Answer: Instrumental
Explanation:
Instrumental effect of amphetamine can be used to keep a person asleep for doing work. Amphetamine is a central nervous system stimulant which can be used for the treatment of attention defecit hyperactivity disorder, to keep a person awake, narcolepsy, and obesity.
Cathy needs to stay awake to study for her psychology midterm. In this case she need to stay awake for study purpose so she must take instrumental amphetamine.
So, the correct answer is Option C
A client with cancer pain is prescribed oxycodone. Which teaching is most essential to help prevent long-term complications?
1. Teach the client how to assess blood pressure daily
2. Teach the client how to prevent constipation
3. Teach the client how to prevent itching.
4. Teach the client how to prevent nausea.
Answer:
2. Teach the client how to prevent constipation
Explanation:
Oxycodone is the active substance in an opioid analgesic known commercially as Oxycontin. This oral medicine is indicated for extreme pain as it inhibits the transmission of painful impulses.
It is very common for the use of medications to relieve severe pain, such as oxycodone, to cause constipation or constipation, where the patient has a hard time evacuating, often spending days without a toilet. It is not only this type of medication that causes this problem, but it is important to inform patients who need to take oxycodone that they will need to be prevented against constipation.
In one study cited in the textbook (Chen, et al., 2010), cortisol levels among low-income children increased when they experienced more daily hassles. Therefore, cortisol levels are _____ correlated with the number of daily hassles low-income children experience.
Answer:
positively
Explanation:
There is a positive correlation when two variables move in the same direction. When one increases, the other one does too.
In this case the two variables are: cortisol levels and the number of daily hassles.
In the study cortisol levels increased when children experienced more daily hassles. The more hassles, the higher the cortisol levels. Both variables move in the same direction and there is a positive correlation
Physicians sometimes overuse diagnostic tests to protect themselves against lawsuits based on missed diagnoses.
TRUE OR FALSE
The purpose of cross-fostering the pups in the study by Meaney (so that mothers of high maternal care fostered pups of low maternal care mothers and vice versa) was ____________.
Answer: To control for mother's genetic contribution to the pup's temperament (e.g fearfulness or anxiety).
Explanation:
Cross-fostering is a method used for the purpose of animal husbandry, veterinary science, genetic, nature versus nurture studies, and conservation studies. In this approach the offspring are separated from their birth givers or parents after birth and raised by surrogates.
The offspring may show their response by identifying that the surrogates are not their original parents by temperament and anxiety which is because of the genetic contribution of the mother in them.
Cross-fostering the pups in the study by Meaney was done to examine how different levels of maternal care influence the development and behavior of the pups.
Explanation:The purpose of cross-fostering the pups in the study by Meaney was to explore the effects of maternal care on the development and behavior of the pups. By swapping the pups between high maternal care mothers and low maternal care mothers, the researchers could determine the impact of different caregiving styles on the pups' outcomes.
Moving cookies from the cookie jar on the kitchen counter to the back of the pantry to reduce the likelihood of eating them is an example of _____________.
Answer:
It is an example of stimulus control.
Explanation:
It is a process which occurs when organism behaves in a one way in the presence of the stimulus which is given and in another way when it is not present.A stimulus which further helps in the modification of behaviour in this manner is known as discriminative stimulus.Stimuli are very significant I.e.dog training because these are the reasons dog behaves in a certain ways.Stimuli like red lights & stop signs acts as symbols which indicates some sort of punishment or reinforcement is available. This is known as control piece.The generalized conditioned reinforcers are less susceptible to satiation because they can be exchanged for a wide variety of other reinforcers.Examples of conditioned reinforcers are: money & tokens.Examples of unconditioned reinforcers are:food & water are used inherently for reinforcement of individual.Explain how the structure of a cell membrane makes possible it’s function
The phospholipids of a cell membrane doesn’t mingle with water, cholesterol molecules control the consistency of cell membrane and proteins of the membrane transport materials in the cell membrane.
