Answer:
The correct answer would be - autism spectrum disorder.
Explanation:
Autism spectrum disorder is a disorder of brain development which leads to a neurological condition that affects the behavior, socializing and communication ability of an individual.
This disorder has a range of different symptoms mainly difficulty in socializing, communication, avoid eye contact and repetitive behavior.
Thus, the correct answer is - autism spectrum disorder.
Hemophilia is a disorder in which bleeding is severe and prolonged due to a lack of clotting factor VIII. The factor activation cascade is interrupted at the Factor IX activation step. Which pathway is inhibited by this interruption?
Answer:
The intrinsic pathway of blood coagulation is inhibited.
Explanation:
To answer the question, if the factor activation cascade is interrupted at the Factor IX activation step, then the intrinsic pathway of blood coagulation is inhibited, because Factor IX belongs to the intrinsic pathway of blood coagulation.
The blood clotting cascade is a sequential process involving two starts that eventually meet to result in the formation of a blood clot. Each stage of the cascade involves specific blood clotting factors that get activated along the way; their activation is needed to continue the process.
The two initiation pathways for the blood clotting cascade are:
Intrinsic pathway: involving factors XII, XI, IX and VIII (all found in the blood, hence the name "intrinsic").Extrinsic pathway: involving Tissue factor and factor VIII (Tissue factor is found in the blood vessels, hence the name "extrinsic")The final common stage is called the Common pathway which involves factors XIII, X, V, II and I.
Hemophilia is a condition where a clotting factor is missing, resulting in bleeding. There are two major types of hemophilia:
• Type A: factor VIII is missing
• Type B: factor IX is missing
When either of these factors is missing, the intrinsic pathway is interrupted.
Hemophilia B, characterized by the deficiency of clotting factor IX, leads to the inhibition of the intrinsic pathway in the blood coagulation process, resulting in severe, prolonged bleeding.
Explanation:Hemophilia is a genetic disorder characterized by the inability to produce sufficient quantities of certain clotting factors, which are proteins that work together to stop bleeding when vessels are injured. The most prevalent form, hemophilia A, involves a deficiency in clotting factor VIII, while hemophilia B is associated with a deficiency in clotting factor IX. Since factor IX activation is a crucial step in the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, a deficiency in factor IX, as seen in hemophilia B, inhibits this pathway. The intrinsic pathway is one of the two converging arms of the clotting cascade, the other being the extrinsic pathway, and leads to the common pathway where clot formation is completed. Therefore, the interruption caused by hemophilia B impedes the intrinsic pathway, preventing the proper formation of clots and resulting in severe and prolonged bleeding.
A hospital nurse is discussing with an older adult the possibility transfer to a nursing home for skilled care after pneumonia. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of this possible transfer?A) Old people who go to the nursing home don't get out.B) They will take my home if I go to the nursing home.C) I don't qualify for skilled care, I only had pneumonia.D) I have already used 45 Medicare days this year.
Answer: D) I have already used 45 Medicare days this year.
Explanation:
Medicare and other programs for the insurance of the health covers 100 days of care. This insurance cover can include the diagnosis and treatment associated with the skilled care, fractured hip, rehabilitation after acute illness, heart failure and others. This is associated with the provision of the nursing and day care facilities.
If the older adult has already used the 45 medicare days after the care of pneumonia the client may experience the fact that he should shift to other location for the same care.
Pedro is a 4-year-old who is having lunch with his mother and sister. When his mother pours the milk that is left in the carton into the children’s glasses, she finds that there is not enough to fill both glasses; so she carefully pours half of the milk in the shorter, fatter glass in front of Pedro and half into a thin, taller glass in front of Pedro's sister. Immediately, Pedro complains that his sister got more milk than he did, and even when his mother tries to explain that they both got the same amount, Pedro insists he is right. In this example, Pedro is demonstrating a lack of development in the area of
Answer:
conservation
Explanation:
Conservation is a factor in child development, where the child is aware of the differences in fluid quantities, objects, and other things. This factor is usually developed between the ages of 8 and 12, so it is normal for Peter, who is only 4 years old, to be deficient in the concept of "conservation" and unable to understand that the amounts of milk in his cup in your sister's cup are the same.
