Answer:
Option B, Malpighian Tubes
Explanation:
In excretory system of Arthropods, the malphigian tubules constitute to be the main excretory organs in which bicarbonates of sodium and potassium, uric acid and water are formed. These maplhigian tubules are able to reabsorb the bicarbonates of potassium and sodium and transfers them into the blood known as haemolymph. The potassium ions are pumped out from the tubule into blood by potassium ion pump
Hence, option B is correct.
Which of the following is a function of a signal peptide?
A) To bind RNA polymerase to DNA and initiate transcription
B) To direct mRNA molecules into the cisternal space of the ER
C) To terminate translation of the messenger RNA
D) To translocate polypeptides across the ER membrane
Answer:
D) To translocate polypeptides across the ER membrane is a correct answer.
Explanation:
The signal peptide is a short stretch of amino acids, present at N terminus of nascent protein.
Function of a signal peptide is to guide the protein where to go and is to transport the protein to the ER membrane.
When the protein is reserved for the secretion, then signal peptide guide the protein to translocate polypeptides across the Endoplasmic membrane, where it get mature and prepare for the secretion.
Thus option(D)To translocate polypeptides across the ER membrane is correct answer.
A signal peptide's function is to direct the translocation of polypeptides across the ER membrane by interacting with the SRP and the ER docking complex.
The correct function of a signal peptide is to direct the translocation of polypeptides across the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) membrane. As a nascent polypeptide is being synthesized by a ribosome, the signal sequence at the N-terminus of the polypeptide emerges first and is recognized by a signal recognition particle (SRP). This interaction leads to a pause in translation and facilitates the docking of the ribosome to the ER membrane. Once docked, translation resumes, and the polypeptide is translocated into the ER lumen through a protein pore.
A three-year-old-has stuck a crayon in his nose. Assessment reveals the crayon to be deeply embedded in the right nostril with some irritation and swelling noted. His vital signs are: pulse 124, respiration 20, and SpO 2 100 percent. Which of the following would be MOST appropriate when caring for this child?
Answer: the correct answer is non-emergent transport to the hospital.
Explanation: It is an injure but it is not an emergency. However, parents might thing that whatever thing that affects their children is an emergency.
What percentage of people have green eyes?
Answer: 2% of people have green eyes
Explanation:
Which of the following is a characteristic of the lens?
a. The lens focuses light on the retina.
b.The lens of the human eye has a concave shape.
c. The lens is vascularized.
d. In a healthy eye, the lens will be opaque.
Answer: A. the lens focuses light on the retina
The lens is composed of transparent, flexible tissue and is located directly behind the iris and the pupil. it is the secondary part of the eye after the cornea. by changing it's shape the lens changes the focal distance of the eye and focuses the light that passes through it and into the retina in order to create clear images of objects. it also works together with the cornea to refract, or bend light.
good luck and a great day to you.
The main characteristic of the lens is to focus light onto the retina. The lens is not concave nor vascularized, and a healthy lens is clear and transparent, not opaque.
Explanation:The correct answer is 'a. The lens focuses light on the retina'. This is a main characteristic of the lens in both human and mammalian eyes. Its function is to focus light onto the retina, which essentially helps create a clear image. In option b, it's stated that the lens of the human eye has a concave shape. However, the lens is not concave, it's actually more convex in its shape. Option c suggests that the lens is vascularized, meaning it has blood vessels. This is incorrect as the lens is avascular, meaning it doesn't contain any blood vessels. Lastly, option d suggests that in a healthy eye, the lens is opaque. This is also incorrect because a healthy lens is typically clear and transparent, allowing light to pass through.
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Keratin is an intracellular protein. How is it made?
Answer: Formed by intermediate filaments
Explanation:
Keratin belongs to the family of fibrous structural proteins. It is found in abundant amount inside the human body.
Hair constitutes of about 90% of keratin protein. The epidermis is the outer layer of skin which is formed by scale like cells known as epithelial cells and specialized cells known as keratinocytes.
These cells protect the body from the outer damage and is formed by long strands of proteins(intermediate filament) inside the cell, hence called keratin.
