Can anyone help me with this?

Answer:

10. Perimeter = 56 ft  ;  Area = 195 sq. ft.

11. If my math is correct, Perimeter = 76 km  ;  Area = 706 sq. km

12. Circumference = 100[tex]\pi[/tex] cm  ;  Area = 2500[tex]\pi[/tex] sq. cm

13. Circumference = 24[tex]\pi[/tex] ft.  ;  Area = 144[tex]\pi[/tex] sq. ft.

14. Perimeter = 62 ft.  ;  Area = 238 sq. ft.

15. Circumference = 22[tex]\pi[/tex] yd.  ;  Area = 121[tex]\pi[/tex] sq. yd.

16. Perimeter = 40 mm  ;  Area = 100 sq mm

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1:7

Step-by-step explanation:

R = RED | B = BLUE | P = PINK | BL = BLACK | c = chips

10R + 10B + 12P = 32 chips

40c - 32c = 8 black chips

8BL - 3BL = 5 black chips

10R - 2R = 8 red chips

2R + 3BL = 5 chips

40c - 5c = 35 chips

5BL : 35c = 1:7

The probability that next one Susan removes is black chips is 1/7.

The probability is defined as the possibility of an event is equal to the ratio of the number of outcomes and the total number of outcomes.

Total no. of chips = 40

No. of red chips = 10

No. of blue chips = 10

No. of pink chips = 12

No. of black chips = 8

If Susan were to remove 3 black and 2 red chips

So, No. of available black chips = 8 -3 = 5

No. of available red chips = 10 - 2 = 8

Total removed chips = 5

Total no. available of chips = 35

The probability that next one Susan removes is black chips = 5/35 = 1/7

Hence, the probability that next one Susan removes is black chips is 1/7.

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Answer:

( x + 3 )( x - 7 ) and ( x + 1 )( x - 2 )

Step-by-step explanation:

Both of these represent 2 terms x 2 terms, so that means they are both in factored form.

Example:

Answer:

b

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

C) 336 in2

Step-by-step explanation:

336 in 2

Area of base → 82 = 64

Area of each triangle →  

1

2

· 8 · 17 → 68

64 + 68 + 68 + 68 + 68 = 336 in2

Answer:

1 1/3 pound (1 pound and 1/3)

Step-by-step explanation:

u just but it in a fraction

4/3

and simplify to mixed number

1 1/3

Answer:

4/3 = 1.33

Step-by-step explanation:

Since you will be dividing the amount of kibble, the equation is 4 pounds / 3 bowls. 3/4 would be dividing the bowls and that would make no sense at all. Therefore the answer is 1.33 pounds per bowl.

Answer:

B) 80 × 5, then 400 ÷ 2

brainliest?

Answer:

18a + 12x - 12a + 15x

6a + 27x

the answer is a

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Ten times the minutes spent exercising is 10t.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given : Expression 'ten times the minutes spent exercising'.

To find : Write the expression in algebraic form ?

Solution :

Let  t  represent the number of minutes spent exercising.

Here, "ten times the minutes spent exercising "  

Ten time means multiplying value by 10,

So the algebraic expression is '10t'.

Therefore, ten times the minutes spent exercising is 10t.

Answer:

im sorry if this is late but the answer is 34x2. goodluck :D

Step-by-step explanation:

I took the test

34x² represents the area of the shaded region. Option b is correct.

Two concurrent rectangle are given dimension of smaller rectangle is 9x and 6x. larger rectangle has offset of x with smaller rectangle. So the dimension of the larger rectangle is 9x+2x and 6x+2x . space between the rectangle is shaded and area of the shaded portion to be determine.

rectangle is four sided polygon whose opposites sides are equal and has angle of 90° between its sides.

Now the area of the shaded portion,
= area of larger rectangle - area of smaller rectangle
= 11x*8x  -  9x*6x
= 88x - 54x
= 34x

Thus, 34x² represents the area of the shaded region.

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The expected number of times that both coins will land on the same result in 250 throws is given as follows:

100 tosses.