The cell membrane is present in all cells. Consisting of four types of molecules, the cell membrane keeps the cell separate from the outer environment.
The structure of the cell or plasma membrane is constructed by
The Phospholipid molecules that flow in the liquid of the membrane. The lipid bilayer of the phospholipid prevents them to mingle with the water. The cholesterol molecules control the passing of small molecules in the membrane and control its consistency. The proteins of membrane transport materials in the membrane and carbohydrates protect the plasma membrane.The dimension that includes a person’s ability to respond appropriately to upsetting events and to express feelings in appropriate ways is the __________ dimension of psychological health.
Answer:
Assertiveness.
Explanation:
Assertiveness is a skill refer to bien able to respond appropriately in conflictive contexts.
At what point during infancy can babies tell the difference between their own mother's milk scent and another woman's milk scent?
a. at birth within
b. a few days after birth
c. within a few weeks after birth
d. within a few months after birth
e. within a year after birth
Answer:
The correct answer is b.a few days after birth
Explanation:
It was found in a research that only 1 day old infant is able to differentiate between her mother's milk odor and another women's milk odor to which he is unfamiliar.
It was also found that after 4 days an infant can differentiate between the milk of his own mother's breast from the milk of other woman's breast if the infant have skin to skin contact with his mother while breast feeding.
So infants can recognize the olfactory molecules which is unique in every mother and can tell the difference between their own mother's milk scent and another woman's milk scent.
Babies demonstrate the ability to distinguish their mother's milk scent from another's within just a few days of birth, as early as six days old.
Babies have a remarkable ability to recognize their mother's scent shortly after birth. According to studies, an infant as young as six days old is significantly more likely to turn toward its own mother's breast pad rather than to one belonging to another baby's mother, indicating a preference for the scent of their mother's milk (Porter et al., 1992). Therefore, the correct answer to the question about when babies can tell the difference between their own mother's milk scent and another woman's milk scent is b. a few days after birth.
Protein is essential to the overall health of the body because it A. gives the body collagen, which protects the organs. B. keeps hair and nails healthy. C. sustains life and keeps body systems in good repair. D. helps "bulk up" muscles.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
A 6 year old female is takn to her pediatrician for a checkup. As the doctor takes the childs history, her mother reports that the child had a severe sore throat weeks earlier that regressed without treatment. upon examination the pediatrician notes that the child has a systolic heart murmur consistent with mitral insufficiency and suspects she has rheumatic fever.
a. how was the earlier pharyngitis r/t the subsequent development of rheumatic fever?
b. rheumatic fever is diagnosed on clinical and serological findings. what test should be done to diagnose rheumatic fever?
c. how are rheumatic fever pts treated?
Answer:
A. because she probably got infected with Streptococcus Pyogenes, a bacteria that affects the heart valves and joints
B.
Complete Blood Test
PCR
VSG
Streptococcus antibodies
C. Antibiotics.
Explanation:
Streptococcus Pyogenes is a bacteria that is spread by direct contact with an infected person and targets the throat, thus activating T cells and B cells to produce antibodies against the bacteria, nonetheless these antibodies also attack body tissues as the heart, specifically the mitral valve and peripheral joints.
the clinic is characterized by sore throat, fever with remission and two weeks later, joint pain, swelling and/or heart murmurs on examination.
The blood test will indicate if there is a bacterial infection, and the other tests will tell if there is inflammation, the antibodies will confirm the presence of the bacteria in blood.
The best antibiotic to treat this infection is penicillin, there are different types of penicillin, the best option for this specific infection is benzathine G penicillin, nonetheless other types can be use, such as macrolides ( azithromycin) and also combination of antibiotics such as a penicillin plus clavulanic acid.