This is how keratin is made inside the body.
Which of the following describes a phenomenon that occurs when we observe plants that wilt?
A. The xylem releases all its water.
B. The stomata close, cutting off transpiration and gas exchange.
C. The roots begin to rot, causing them to no longer uptake water.
D. The plant begins absorbing oxygen and releasing carbon dioxide into the atmosphere
Answer:
B. Stomata closes, cutting off transpiration.
Explanation:
On a hot, dry day (or after several days with no rain or watering), transpiration causes more water to be lost than is coming in, and the water balance within the plant can get thrown off. The dehydrated collapsing cells in the leaves and stems can no longer remain erect, and the plant begins to wilt.
Answer:
Option- C
The roots begin to rot, causing them to no longer uptake water. As, there is specific amount of molecules and nutrients requirement for any plant to develop and survive through time. While, the oxygen is always been necessary for the survival of all plant and animal life. While, due to some reasons if the roots of the plant are not able to absorb enough of the oxygen and other molecules then they will face the process of wilting or shortage of nutrients in there body causing the damage to there over all structure.
What is the period during the cardiac cycle when the valves leading to and from the ventricles are completely closed and blood volume in the ventricles remains constant as the walls contract?
Answer: Isovolumetric contraction period.
The isovolumetric contraction phase in the cardiac cycle is the time when both the ventricles' inlet and outlet valves are closed, creating a constant blood volume in the ventricles.
Explanation:The period during the cardiac cycle when the valves leading to and from the ventricles are completely closed and blood volume in the ventricles remains constant as the walls contract is called the isovolumetric contraction phase. During this phase, both the mitral and aortic valves are closed, leaving the ventricles sealed compartments. This phase follows the end of ventricular filling, and precedes the ejection of blood when the aortic valve opens.
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The development of the brain continues past childhood. For example, if a monkey pushes a lever with its finger several thousand times a day, the _____ that controls the finger changes as a result of the experience.
Answer:
The development of the brain continues past childhood. For example, if a monkey pushes a lever with its finger several thousand times a day, the Brain tissue that controls the finger changes as a result of the experience.
Protein synthesis in bacterial cells usually starts with a: a. cysteine residue. b. phenylalanine residue. c. formylmethionine residue. d. valine residue. e. methionine residue.
Answer:
c. formylmethionine residue
Explanation:
The initiation codon (5' AUG 3') is present in the P site of the bacterial ribosomes and bind to the tRNA carrying formyl methionine amino acid. The formyl methionine amino acid serves to initiate the process of protein synthesis in bacteria. The initiator amino acid formyl methionine is encoded by genetic code "AUG".
The direct answer is: c. formylmethionine residue.
In bacterial cells, protein synthesis typically begins with a formylmethionine residue.
Formyl methionine, also known as fMet or fMet-tRNA, serves as the initiator amino acid during translation in bacteria. This modified form of methionine contains a formyl group attached to the amino group, making it distinct from regular methionine. The presence of formyl methionine at the beginning of a protein chain allows the ribosome to recognize the start codon and initiate translation. Once the protein synthesis process begins, subsequent amino acids are added to the growing polypeptide chain. However, it's important to note that in some bacteria, particularly mitochondria, the initiation amino acid can be methionine instead of formyl methionine.
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A horizontal line on the velocity vs. time graph indicates a constant, positive acceleration.
True or False
50 pts for it :D
The following statement is false, and it's 5 points not 50 :-)
Answer:
False.
Explanation:
Acceleration may be defined as the velocity of an object per unit time. The S.I. unit of acceleration is m/s^2. The acceleration can be positive, negative and zero.
The horizontal line on the velocity time graph represents that the object is moving with the constant velocity. This graph does not represent the acceleration. The straight line on graph represent represents the uniform acceleration.
Thus, the answer is false.
Who experimented with rats to demonstrate that organisms can learn even if they do not receive immediate reinforcement?