The expected number is obtained applying the proportions in the context of the problem.

In the 10 tosses, 4 resulted in the same result for both coins, hence the proportion of the same result is given as follows:

4/10 = 0.4.

Hence, out of 250 tosses, the expected amount is given as follows:

0.4 x 250 = 100 tosses.

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Answer:

The diagonal * the other diagonal, all divided by two.

Step-by-step explanation:

A kite in other words is a rhombus. To find the area of a rhombus we need to multiply 1/2 * p * q

Where p is one diagonal and q is the other.

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex] \sf \:a = \dfrac{pq}{2}[/tex]

The area of a kite is half the product of the lengths of its diagonals.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

1) 4x + 3 <= 3x - 5

Subtract 3 from both sides

4x + 3-3  <= 3x - 5 -3

4x  <= 3x - 8

Subtract 3x form both sides

4x - 3x <= 3x -3x - 8

x <= -8

Answer:

CHALLENGE ACCEPTED!!

Step-by-step explanation:

4x + 3 ≤ 3x - 5

4x - 3x ≤ -5 -3

x ≤ -8

sorry, cant draw the number line but hope the solution helps.

-2x > 6

-2x ÷ -2 > 6 ÷- 2

x > -3

1/8(3x - 16) < 4

3/8x - 2 < 4

3/8x < 4 + 2

3/8x < 6

x = 16

x - 3/2 ≥ -5

x - 3 ≥ -5 × 2

x - 3 ≥ -10

x ≥ -10 + 3

x ≥ 7

Answer:

i think it is A

Step-by-step explanation:

sorry if i am wrong...hope this helped, also can i have brainliest pls?

Answer:

I believe the answer is A

Step-by-step explanation:

Graphing an inequality involves drawing a number line, marking the critical value, here -5, with an open circle because it's not included in the solution, and indicate with an arrow every number greater than -5, as these are the solutions to the inequality.

To graph m > -5 on a number line, you first need to draw a straight line, representing the number line. Mark -5 on the line. Since the inequality is 'greater than' (-5), you will have an open circle at -5. The open circle indicates that -5 is not included in the solution. The solutions for the inequality are all values to the right of -5, so you would draw an arrow pointing towards the right from the open circle. This demonstrates that all numbers greater than -5 are the solution to the inequality.

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Answer:

Variable expenses

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 4 types of expenses

-Variable Expenses:  Expenses that vary from month to month.

-Fixed Expenses: Expenses that remain the same from month to month.

-Intermittent Expenses: Expenses that occur at various times throughout the year and tend to be in large amounts.

Discretionary Expenses: Expenses for things we don't need

Answer:

Probability=  No. of favorable outcomes/ total no. of outcomes

= 4/6 Since below 5 will be 4

and we need to simplify= 2/3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: the answer is 1/6

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

b. 1/2, -1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\frac{-4+5}{2}, \frac{2+(-3)}{2} =(\frac{1}{2} ,\frac{-1}{2}[/tex]  )

Answer:

4.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

4.5

Step-by-step explanation:

150% = 1.5

so 150% of 3 = 1.5 × 3 = 4.5

Answer:

Kite, Parallelogram, and Rectangle.

Step-by-step explanation:

BTW, you spelled Urgent wrong.

The answers are, Kite, Parallelogram, and Rectangle.

Answer:

Kite, Parallelogram, and Rectangle.

Step-by-step explanation:

BTW, you spelled Urgent wrong.

The answers are, Kite, Parallelogram, and Rectangl

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Unit price = Total price

                     number of items

= 4.14/9

= $0.46

Answer:

It ends between 13cm and 14cm mark.

Step-by-step explanation:

Since this marker in question is almost 14 centimeters long and definitely ends between two centimeter marks, the two centimeters that the length of this marker ends between on a ruler should be the 13cm and 14cm marks on the ruler.

Final answer:

The length of a marker almost 14 centimeters long ends between the 13 centimeter-mark and the 14 centimeter-mark on a ruler.