Tia is always talking to her friends about how prevention is a better investment in your health than treatment. If that is her attitude toward health, which of the following would you expect her to do?Eat a well-balanced diet to increase energy and immunity
Answer:
The answer to the question: Which of the following would you expect Tia to do, in order to fulfill her premise that prevention is better than treatment for health maintenance, would be: Eat a well-balanced diet to increase energy and immunity.
Explanation:
Nowadays people are beginning to see that it is better to take measures to prevent disease from happening, than having to undergo treatment for something that is already taking place. First, because healthcare costs rise and second, because certain conditions can impaire life completely, and they can be prevented, if certain steps are being taken care of. And since people are becoming more and more money-saving oriented, due to difficult times, they also favor prevention. Tia deciding to eat a well-balanced diet to increase energy and immunity is the best option to answer this question. The reason is that this option will ensure that Tia´s body is healthy, and kept strong at all times, which shows Tia´s favoring of prevention.
Five-year-old Jonah likes to play a scrabble-like game on the family computer. He plays against other family members, and usually does pretty well. When he gets a list of letter tiles that are too difficult for him to use, he asks his mother and father for help. The difference between letter tiles that Jonah can use and letter tiles with which he needs help typifies what Vygotsky called the zone of ____ development.
Answer:
The correct answer is: Zone of proximal development
Explanation:
Zone of proximal development is the concept developed by the Soviet psychologist, Lev Vygotsky.
It is described as the cognitive, emotional, and volitional psychological development of children. Therefore, this zone is defined as the distance between the ability of the children to perform certain activities without help and perform other tasks with the help and support of a knowledgeable adult.
Therefore, according to Vygotsky, it is the zone of proximal development.
Hemophilia is a disorder in which bleeding is severe and prolonged due to a lack of clotting factor VIII. The factor activation cascade is interrupted at the Factor IX activation step. Which pathway is inhibited by this interruption?
Answer:
The intrinsic pathway of blood coagulation is inhibited.
Explanation:
To answer the question, if the factor activation cascade is interrupted at the Factor IX activation step, then the intrinsic pathway of blood coagulation is inhibited, because Factor IX belongs to the intrinsic pathway of blood coagulation.
The blood clotting cascade is a sequential process involving two starts that eventually meet to result in the formation of a blood clot. Each stage of the cascade involves specific blood clotting factors that get activated along the way; their activation is needed to continue the process.
The two initiation pathways for the blood clotting cascade are:
Intrinsic pathway: involving factors XII, XI, IX and VIII (all found in the blood, hence the name "intrinsic").Extrinsic pathway: involving Tissue factor and factor VIII (Tissue factor is found in the blood vessels, hence the name "extrinsic")The final common stage is called the Common pathway which involves factors XIII, X, V, II and I.
Hemophilia is a condition where a clotting factor is missing, resulting in bleeding. There are two major types of hemophilia:
• Type A: factor VIII is missing
• Type B: factor IX is missing
When either of these factors is missing, the intrinsic pathway is interrupted.
Hemophilia B, characterized by the deficiency of clotting factor IX, leads to the inhibition of the intrinsic pathway in the blood coagulation process, resulting in severe, prolonged bleeding.
Explanation:Hemophilia is a genetic disorder characterized by the inability to produce sufficient quantities of certain clotting factors, which are proteins that work together to stop bleeding when vessels are injured. The most prevalent form, hemophilia A, involves a deficiency in clotting factor VIII, while hemophilia B is associated with a deficiency in clotting factor IX. Since factor IX activation is a crucial step in the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, a deficiency in factor IX, as seen in hemophilia B, inhibits this pathway. The intrinsic pathway is one of the two converging arms of the clotting cascade, the other being the extrinsic pathway, and leads to the common pathway where clot formation is completed. Therefore, the interruption caused by hemophilia B impedes the intrinsic pathway, preventing the proper formation of clots and resulting in severe and prolonged bleeding.
When the lymphatic structures are blocked due to tumors, the result is ________.