Answer:
Edward Tolman
Explanation:
Tolman's experiment on rats showed that reinforcement is not a necessary tool for learning. In his experiment, he set up a maze for 3 groups of rats where the rats had to figure its way out of it. One group was given a reward immediately, the other was not given one, the last group was given an award after a few trials.
The experiment showed that although the rats who were not given food immediately took a longer time to finish the maze initially, they were able to get out of the maze. When they were finally given food at the end, they were able to get out of the maze even faster than the rats that were given food immediately.
This shows that information processing is an active process triggered by more than reinforcement. It depends on attitude, the conditions they are given, and beliefs.
Which part of the brain that is associated with the following function:
a. Stimulus interpretation
b. Movement of tongue
c. Walking
d. Muscular movement
e. Respiratory activities
f. Hunger
Answer:
Brain is composed of three main parts: cerebrum, cerebellum and brain-stem.
Stimulus interpretation and speech are controlled by cerebrum. It is the biggest part of brain and performs important functions.
While movement of muscles, walking and movement of tongue is controlled by cerebellum. It is present under cerebrum and performs functions associated with coordination.
Respiratory activities, hunger and other automatic functions of body are controlled by Brain-stem. It connects cerebrum and cerebellum to the spinal cord.
The article “Autoimmune Diseases Stopped in Mice” refers to medication that suppresses the immune system. Why does this medication increase the risk of certain cancers?
Answer:Part of the immune system’s job is to control abnormal cells that the body develops. If the immune system is suppressed, abnormal cells can grow and multiply, causing cancerous growths.
Explanation:
Answer:
The correct answer is - it makes the immune system week to detect cancerous cells.
Explanation:
The autoimmune disease is taking place when the immune system works against cells of the body itself. To stooping such diseases immunosuppressive medications are provided to the patient.
These treatments suppress the immune system which stops its function. The immune system becomes less able to detect and destroy the cancerous cells.
Thus, the correct answer is - it makes the immune system week to detect cancerous cells.
PLEASE HELP!!!
Why do prokaryotic cells usually reproduce more quickly than eukaryotic cells?
1. Eukaryotic cells are smaller than prokaryotic cells.
2. Eukaryotic cells are more structurally complex than prokaryotic cells.
3. Eukaryotic cells have more cell walls than prokaryotic cells.
4. Eukaryotic cells have less DNA than prokaryotic cells.
Correct answer will get a reward!
Answer:
3.
Explanation:
Eukaryotic cells are more structurally complex than prokaryotic cells.
Prokaryotic cells reproduce more quickly than eukaryotic cells due to their structural simplicity and smaller size. They lack complex organelles which makes their reproduction process, binary fission, faster and more straightforward than eukaryotic cell division.
Explanation:Prokaryotic cells usually reproduce more quickly than eukaryotic cells primarily due to their structural simplicity. This is best reflected in option 2: Eukaryotic cells are more structurally complex than prokaryotic cells. Because prokaryotic cells lack complex organelles such as a nucleus or mitochondria, their cellular processes, including reproduction, can take place more rapidly. Their reproduction method, known as binary fission, is faster and more straightforward than the cell division (mitosis) used by eukaryotic cells. The small size and simplicity of the prokaryotic cells means they require less time and energy to reproduce. So your answer to 'Why do prokaryotic cells usually reproduce more quickly than eukaryotic cells?' would be the structural simplicity and smaller size of prokaryotic cells.
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The health care provider prescribes daily fasting blood glucose levels for a client with diabetes mellitus. The goal of treatment is that the client will have glucose levels within which range?
Answer: 70 to 105 mg/dL of blood glucose
Explanation:
The healthcare provider is asking the patient of diabetes to check the glucose level daily when the patient has not eaten anything.
The patients is suffering from diabetes mellitus and the normal blood glucose level should be in between 70 to 105 mg/dL under fasting conditions.
Below and above this level the blood glucose level will be abnormal and leads to diabetes.
