and the younger group of workers could work together to reach a common goal and that in the end this would promote collaboration and respect among members of each group.
Gwendolyn and Wade are considering divorce and have poor communication and conflict resolution skills and little strengths. According to the typology developed by Olson, Olson-Stigg, and Larson (2008) what kind of marriage do they have?
Answer: It is called "conflicted"
Explanation: According to the typology developed by Olson, Olson-Stigg and Larson, there are five kinds of couples: harmonious couples, vitalized couples, conventional couples, conflicted couples and devitalized couples.
The typology developed by Olson, Olson-Stigg, and Larson has Conflicted marriages.
What are a few ways that a conflict theorist?Conflict theorists do not agree with that public schools lessen social inequality via presenting identical opportunities. Instead, they agree that the academic device reinforces and perpetuates social inequalities that rise up from variations in class, gender, race, and ethnicity.
This hidden curriculum reinforces the positions of those with higher cultural capital and serves to bestow repute unequally. Battle theorists point to track, a formalized sorting system that places students on “tracks” (superior as opposed to low achievers) that perpetuate inequalities.
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Following _____, a conditioned response may reappear. This process is known as ______. a. extinction; spontaneous recovery b. discrimination; spontaneous recovery c. discrimination; extinction d. generalization; extinction e. generalization; spontaneous recovery
The correct answer is extinction; spontaneous recovery.
Explanation:The correct answer is a. extinction; spontaneous recovery. Extinction occurs when the conditioned stimulus is presented repeatedly without being paired with an unconditioned stimulus. The conditioned response weakens and eventually disappears. However, even after extinction, there is a possibility of the conditioned response briefly reappearing, which is known as spontaneous recovery.
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Following 'extinction', the conditioned response can reappear in a process known as 'spontaneous recovery'. This is based on the theory of Classical Conditioning where the conditioned stimulus is decoupled from the unconditioned stimulus leading to the extinction of the conditioned response, which may reappear after some time.
Explanation:The correct answer to the question is 'Following extinction, a conditioned response may reappear. This process is known as spontaneous recovery.' This is based on the principles of Classical Conditioning, a form of associative learning as described by Ivan Pavlov.
Extinction occurs when the conditioned stimulus is presented repeatedly without being paired with the unconditioned stimulus, which in turn, results in a weakening and eventual disappearance of the conditioned response. However, after a pause or break, the conditioned response can suddenly reappear, even without the presence of the unconditioned stimulus. This reappearance of the conditioned response is known as spontaneous recovery.
For instance, if a dog has been conditioned to salivate at the sound of a bell which has been repeatedly paired with food presentation, over time if the bell sound is presented without the subsequent food presentation, the dog's salivation response will decrease and eventually stop. This is extinction. If after a period of time, the bell is again rung, the dog may suddenly salivate again. This is a spontaneous recovery of the conditioned response.
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When an athlete is running across a field, _________ allow(s) for the person to be propelled forward. (The runner pushes down on the ground, and the ground pushes the person in the opposite direction.)
Answer:
Friction
Explanation:
Friction is one of the important phenomenon in the daily life. With the help of friction we can walk, stand ,run and many more work which we can do with the help of it.
so, when athlete is running it apply force on to the ground normal force act on the ground because of the friction presence.
then the opposite reaction applied from the ground allows the athlete to move forward.
Gabriela is a 22-year-old recent college graduate. She is preparing to move to the largest city in her region to complete a prestigious internship. She has dated several young men but does not envision settling into a serious relationship for at least a few years yet. Gabriela is in a life stage many developmental psychologists call _____ adulthood.
Answer:
Gabriela is a 22-year-old recent college graduate. She is preparing to move to the largest city in her region to complete a prestigious internship. She has dated several young men but does not envision settling into a serious relationship for at least a few years yet. Gabriela is in a life stage many developmental psychologists call emerging adulthood.
Explanation:
Emerging adulthood is a phase of a life between the adolescence and full fledged adulthood.
Gabriela is in the life stage known as 'emerging adulthood.' This is a transition period from adolescence to adulthood, where individuals (typically aged 18 to mid-20s) focus on personal growth and exploration in areas such as work, love, and self-identity.
Explanation:Gabriela, a 22-year old recent college graduate preparing for a prestigious internship, falls under the life stage known as emerging adulthood. As detailed in developmental psychology, emerging adulthood spans from 18 years of age into the mid-20s, and is characterized by intimate exploration in areas of work, love, and self-application. It consists of a phase of transition and exploration before settling down into the next stage which is ‘early adulthood’ with allowed adults to share their life with others once they have developed a strong sense of self-esteem.