A. increased pressure in the lymphatics proximal to the blockage
B. shrinkage of tissues distal to the blockage due to inadequate delivery of lymph
C. severe localized edema distal to the blockage
D. abnormally high lymph drainage from the distal region
Answer:
The correct answer is option C. severe localized edema distal to the blockage.
Explanation:
The localized edema is a disorder that is taking place by swelling due to tumors or any other blockage that accumulate excessive fluid at specif sites such as lymphatic structures. It generally goes away on its own however it can be severe if occurs due to underlying diseases such as lymphedema due to tumors.
Thus, the correct answer is option C. severe localized edema distal to the blockage.
Final answer:
When lymphatic structures are blocked due to tumors, the result is c) severe localized edema distal to the blockage, known as lymphedema, which causes swelling and discomfort.
Explanation:
When the lymphatic structures are blocked due to tumors, the result is c) severe localized edema distal to the blockage. This condition occurs because the lymphatic system is unable to handle the increased volume of lymph, leading to its accumulation in the tissues and causing them to distend. This condition, known as lymphedema, often affects the arms and legs but can impact other body parts. It results in symptoms such as swelling, difficulty moving joints, and skin that feels too tight. Treatment includes the use of compression garments, exercise, and massage therapy, among other strategies.
A group of nursing students are preparing a presentation for a health fair illustrating what happens to the body during pregnancy. Which structure will the students point out is influenced the most by hormones to prepare for conception?
Answer:
Endometrium
Explanation:
Endometrium is the inner layer of the uterus. This layer undergoes changes according to hormonal stimuli and may thicken and shrink throughout the menstrual cycle. It is the structure of a woman's body that is most influenced by hormones to prepare for conception.
At the beginning of the menstrual cycle, the endometrium flakes into menstrual blood or menstruation. After the bleeding ends, the layer begins its thickening process until it reaches its peak and again flakes, ending the menstrual cycle.
It is in this layer that occurs the fixation of the fertilization egg (nesting) and the subsequent development of the placenta and the embryo.
A client with proctitis needs a rectal suppository. A senior nursing student assigned to care for this client tells you that she is afraid to insert a suppository because she has never done it before. What is the most appropriate action in supervising this student?
a) You give the medication and report the student to the instructor.
b) Ask the student to leave the clinical area for being unprepared.
c) Reassign the client to an LPN/LVN.
d) Show the student how to insert the suppository and talk to the instructor.
Answer: Show the student had insert the suppository and talk to the instructor
Explanation: The best thing to do would be to show or teach the student how the supositroy should be applied. This learning process will help her in the future when she has to do it again and it will take away her fears. The instructor should also be informed so that they can go over the correct process of the application.
Rubella has a disastrous impact if it is contracted during the first trimester of a pregnancy, yet has hardly any impact if contracted at the end of a pregnancy. This is an example of
Answer:
This is an example of the critical period
Explanation:
Rubella or the German measles, is a highly contagious air-borne viral disease which is caused by the rubella virus, characterized by rash.
Rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy, can lead to miscarriage or a child born with the congenital rubella syndrome.
This is an example of the critical period. Critical period refers to the maturational stage of an organism during which the central nervous system is very sensitive to certain environmental stimuli.
As Rajan watches television, he sees a commercial for a local dry cleaner and then remembers that he needs to move some laundry from the washer to the dryer. Seeing the dry cleaning commercial has served as a(n) _____ for Rajan.
a) visual image
b) transient cue
c) retrieval cue
d) source memory
As Malik watches television, he sees something that serves as a retrieval cue for him to move some laundry from the washer to the dryer. Which example would be MOST likely to serve as an effective retrieval cue for Malik?
Answer:
retrieval cue
Explanation:
Retrieval cue are words, objects, people or anything that has the ability to remind us, suddenly something, in other words, are situations or objects that serve as an impulse to unlock information stored in our head. The retrieval clue is the sudden recollection of something or a certain situation that serves as a stimulus for our brain to associate it with something we had forgotten.