The preservation is inserted in the development phase called the concrete operative. This phase is marked by the beginning of concrete logical thinking, children going through this stage begin to mentally manipulate the representations of the things they internalized during the past stages. The problem is that this manipulation can only occur with concrete things arranged in the real world. Abstract concepts are not yet understandable. In this phase, the child understands that both glasses have the same amount of juice, that is, they have the notion of conservation.
What led to the swift population rise over the last two thousand years? Check all that apply.
a.increased food supply
b.improved communication
c.improved public health
d.increased birth rates
e.increased resistance to vaccines
D, C, and A are the correct answers.
Answer:
a. increased food supply
c. improved public health
d. increased birth rates
Explanation:
Throughout the history of mankind various changes have taken place in the number of inhabitants on earth. Thus, it is possible to perceive periods in which the number of inhabitants was modest and others, such as the present, with numbers considered quite high. Population growth means a change in the number of a population in a positive way.
On August 5, 2008, the United Nations (UN) released a report that estimates the number of inhabitants on a planetary scale for the year 2050, which could reach 9.2 billion people.
The report raised possible causes for this growth, increased life expectancy, increased access to disease treatment, and increased food supply; All of this would result in a greater birth rate.
According to the survey, population growth should occur significantly only in developing countries, in the case of developed countries the changes will be modest.
Which is a recommendation of the MyPlate plan?
eat fewer servings as your activity increases
consume more calories as your activity increases
eat more protein than vegetables
focus on one food group at each meal
Answer:
Consume more calories as your activity increases.
Explanation:
The fruit and vegetable portions make up half of the plate to emphasize the recommendation to include fruits and vegetables as half of every meal. Because of this answers c and d would be incorrect.
Answer a isn't logical. Answer B
The dimension that includes a person’s ability to respond appropriately to upsetting events and to express feelings in appropriate ways is the __________ dimension of psychological health.
Answer:
Assertiveness.
Explanation:
Assertiveness is a skill refer to bien able to respond appropriately in conflictive contexts.
At what point during infancy can babies tell the difference between their own mother's milk scent and another woman's milk scent?
a. at birth within
b. a few days after birth
c. within a few weeks after birth
d. within a few months after birth
e. within a year after birth
Answer:
The correct answer is b.a few days after birth
Explanation:
It was found in a research that only 1 day old infant is able to differentiate between her mother's milk odor and another women's milk odor to which he is unfamiliar.
It was also found that after 4 days an infant can differentiate between the milk of his own mother's breast from the milk of other woman's breast if the infant have skin to skin contact with his mother while breast feeding.
So infants can recognize the olfactory molecules which is unique in every mother and can tell the difference between their own mother's milk scent and another woman's milk scent.
Babies demonstrate the ability to distinguish their mother's milk scent from another's within just a few days of birth, as early as six days old.
Babies have a remarkable ability to recognize their mother's scent shortly after birth. According to studies, an infant as young as six days old is significantly more likely to turn toward its own mother's breast pad rather than to one belonging to another baby's mother, indicating a preference for the scent of their mother's milk (Porter et al., 1992). Therefore, the correct answer to the question about when babies can tell the difference between their own mother's milk scent and another woman's milk scent is b. a few days after birth.
Mr. Martin is a 72-year-old smoker who comes to the clinic for a follow-up visit for hypertension. With deep palpation a pulsatile mass about 4 cm in diameter is palpable. What should the examiner do next?a) Obtain abdominal ultrasound.b) Reassess by examination in 6 months.c) Refer to a vascular surgeon.d) Reassess by examination in 3 months.
Answer: a) Obtain abdominal ultrasound.
Explanation:
In this patient pulsatile mass is required to be followed up with the abdominal ultrasound immediately. The risk of rupture of the aorta is around 15 times greater if the diameter of the aorta measures to be 4 centimeters.
Abdominal ultrasound is a kind of imaging test. It is used to observe the organs of the abdomenal system, including the liver, spleen, pancreas, gallbladder and kidneys. The blood vessels that lead associated with these organs, such as the aorta and the vena cava, can also be observed through the ultrasound.
Thus the abdominal ultrasound can be an appropriate approach for this.
A(n) _____ is defined as an event or situation that an individual perceives as a threat and that precipitates either adaptation or the stress response.