Explanation:

When measuring a marker that is almost 14 centimeters long, we look at the ruler and identify the two consecutive centimeter marks between which the length of the marker falls. If the marker is almost 14 centimeters long, this means it is greater than 13 centimeters but less than 14 centimeters.

Therefore, we can confidently say that the marker's length lies between the 13 centimeter-mark and the 14 centimeter-mark on the ruler. The smaller centimeter-mark would be 13, as it is the immediately preceding whole centimeter before the marker ends.

To find the number of golf balls that can fit in the compartment, we calculate the volume of the compartment and then divide by the volume required to pack a golf ball. We can fit around 88 golf balls in the bag.

We first need to find the volume of the rectangular prism. The volume of a rectangular prism can be found by multiplying the length, width, and height. So, volume = 6 * 8 * 9 = 432 cubic inches.

Next, we can find the volume of a golf ball which is a sphere using the formula 4/3 * π * r³ where r is the radius of the sphere. The diameter of the golf ball is given as 1.7 inches, which means the radius is 1.7/2 = 0.85 inches. So, the volume of the golf ball = 4/3 * π * (0.85)^3 = 2.57 cubic inches (approx).

As per the question, in a random packing of spheres, 190% of the volume of the sphere is needed. Therefore, the required volume for each ball = 2.57 * 190/100 = 4.87 cubic inches. The total number of balls that will fit = volume of rectangle/volume of each ball = 432/4.87 = 88 (rounded down to a whole number). So, the answer is 88 balls.

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Final answer:

To find the total earnings for Wanda's highest two consecutive quarters of employment, multiply her weekly unemployment compensation by the number of weeks in two quarters.

Explanation:

To find the total earnings for Wanda's highest two consecutive quarters of employment, we need to compare the given state and weekly unemployment compensation with the table provided. According to the table, the maximum weekly unemployment compensation for Oregon is $330. Since Wanda's weekly compensation is $360, it means that her state is Oregon. Now, we can find the total earnings for her highest two consecutive quarters by multiplying her weekly compensation by the number of weeks in two quarters (26 weeks).

$360 times 26 (*) = $9360

Therefore, the total 26-week earnings for Wanda's highest two consecutive quarters of employment is $9360.

Answer:

(4,-3)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

(4,-3)

Step-by-step explanation:

Moving 6 units to the right would only affect the x coordinate. Sinceinc we are moving to the right, there is a positive increase in the x coordinate.

-2+6=4

So our new point is (4,-3)

Answer:

true

Step-by-step explanation:

We assume you intend your function to be ...

A logarithm with a base less than 1 is a decreasing curve. Here, the base appears to be 0.5, a value less than 1. Hence the curve is decreasing.

Yes, The function F (x) = log (0.75)ˣ is a decreasing function.

A relation between a set of inputs having one output each is called a function. and an expression, rule, or law that defines a relationship between one variable (the independent variable) and another variable (the dependent variable).

Given that;

The function is,

⇒ F (x) = log (0.75)ˣ

Now, We know that;

If derivative of logarithmic function is less than 1 then, it is decreasing.

Here,  The function is,

⇒ F (x) = log (0.75)ˣ

After differentiation,

⇒ F ' (x) = log 3 - log 4 < 1

Hence, The function F (x) = log (0.75)ˣ is a decreasing function.

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Answer:

GCF: 4 LCM:60

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

gcf-6, lcm-60

Step-by-step explanation:

factors of 20: 1, 2, 4, 5, 10, 20

factors of 12: 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 12

multiples of 20: 20, 40, 60, 80, 100

multiples of 12: 12, 24, 36, 48, 60, 72

Answer:

b.The interquartile range for cars is about 7 mpg, and the interquartile range for minivans is about 3 mpg.

Step-by-step explanation:

i got it right

Answer:

The answer is B

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

B) 40 games won

Step-by-step explanation:

5+3=8

64 /8 = 8

8×5 = 40 games one