An effective retrieval cue for Malik as he watches television would potentially be a laundry-related scene or advertisement due to their relevance and specificity to the task of moving laundry, fostering better memory recall.
Explanation:As Malik watches television, something that would effectively serve as a retrieval cue for him to remember to move laundry from the washer to the dryer would likely be a scene or an advertisement related to laundry, clothes, or household chores. An effective retrieval cue would be highly specific and related to the task Malik needs to recall, avoiding any cue overload. The image of laundry or a similar distinctive cue would help trigger Malik's memory for the tasks he needs to complete, similar to how unique or related items can trigger memory recall more successfully than non-distinctive or unrelated cues.
Frank Moro has been diagnosed as having severe atherosclerosis and high blood cholesterol levels. He is told that he is at risk for a stroke or a heart attack. First, what foods would you suggest that he avoid like the plague? What foods would you suggest he add or substitute? What activities would you recommend?
Answer:
The full answer to these multiple questions, regarding the case of Frank Moro, are diverse, but they all point to one particular goal: reducing the lipid and cholesterol consumption, elimination of fats and LDL cholesterol to a normal level, from his system, and increasing his exercise activities so the body can better metabolize carbs and fats, two precursors to cardiovascular disease.
As such, these would be the recommendations for Mr. Moro:
1. He needs to avoid, at all costs, cholesterol-rich foods, such as shrimp, meats of all types, be it cow or pork, with high contents of fat, reduce the consumption of red meat overall, as much as possible, and also complex carbs.
2. He also needs to increase his consumption of vegetables, fiber-rich foods, omega-3 rich foods, such as salmon, tuna, cod, etc., eat more whole grains, nuts, whose fatty content are good for controlling cholesterol and heavy fats, and finally, consume oatmeal, which has been proven to lower cholesterol levels overall and improve HDL. He also needs to increase his water intake over carbonated waters and sodas.
3. He also needs to start an activity like moderate exercise, at least 3 times a week, for 30 minutes, going from moderate to more vigorous, such as intense walking, or power walking, jogging, or cycling. Swimming is also a great idea, as it is an exercise that helps reduce overall weight, increases the overall feel of wellness and protects the musculo-skeletal system by reducing impact of exercise.
These are only a few of the ideas that could be applied to improve Mr. Moro´s lifestyle and prevent him from having a cardiovascular problem.
To manage atherosclerosis and high cholesterol levels, Frank should avoid foods high in saturated fat and cholesterol, and instead consume a diet rich in fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and lean proteins. Regular exercise is also beneficial for his heart health.
Explanation:To manage severe atherosclerosis and high blood cholesterol levels, Frank Moro should avoid foods high in saturated fat, trans fat, and cholesterol. These include fatty meats, full-fat dairy products, fried foods, and processed snacks. Instead, he should add or substitute with foods rich in fiber, omega-3 fatty acids, and unsaturated fats, such as fruits, vegetables, whole grains, fish, nuts, and seeds. In terms of activities, regular exercise like walking, cycling, swimming, or jogging can help improve heart health and reduce the risk of stroke or heart attack.
Learn more about Managing severe atherosclerosis and high cholesterol levels here:https://brainly.com/question/33592565
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Changes in population demographics over the next 40 years will significantly affect the delivery of health care services. __________ is the one change that will have the most impact on the practice of nursing.
Answer:
The answer to the question: ____ is the one change that will have the most impact on the practice of nursing, would be: the doubling in size, the increase, of the old-adult population, those 65 and older.
Explanation:
The reason for this being the answer, and why it will have such a huge impact, not just on the healthcare system, but also on the correct application of nursing care, is that as our population gets older, the more healthcare will be needed, and the more senior nursing care assistance will be required. This means that the demand for nurses specialized in senior care will double. Also, there will be an increased prevalence of chronic illnesses, and the need for long-term care. All of these will impact the healthcare system and the quality of nursing practice, overall.