Answer: Stressor
Explanation:
I'm not gonna lie, but I found a whole quizlet about this. If all of your questions fall in this category, then here's the link to the quizlet: https://quizlet.com/187146446/stress-management-unit-1-flash-cards/
A stressor triggers either adaptation or the stress response based on how an individual perceives and appraises the event. Judgment about the potential harm or challenge presented by the event and one's ability to cope with it are critical elements in this appraisal process, determining how one experiences stress.
A stressor is defined as an event or situation that an individual perceives as a threat and that precipitates either adaptation or the stress response. Stress is a pattern of physical and psychological responses in an organism after it perceives a threatening event that disturbs its homeostasis and taxes its abilities to cope with the event. This process can be understood as a way in which an individual perceives and responds to events that they appraise as overwhelming or threatening to their well-being.
The appraisal of stressors involves two key processes: primary appraisal and secondary appraisal. Primary appraisal is the judgment about the degree of potential harm or threat to well-being, whereas secondary appraisal is the assessment of one's ability to cope with the demands of the stressor. In cases where an event is appraised as overwhelming, exceeding one's resources to manage or adapt to it, the individual will likely experience a state of stress.
In one study cited in the textbook (Chen, et al., 2010), cortisol levels among low-income children increased when they experienced more daily hassles. Therefore, cortisol levels are _____ correlated with the number of daily hassles low-income children experience.
Answer:
positively
Explanation:
There is a positive correlation when two variables move in the same direction. When one increases, the other one does too.
In this case the two variables are: cortisol levels and the number of daily hassles.
In the study cortisol levels increased when children experienced more daily hassles. The more hassles, the higher the cortisol levels. Both variables move in the same direction and there is a positive correlation
Cody is a teenager with a history of leukemia and an enlarged spleen. Today he presents with fairly significant left upper quadrant pain. On examination of this area a rough grating noise is heard. What is this sound?a) It is a splenic rub.
b) It is a variant of bowel noise.
c) It represents borborymi.
d) It is a vascular noise.
Answer:
The correct answer is option a) splenic rub.
Explanation:
Chronic leukemia can lead to spleen enlargement which can lead to splenic rub. The splenic rub can be heard in conditions in which individuals experience acute pain in the left quadrant of the abdomen because of the infraction of the spleen.
The splenic rub is a loud grating noise that occurs due to several underlying diseases such as leukemia.
Thus, the correct answer is option a. Splenic rub.
The sound heard during the examination of Cody is called a splenic rub. This abnormal noise arises when the enlarged spleen rubs against the peritoneum or diaphragm, and it can cause upper quadrant pain.
Explanation:The sound heard during the examination of Cody, a teen with leukemia and an enlarged spleen who presents with significant left upper quadrant pain, is called a splenic rub. This is an abnormal sound that a health care provider can hear while listening to the abdomen or chest with a stethoscope during physical examination.
Splenic rub is a sound that arises when the spleen rubs against the peritoneum or diaphragm. It tends to be associated with splenomegaly and can cause upper quadrant pain in those situations.
In contrast, bowel noises are sounds made by the movement of the intestines, and a borborymi is a rumbling or gurgling noise made by the movement of fluid and gas in the intestines. Vascular noises, meanwhile, could be sounds heard over the major blood vessels of the body and could indicate some circulatory concerns.
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Which DRI would inform Marni about the maximum amount of vitamin A she could consume without risk of side effects?
Adequate Intake (AI)
Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)
Upper Limit (UL)
Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)
Answer:
Upper Limit (UL)
Explanation:
Dietary Reference Intake (DRI) is a group of four nutrient based values i.e. Adequate Intake (AI), Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA), Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) and Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL). RDA is the average daily dietary intake sufficient to meet level of nutrients required by an individual. RDA depends on EAR. If EAR cant be estimated for some reasons, RDA cant be calculated and instead AI is used to estimate sufficient dietary intake. AI is derived on experimental basis by observing average nutrient intake by group of healthy individuals.
UL is the highest level of nutrient intake possible on a daily basis without causing harm to the individual. Intake above UL increases the risk of adverse effects. UL is higher than RDA or AI. Hence, Marni could be informed by UL the maximum amount of vitamin A she could consume without risk of side effects.
Which is not a factor in determining the amount you should consume from each food group in the MyPlate plan?
activity level
age
nationality
sex
Final answer:
Nationality is not a factor in determining the amount you should consume from each food group in the MyPlate plan.