During emerging adulthood, an individual often experiences flexibility between adolescence and assuming adult roles, which may include major commitments like work, relationship or even family at large. Therefore, Gabriela's singleness and readiness to undertake an internship in a large city aligns with the typical characteristics of an individual in emerging adulthood.
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The Spanish-American War marks a large shift in U.S. foreign policy. After this war, the U.S. became an imperial power. In at least 250 words, make a claim as to whether or not becoming an imperial power was good for the country, by following these directions:
Answer:
The definition of Imperialism is " The policy by which one country takes control of the land and people of another country, for their own benefit. Strong nation taking over a weak nation.". So a country that becomes an imperial power country means that it has the power to and will take control of another country/part of land and its people. The U.S. becoming an imperial power was a good the for the U.S. country. The U.S. becoming an imperial was a good thing for the country because it gave the U.S. more opportunities. By the U.S. becoming an imperial power it caused the U.S. to gain more territory and land and many say that the U.S. became an imperial power was because the U.S. would get good money if it did. It gave the U.S. trade/sales opportunities because they had control of the nation they took over with their imperial power.
Explanation:
Answer:
The correct answer to this question is explained down below. However, the reasons that made good the Imperial development of the U.S were the economical boost, the status, the political influence, and the sympathy from different countries all over the world.
Explanation:
Becoming an Imperial power was incredibly good for the U.S. First fall because in positioning it as a very influential power in the future of Americ. Because it's sympathy for the Cuban rebels and its military power won over one of the biggest kingdoms at that time. So, the U.S. won a level of recognition never seen before. Also in the second place because the result of that war made the U.S. a guard of the world. Leading it to acquire geopolitical positions that positioned it as one of the most relevant countries in different areas of trade routes. In third place, the U.S. obtained a lot of sympathy from all the world in its paper of liberator, protector and many countries looked to engage relationships with it. The U.S. also saw a very good boo in its economy that let them prepare for the future wars they were going to fight in the name o peace and international justice. Therefore the United States of America Imperialism was very good for it but also for the world. It also helped the United States to develop a military structure that would position it as one of the most revolutionary nations in terms of technology. The reach of the seas that the U.S. won after the Spanish American war was too big that they focused on the development of a navy as big as the Great GRitains royal fleet to compare them in power in the means of economic and military potential. Thus, where only the foundations that positioned the leadership of the U.S. in the 20th century.
You're offered fried balls of spicy ground chickpeas stuffed into pita bread. Most likely, you're experiencing the local cuisine of A. Hong Kong. B. Lebanon. C. South Africa. D. Mexico.
Answer:
Lebanon.
Explanation:
If you're offered fried balls of spicy ground chickpeas stuffed into pita bread you're experiencing the local cuisine of Lebanon.
That dish is called Falafel and is Middle Eastern typical food. Falafel consists of fried spiced balls made from ground chickpeas. Spices, onion, tomato, herbs, can be added to the dough. It is a famous dish.
Falafel is from Middle Eastern local cuisine and Lebanon is located in Middle Eastern. That's why the answer is Lebanon.
A federal statute makes it a felony to engage in any commercial act involving the "cruelty, wounding, or killing" of an animal or depicting anything being to an animal that is prohibited by law. robert stevens ran a website that sold films of dog fighting, many of which were films done in japan where such activity is not illegal. he was convicted of violating the federal statute. stevens appealed his case on the grounds that his first amendment rights were violated because the statute was overly broad. what theory of constitutional law would stevens be using in his appeal
Answer:
Substantive due process
Explanation:
The substantive due process theory of the constitutional law that prohibit the government from violating the rights of the defendant during the due process.
The first amendment protect the government to prevent the citizens from exercising their free will. Since on the case above the dog fighting is not illegal in japan , the defendant could make a case that the government is violating first amendment during the due process (since he is not informed why he is sentenced from exercising activities that he believed as legal) and can be used as a basis for his appeal.
Robert Stevens used the overbreadth doctrine to appeal his conviction under a federal statute criminalizing certain depictions of animal cruelty, arguing it violated his First Amendment rights. The U.S. Supreme Court found the statute to be overly broad and therefore unconstitutional as it criminalized protected speech.
In the case of United States v. Stevens, Robert Stevens appealed his conviction under a federal statute on the grounds that it violated his First Amendment rights due to being overly broad. This appeal was based on the overbreadth doctrine, a theory of constitutional law which argues that a law is unconstitutional if it restrains more protected speech than necessary to achieve a legitimate government interest. In Stevens' case, the U.S. Supreme Court agreed, stating that the statute as written criminalized protected speech and thus was not enforceable given the First Amendment protections.