The nurse is planning health promotion teaching for a group of healthy older adults in a residential community. Which statement accurately describes expected hematologic effects of aging?A.) "Platelet production increases with age and leads to easy bruising."B.) "Anemia is common with aging because iron absorption is impaired."C.) "Older adults with infections may have only a mild white blood cell count elevation."D.) "Older adults often have poor immune function with a decreased number of lymphocytes"
Answer: C.) "Older adults with infections may have only a mild white blood cell count elevation.
Explanation:
Platelet count remains unaffected by the aging process. But, easy bruising can occur due to vascular integrity.
Iron absorption remains unaffected in the old patient, but appropriate nutritional intake of iron may be decreased as the diet get compromised and becomes low with old age due to ineffective digestive machinery.
The total white blood cell count is generally not affected by aging. But, a decrease in humoral antibody response and decrease in T-cell function may occur. Thus the adults may show a slight elevation in the white blood cell count.
Brad has recently increased his weekly intake of omega-3 fatty acids. Over time, which of the following effects would he likely NOT
experience?
a) reduction in inflammation
b) increase in HDLS
c) increase in risk for cardiovascular disease
d) reduction in blood triglycerides
Answer: The effects that he would NOT likely experience is an increased risk in cardiovascular disease. The correct answer is C. By increasing his weekly intake of the omega-3 fatty acids, he is lowering the risks for cardiovascular disease. These fatty acids help reduce the risk of heart failure in men and women. Some foods that contain omega-3 fatty acids are; grass fed beef, flaxseed oil, salmon, and cod.
Answer: its A
Brad has recently increased his weekly intake of omega-3 fatty acids. Over time, which of the following effects would he likely NOT
experience?
a) reduction in inflammation
b) increase in HDLS
c) increase in risk for cardiovascular disease
d) reduction in blood triglycerides
Explanation:
The nurse has delegated to nursing assistive personnel (NAP) the skill of assisting with a bedpan for a patient who has had discomfort when walking to the bathroom. Which statement made by the NAP requires the nurse's follow-up?- "Do you still need a stool sample for the lab?"- "If I can get someone to help, I'll walk her to the bathroom."- "The patient reports that moving is uncomfortable for her. Has she had pain medication recently?"- "The patient told me that she's had problems with hemorrhoids in the past."
Answer:
"If I can get someone to help, I'll walk her to the bathroom."
Explanation:
Some patients are in very delicate states, or are feeling too weak and weak to do certain simple activities. For some patients, the simple activity of eating or using the bathroom seems like a huge effort and makes them very uncomfortable. It is the duty of nurses to find ways to help the patient to do these activities and this is what the nurse described in the question is doing when delegating to nursing care staff (NAP) the ability to help with a bedpan for a patient who has experienced discomfort. walk to the bathroom. In this case, the statement made by the NAP that requires nurse follow-up is "If I can get someone to help, I'll walk her to the bathroom."
THe nurse manager working at a rehabilitation center for older adults notices an increase in the incidence of client falls. The nurse manager reprimands the nurses and staff responsible for the falls and places them on probation. Which statement best describes the nurse managers leadership style?a. autocratic leadershipb. shared leadershipc. good clinical leadership skillsd. effective interprofessional leadership
Answer:
a. autocratic leadership
Explanation:
Autocratic leadership is a style of leadership in which decision control is in the hands of only one individual, the leader, who rarely solicits or accepts the opinions and suggestions of his or her subordinates. Leaders who take this autocratic stance usually make their decisions with a focus on their individual beliefs and opinions. The main feature of this management system is absolute control and may at some point be viewed as authoritarian. An example of autocratic leadership can be seen in the question above, where the leader blamed the problems on his team and threatened to scold them instead of talking to the team and trying to understand and solve what is going on.
Charles has difficulty communicating with others. When he misinterprets a social situation, he may avoid eye contact and totally ignore others or begin yelling at people and throwing items. He may be exhibiting the characteristics of ______.