Explanation:
The factor that is not a factor in determining the amount you should consume from each food group in the MyPlate plan is nationality. The MyPlate plan focuses on factors such as activity level, age, and sex when determining the recommended amounts of each food group. These factors are important because they affect an individual's energy needs and nutrient requirements.
The MyPlate plan is a visual portrayal of the five nutrition types that make up a sound eating regimen: grains, dairy, grains, vegetables, and protein It gives direction on the amount of every nutritional category ought to be consumed in view of individual factors, for example, action level, age, and sex.
The correct answer is c. nationality, is not a factor in determining the amount you should consume from each food group in the MyPlate plan.
The amount you should consume from each food group in the MyPlate plan is determined by several factors, including activity level, age, and sex. These factors influence the number of calories a person needs, which in turn affects the recommended servings from each food group. For example, a more active person will require more calories and thus more servings from each food group compared to someone who is less active. Similarly, age and sex play a role in caloric needs, with men generally requiring more calories than women and caloric needs often decreasing with age.
However, nationality is not a factor used in determining the amount one should consume from each food group in the MyPlate plan. The MyPlate guidelines are designed to be applicable to all individuals within the United States, regardless of their nationality or ethnic background. The recommendations are based on nutritional needs and do not differentiate based on cultural or national origins. It is important for individuals to choose foods from within each food group that fit their cultural preferences and dietary restrictions while still meeting the overall nutritional goals set by the MyPlate plan.
The complete question is:
Which is not a factor in determining the amount you should consume from each food group in the MyPlate plan?
a. activity level
b. age
c. nationality
d. sex
Frank Moro has been diagnosed as having severe atherosclerosis and high blood cholesterol levels. He is told that he is at risk for a stroke or a heart attack. First, what foods would you suggest that he avoid like the plague? What foods would you suggest he add or substitute? What activities would you recommend?
Answer:
The full answer to these multiple questions, regarding the case of Frank Moro, are diverse, but they all point to one particular goal: reducing the lipid and cholesterol consumption, elimination of fats and LDL cholesterol to a normal level, from his system, and increasing his exercise activities so the body can better metabolize carbs and fats, two precursors to cardiovascular disease.
As such, these would be the recommendations for Mr. Moro:
1. He needs to avoid, at all costs, cholesterol-rich foods, such as shrimp, meats of all types, be it cow or pork, with high contents of fat, reduce the consumption of red meat overall, as much as possible, and also complex carbs.
2. He also needs to increase his consumption of vegetables, fiber-rich foods, omega-3 rich foods, such as salmon, tuna, cod, etc., eat more whole grains, nuts, whose fatty content are good for controlling cholesterol and heavy fats, and finally, consume oatmeal, which has been proven to lower cholesterol levels overall and improve HDL. He also needs to increase his water intake over carbonated waters and sodas.
3. He also needs to start an activity like moderate exercise, at least 3 times a week, for 30 minutes, going from moderate to more vigorous, such as intense walking, or power walking, jogging, or cycling. Swimming is also a great idea, as it is an exercise that helps reduce overall weight, increases the overall feel of wellness and protects the musculo-skeletal system by reducing impact of exercise.
These are only a few of the ideas that could be applied to improve Mr. Moro´s lifestyle and prevent him from having a cardiovascular problem.
To manage atherosclerosis and high cholesterol levels, Frank should avoid foods high in saturated fat and cholesterol, and instead consume a diet rich in fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and lean proteins. Regular exercise is also beneficial for his heart health.
Explanation:To manage severe atherosclerosis and high blood cholesterol levels, Frank Moro should avoid foods high in saturated fat, trans fat, and cholesterol. These include fatty meats, full-fat dairy products, fried foods, and processed snacks. Instead, he should add or substitute with foods rich in fiber, omega-3 fatty acids, and unsaturated fats, such as fruits, vegetables, whole grains, fish, nuts, and seeds. In terms of activities, regular exercise like walking, cycling, swimming, or jogging can help improve heart health and reduce the risk of stroke or heart attack.
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Mary is in the delivery room giving birth to her first child. Her cervix is sufficiently dilated and the baby's head has started to move through the cervix into the vaginal canal. Which of the following stages of childbirth is Mary in?