When considering the constitutionality of such a statute, it's also essential to analyze it in relation to the Eighth Amendment and the due process clause in the Fourteenth Amendment. The Court was wary of expanding the categories of speech excluded from First Amendment protections, as it would set a precedent for increased government censorship and detract from the principle that speech has social value even if it's distasteful or offensive to many.
Douglas McCauley argues we should protect natural resources by valuing: Douglas McCauley argues we should protect natural resources by valuing: Their ability to remove air pollution. Their cultural significance to humans. Their structural worth. Their carbon storage capacity.
Answer:
Their cultural significance to humans.
Explanation:
Douglas McCauley is a professor and researcher who believes that understanding nature and how it works are the means we have to continue to exist longer as a species. McCauley's research is based on the study of ecology and aims to use this to evolve conservation methods while devising ways to create awareness among the general public about these issues that he considers extremely important.
Answer:
Their cultural significance to humans.
Explanation:
Douglas McCauley argues we should protect natural resources by valuing their cultural significance to humans.
Calvin is interested in measuring his school’s willingness to do volunteer work around the community. He sends out a self-report survey that asks students to directly fill out their ___________attitudes on the topic.
Answer:
Explicit
Explanation:
Calvin is interested in measuring his school’s willingness to do volunteer work around the community. He sends out a self-report survey that asks students to directly fill out their explicit attitudes on the topic.
Calvin is interested in measuring his school's willingness to do volunteer work around the community. He sends out a self-report survey that asks students to directly fill out their self-reported attitudeson the topic.
Self-reported attitudes refer to the individuals' own perceptions, opinions, and beliefs regarding their willingness to engage in volunteer work. These responses may not always accurately reflect actual behavior, but they provide valuable insights into the students' intentions and attitudes towards community service. Calvin's survey is an efficient way to gauge the school's overall sentiment towards volunteer work, aiding in the development of programs and initiatives to encourage community involvement. It's important to acknowledge that self-report data can have limitations, such as social desirability bias, where respondents may provide answers they think are socially acceptable, rather than their true feelings, but it remains a valuable tool for initial assessment and planning.
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As leanne participates in her study group meeting, she makes eye contact with each speaker, which indicates the use of eye contact as a(n) _________.
Answer:
a wayy to reassure the person speaking of her undivided attention
Answer:
As leanne participates in her study group meeting, she makes eye contact with each speaker, which indicates the use of eye contact as a regulator.
If you want to be perceived as trustworthy, caring, and credible with your girlfriend's parents, which interpersonal goal are you trying to achieve? personal goals self-presentation goals achievement goals instrumental goals relationship goals
Answer: Self-presentation goals.
Explanation:
Interpersonal Communication involves 2 or more people that exchange messages that influence each other's feelings, actions, and relationships. There are 4 types of interpersonal goals in communication: Self-Presentation, Instrumental, Relationship, and Arousal Goals.
Self-presentation refers to the urge to present ourselves in a certain way to be perceived as a certain kind of person.
The defense mechanism wherein a person protects his or her ego by attributing his or her own undesirable characteristics to others is called_____? For example, a girl who hates her mother may be convinced that her mother hates her.
Answer:
Projection
Explanation:
The defense mechanism wherein a person protects his or her ego by attributing his or her own undesirable characteristics to others is called projection.
In movies that focus on war (e.g., Born on the Fourth of July, Apocalypse Now, First Blood), soldiers who have returned from the frontlines often struggle with overwhelming anxiety, hypervigilance, depression, and flashbacks. In many cases, these characters abuse alcohol, are suicidal, and have a strained or angry relationship with spouses. These characters have?
Answer:
PTSD
Explanation:
Post Traumatic Stress Disorder is a condition developed by many people who experienced a traumatic event in the past.
It can be a death of a loved one, a shocking or a scary event o a prolonged exposure to a dangerous situation (as fighting in a war).
Some people recover from the initial symptoms ( sadness, helplessness, flashbacks, anxiety) within 6 months after the event. Some people, however, never recover fully and may need medical help and some medication.
Soldiers who have returned from the frontlines of war and are experiencing overwhelming anxiety, depression, and flashbacks, as well as engaging in harmful behaviors, may be suffering from posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD).
Explanation:The characters who have returned from the frontlines of war and are struggling with overwhelming anxiety, hypervigilance, depression, and flashbacks, and strained relationships, are likely experiencing posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD).
When these veterans came home from the war, little was known about PTSD, and they did not receive the necessary healthcare. Research suggests that many World War II veterans are affected by the flashback memories and isolation associated with PTSD and may turn to alcohol as a method of self-medication.
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