Answer:
The correct answer would be - autism spectrum disorder.
Explanation:
Autism spectrum disorder is a disorder of brain development which leads to a neurological condition that affects the behavior, socializing and communication ability of an individual.
This disorder has a range of different symptoms mainly difficulty in socializing, communication, avoid eye contact and repetitive behavior.
Thus, the correct answer is - autism spectrum disorder.
The post-exposure exam follow-up must include counseling about the possible implications of the exposure and your infection status, including the results and interpretation of all tests and how to protect personal contacts. The follow-up must also include evaluation of reported illnesses that may be related to the exposure. What else should you be provided with?
Answer:
the evaluating healthcare professional's written opinion within 15 days of completion of the evaluation.
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question you should also be provided with a copy of the evaluating healthcare professional's written opinion within 15 days of completion of the evaluation. This provides you with insight on what the healthcare professional saw during the evaluation and may contain next step procedures that you may want to follow.
I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.
You are working with Mr. T who has just been told his heart failure is getting worse. You go into his room to see how he is doing after the team has shared this information with him. He is staring out the window, looking sad. How do you start your conversation?
a) "Isn't it a beautiful day today Mr. T.?"
b) "I saw that the team was just here, can you tell me about their conversation with you?"
c) "Are you feeling ok?"
d) "I heard you just got bad news, but I know of someone just like you who lived for three more years."
Answer:
D or A because in my opinion they will feel better
Which is illegal in all states? 1 point a. Smoking more than one pack of cigarettes a day b. Loss of productive time due to tobacco-related illness c. Exclusion of tobacco users from social gatherings d. Selling tobacco products to persons under 18
Answer:
d. Selling tobacco products to persons under 18
Explanation:
Selling, supplying, administering or delivering cigarettes to a child or adolescent under the age of 18 is a criminal offense and is prohibited in all states of the country. The unanimous decision reinstated a sentence that sentenced an agent to 2 years in prison for selling cigarette wallets to under-18s. Selling cigarettes to these young people is seen as inducing children and adolescents to addiction to smoking.
Which is not a factor in determining the amount you should consume from each food group in the MyPlate plan?
activity level
age
nationality
sex
Final answer:
Nationality is not a factor in determining the amount you should consume from each food group in the MyPlate plan.
Explanation:
The factor that is not a factor in determining the amount you should consume from each food group in the MyPlate plan is nationality. The MyPlate plan focuses on factors such as activity level, age, and sex when determining the recommended amounts of each food group. These factors are important because they affect an individual's energy needs and nutrient requirements.
The MyPlate plan is a visual portrayal of the five nutrition types that make up a sound eating regimen: grains, dairy, grains, vegetables, and protein It gives direction on the amount of every nutritional category ought to be consumed in view of individual factors, for example, action level, age, and sex.
The correct answer is c. nationality, is not a factor in determining the amount you should consume from each food group in the MyPlate plan.
The amount you should consume from each food group in the MyPlate plan is determined by several factors, including activity level, age, and sex. These factors influence the number of calories a person needs, which in turn affects the recommended servings from each food group. For example, a more active person will require more calories and thus more servings from each food group compared to someone who is less active. Similarly, age and sex play a role in caloric needs, with men generally requiring more calories than women and caloric needs often decreasing with age.
However, nationality is not a factor used in determining the amount one should consume from each food group in the MyPlate plan. The MyPlate guidelines are designed to be applicable to all individuals within the United States, regardless of their nationality or ethnic background. The recommendations are based on nutritional needs and do not differentiate based on cultural or national origins. It is important for individuals to choose foods from within each food group that fit their cultural preferences and dietary restrictions while still meeting the overall nutritional goals set by the MyPlate plan.
The complete question is:
Which is not a factor in determining the amount you should consume from each food group in the MyPlate plan?
a. activity level
b. age
c. nationality
d. sex