Answer:
In the second stage
Explanation:
The stages of birth are three. The first one involves the first contractions, that is, the true labor, and it finishes when the cervix is open, dilated, at 10 cm. This can be the longest stage in birth, can be from 2 until 48 hours.
The second stage starts when the baby starts to get out from the mother, begging with the head, the body, until the legs and the umbilical cord. This is very quickly stage, it will take just 10 - 20 minutes.
The third stage is when the mom ejects the placenta, after the baby birth, the placenta and the umbilical cord are not necessary to the mother, actually is dangerous that some part of the placenta remains inside the mother. This stage is also very quickly, like 10 minutes.
Final answer:
Mary is in the second stage of childbirth, which sees the fully dilated cervix allowing the baby to be pushed down and out, concluding with the baby's delivery.
Explanation:
Mary is currently in the second stage of childbirth, which involves full dilation of the cervix and the expulsion of the newborn. The first stage is characterized by the cervix dilating and effacing, and contractions become more frequent and intense, dilating the cervical canal to about 10 cm. At the start of the second stage, the baby's head moves through the fully dilated cervical canal into the vaginal canal, and the mother actively pushes to help the baby descend. This step is vital for the baby's face to face the mother’s posterior as it exits the vagina and for delivering the shoulders, which help in the final birth of the baby. The second stage ends with the complete delivery of the newborn followed by the third stage, which is the delivery of the placenta and associated fetal membranes.
Rubella has a disastrous impact if it is contracted during the first trimester of a pregnancy, yet has hardly any impact if contracted at the end of a pregnancy. This is an example of
Answer:
This is an example of the critical period
Explanation:
Rubella or the German measles, is a highly contagious air-borne viral disease which is caused by the rubella virus, characterized by rash.
Rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy, can lead to miscarriage or a child born with the congenital rubella syndrome.
This is an example of the critical period. Critical period refers to the maturational stage of an organism during which the central nervous system is very sensitive to certain environmental stimuli.
Physicians sometimes overuse diagnostic tests to protect themselves against lawsuits based on missed diagnoses.
TRUE OR FALSE
Brad has recently increased his weekly intake of omega-3 fatty acids. Over time, which of the following effects would he likely NOT
experience?
a) reduction in inflammation
b) increase in HDLS
c) increase in risk for cardiovascular disease
d) reduction in blood triglycerides
Answer: The effects that he would NOT likely experience is an increased risk in cardiovascular disease. The correct answer is C. By increasing his weekly intake of the omega-3 fatty acids, he is lowering the risks for cardiovascular disease. These fatty acids help reduce the risk of heart failure in men and women. Some foods that contain omega-3 fatty acids are; grass fed beef, flaxseed oil, salmon, and cod.
Answer: its A
Brad has recently increased his weekly intake of omega-3 fatty acids. Over time, which of the following effects would he likely NOT
experience?
a) reduction in inflammation
b) increase in HDLS
c) increase in risk for cardiovascular disease
d) reduction in blood triglycerides
Explanation:
The nurse is planning health promotion teaching for a group of healthy older adults in a residential community. Which statement accurately describes expected hematologic effects of aging?A.) "Platelet production increases with age and leads to easy bruising."B.) "Anemia is common with aging because iron absorption is impaired."C.) "Older adults with infections may have only a mild white blood cell count elevation."D.) "Older adults often have poor immune function with a decreased number of lymphocytes"
Answer: C.) "Older adults with infections may have only a mild white blood cell count elevation.
Explanation:
Platelet count remains unaffected by the aging process. But, easy bruising can occur due to vascular integrity.
Iron absorption remains unaffected in the old patient, but appropriate nutritional intake of iron may be decreased as the diet get compromised and becomes low with old age due to ineffective digestive machinery.
The total white blood cell count is generally not affected by aging. But, a decrease in humoral antibody response and decrease in T-cell function may occur. Thus the adults may show a slight elevation in the white blood cell count.
The nurse has delegated to nursing assistive personnel (NAP) the skill of assisting with a bedpan for a patient who has had discomfort when walking to the bathroom. Which statement made by the NAP requires the nurse's follow-up?- "Do you still need a stool sample for the lab?"- "If I can get someone to help, I'll walk her to the bathroom."- "The patient reports that moving is uncomfortable for her. Has she had pain medication recently?"- "The patient told me that she's had problems with hemorrhoids in the past."
Answer:
"If I can get someone to help, I'll walk her to the bathroom."
Explanation:
Some patients are in very delicate states, or are feeling too weak and weak to do certain simple activities. For some patients, the simple activity of eating or using the bathroom seems like a huge effort and makes them very uncomfortable. It is the duty of nurses to find ways to help the patient to do these activities and this is what the nurse described in the question is doing when delegating to nursing care staff (NAP) the ability to help with a bedpan for a patient who has experienced discomfort. walk to the bathroom. In this case, the statement made by the NAP that requires nurse follow-up is "If I can get someone to help, I'll walk her to the bathroom."
Moving cookies from the cookie jar on the kitchen counter to the back of the pantry to reduce the likelihood of eating them is an example of _____________.
Answer:
It is an example of stimulus control.
Explanation:
It is a process which occurs when organism behaves in a one way in the presence of the stimulus which is given and in another way when it is not present.A stimulus which further helps in the modification of behaviour in this manner is known as discriminative stimulus.Stimuli are very significant I.e.dog training because these are the reasons dog behaves in a certain ways.Stimuli like red lights & stop signs acts as symbols which indicates some sort of punishment or reinforcement is available. This is known as control piece.The generalized conditioned reinforcers are less susceptible to satiation because they can be exchanged for a wide variety of other reinforcers.Examples of conditioned reinforcers are: money & tokens.Examples of unconditioned reinforcers are:food & water are used inherently for reinforcement of individual.A client with proctitis needs a rectal suppository. A senior nursing student assigned to care for this client tells you that she is afraid to insert a suppository because she has never done it before. What is the most appropriate action in supervising this student?
a) You give the medication and report the student to the instructor.
b) Ask the student to leave the clinical area for being unprepared.
c) Reassign the client to an LPN/LVN.
d) Show the student how to insert the suppository and talk to the instructor.
Answer: Show the student had insert the suppository and talk to the instructor
Explanation: The best thing to do would be to show or teach the student how the supositroy should be applied. This learning process will help her in the future when she has to do it again and it will take away her fears. The instructor should also be informed so that they can go over the correct process of the application.
An elderly client with Parkinson's disease and his wife, who appears to be much younger than he, are being interviewed by the nurse to update the client's health history. The nurse also has the client's electronic health record on her tablet computer. Earlier in the day, the nurse had spoken with the client's primary care physician, who had relayed some concerns to the nurse regarding the progression of the client's disease. Which source of biographic information should the nurse view as primary
Answer:
The client
Explanation:
The client is the primary primary source in any situation involving the use of biographical data in a medical setting. Biographical data is basic information about the patient such as name, address, marital status, gender and age, for example. All this data is taken from the client himself and for this reason, the client is a source of biographical information that the nurse should consider as the main one. Biographical data are important because they serve as a basis for defining treatment and hospitalization patterns if necessary.
Protein is essential to the overall health of the body because it A. gives the body collagen, which protects the organs. B. keeps hair and nails healthy. C. sustains life and keeps body systems in good repair. D. helps "bulk up" muscles.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
A 6 year old female is takn to her pediatrician for a checkup. As the doctor takes the childs history, her mother reports that the child had a severe sore throat weeks earlier that regressed without treatment. upon examination the pediatrician notes that the child has a systolic heart murmur consistent with mitral insufficiency and suspects she has rheumatic fever.
a. how was the earlier pharyngitis r/t the subsequent development of rheumatic fever?
b. rheumatic fever is diagnosed on clinical and serological findings. what test should be done to diagnose rheumatic fever?
c. how are rheumatic fever pts treated?
Answer:
A. because she probably got infected with Streptococcus Pyogenes, a bacteria that affects the heart valves and joints
B.
Complete Blood Test
PCR
VSG
Streptococcus antibodies
C. Antibiotics.
Explanation:
Streptococcus Pyogenes is a bacteria that is spread by direct contact with an infected person and targets the throat, thus activating T cells and B cells to produce antibodies against the bacteria, nonetheless these antibodies also attack body tissues as the heart, specifically the mitral valve and peripheral joints.
the clinic is characterized by sore throat, fever with remission and two weeks later, joint pain, swelling and/or heart murmurs on examination.
The blood test will indicate if there is a bacterial infection, and the other tests will tell if there is inflammation, the antibodies will confirm the presence of the bacteria in blood.
The best antibiotic to treat this infection is penicillin, there are different types of penicillin, the best option for this specific infection is benzathine G penicillin, nonetheless other types can be use, such as macrolides ( azithromycin) and also combination of antibiotics such as a penicillin plus clavulanic acid.
During the last stage of AIDS, many opportunistic infections proliferate in persons with weakened immune systems. HIV-infected individuals who live near one another in long-term care facilities, drug treatment facilities, and prisons should be carefully screened before admission. Why?
Answer:
Because they are at high risk of getting pulmonary tuberculosis.
Explanation:
An opportunistic infection is an infection caused by microorganisms that take advantage of the weakness of the body's defenses caused by HIV infection to cause damage. Opportunistic infections occur in people with compromised immune systems, allowing such organisms to cause widespread infection. In healthy individuals, microorganisms would not be allowed to proliferate to the point of causing infection because the immune system would keep them at bay.
People living with HIV are 28 times more likely to get pulmonary tuberculosis as an opportunistic disease. For this reason, HIV-infected individuals living close to each other in long-term treatment facilities, drug treatment facilities and prisons should be carefully examined prior to admission.
Changes in population demographics over the next 40 years will significantly affect the delivery of health care services. __________ is the one change that will have the most impact on the practice of nursing.
Answer:
The answer to the question: ____ is the one change that will have the most impact on the practice of nursing, would be: the doubling in size, the increase, of the old-adult population, those 65 and older.
Explanation:
The reason for this being the answer, and why it will have such a huge impact, not just on the healthcare system, but also on the correct application of nursing care, is that as our population gets older, the more healthcare will be needed, and the more senior nursing care assistance will be required. This means that the demand for nurses specialized in senior care will double. Also, there will be an increased prevalence of chronic illnesses, and the need for long-term care. All of these will impact the healthcare system and the quality of nursing practice, overall.
A 2-year-old Bobby presents with left ear pain. He has been running a 102 fever on and off and rates the pain a 6 on a scale 0–10, 10 being the worse. Dad states that he just finished a round of amoxicillin two days ago. After examination you determine that Bobby has: __________________.
Answer:
an ear infection, consequence of other previous infection
Explanation:
In some cases, when the babies start with respiratory infections, the antibiotic can act in the respiratory system, but if there is some bacteria that can travel to the ears and grow over there, it can reproduce and cause an ear infection, as a consequence of a bad treatment of a bad care of the first infection.
Five-year-old Jonah likes to play a scrabble-like game on the family computer. He plays against other family members, and usually does pretty well. When he gets a list of letter tiles that are too difficult for him to use, he asks his mother and father for help. The difference between letter tiles that Jonah can use and letter tiles with which he needs help typifies what Vygotsky called the zone of ____ development.
Answer:
The correct answer is: Zone of proximal development
Explanation:
Zone of proximal development is the concept developed by the Soviet psychologist, Lev Vygotsky.
It is described as the cognitive, emotional, and volitional psychological development of children. Therefore, this zone is defined as the distance between the ability of the children to perform certain activities without help and perform other tasks with the help and support of a knowledgeable adult.
Therefore, according to Vygotsky, it is the zone of proximal development.
As Malik watches television, he sees something that serves as a retrieval cue for him to move some laundry from the washer to the dryer. Which example would be MOST likely to serve as an effective retrieval cue for Malik?
Answer:
retrieval cue
Explanation:
Retrieval cue are words, objects, people or anything that has the ability to remind us, suddenly something, in other words, are situations or objects that serve as an impulse to unlock information stored in our head. The retrieval clue is the sudden recollection of something or a certain situation that serves as a stimulus for our brain to associate it with something we had forgotten.
An effective retrieval cue for Malik as he watches television would potentially be a laundry-related scene or advertisement due to their relevance and specificity to the task of moving laundry, fostering better memory recall.
Explanation:As Malik watches television, something that would effectively serve as a retrieval cue for him to remember to move laundry from the washer to the dryer would likely be a scene or an advertisement related to laundry, clothes, or household chores. An effective retrieval cue would be highly specific and related to the task Malik needs to recall, avoiding any cue overload. The image of laundry or a similar distinctive cue would help trigger Malik's memory for the tasks he needs to complete, similar to how unique or related items can trigger memory recall more successfully than non-distinctive or unrelated cues.