Which of the following are basic components of the Hardy-Weinberg model?
a.) Allele frequencies, number of individuals in the population
b.) Frequencies of two alleles in a gene pool before and after many random matings
c.) Allele frequencies, phenotype frequencies
d.) Allele frequencies in a subset of the population
Answer:
b.) Frequencies of two alleles in a gene pool before and after many random matings
Explanation:
b.) Frequencies of two alleles in a gene pool before and after many random matings
The Hardy-Weinberg model includes two basic components: the allele frequencies and the frequencies of two alleles in a gene pool before and after many random matings.
Explanation:The Hardy-Weinberg model is a principle in population genetics that describes the genetic variation in a population that is not evolving. The basic components of the Hardy-Weinberg model are allele frequencies and the frequencies of two alleles in a gene pool before and after many random matings. Therefore, the correct answer to your question is option b.) Frequencies of two alleles in a gene pool before and after many random matings.
This principle makes two fundamental assumptions - that the population is very large to minimize genetic drift, and there is random mating in the population. It essentially states that the frequency of alleles in a population will remain constant over generations unless acted upon by evolutionary influences such as genetic drift, mutation, migration or selection.
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Which statement about anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa is true?
a. Approximately half of those with anorexia nervosa go on to develop bulimia nervosa, indicating that the two disorders may not be distinct but may represent phases of the same eating disorder.
b. The binge eating/purging type of bulimia nervosa is different from anorexia nervosa in that it involves both low weight and amenorrhea.
Answer:
a. Approximately half of those with anorexia nervosa go on to develop bulimia nervosa, indicating that the two disorders may not be distinct but may represent phases of the same eating disorder.
The correct statement is option (a), signifying that anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa might represent phases of the same eating disorder, as about half of those with anorexia nervosa develop bulimia nervosa.
Explanation:The statement about anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa that is true is option (a). Approximately half of those with anorexia nervosa go on to develop bulimia nervosa, indicating that the two disorders may not be distinct but may represent phases of the same eating disorder. This reflects a continuum in eating disorders where a person's condition can evolve from one disorder to another. Unlike bulimia nervosa, anorexia nervosa typically involves maintaining a body weight that's well below average through starvation and/or excessive exercise, often accompanied by a distorted body image. Meanwhile, bulimia nervosa involves repeated episodes of binge eating followed by purging, which can result in serious health complications like electrolyte imbalances, although individuals with bulimia may maintain a normal weight.
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The process of protein denaturation Multiple Choice: a) is only possible in proteins with quaternary structure. b) is permanent and irreversible. c) changes the form of a protein, but not its function. d) is temporary and reversible.
Answer:
The correct option is D.
Explanation:
Protein generally are very sensitive macro molecules; they have specific temperatures and pH that are ideal for their operations, this is especially true for proteins that act as enzymes in biochemical reactions.
There are four different types of structures that a protein can assume, these are primary, secondary, tertiary and Quaternary structure. The structure of a protein determines the kind of function it can perform.
There are some factors that can destroy the structure and functions of proteins, these include excessive heat and pH. A protein is said to be denatured when its secondary and tertiary structure have been disrupted or destroyed. Denaturation does not affect the primary structure of the protein, thus, the peptide bond remains intact.
Denaturation is usually temporary and can be reversed if the factors that cause denaturation is removed, this process is called RENATURATION. Renaturation process allow the protein to refold and resume its functions. But sometimes, denaturation can be permanent and irreversible leading to permanent loss of protein functions.
Protein denaturation involves changes in the protein structure leading to loss of its function, which could involve changes in its secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure. This process, often triggered by changes in temperature or pH, or exposure to chemicals, may be reversible or irreversible depending on the circumstances.
Explanation:The process of protein denaturation involves changes in the protein structure which can result in the loss of its shape, and in turn, its function. This process can be triggered by changes in temperature, pH, or exposure to certain chemicals, with some instances resulting in the loss of the protein's secondary, tertiary, and even quaternary structure. One everyday example of this is when an egg is fried: the albumin protein in the egg white is denatured, changing from a clear substance to an opaque white one.
Interestingly, not all proteins denature under high temperatures. For instance, certain bacteria that survive in hot springs possess proteins that are adapted to function at those temperatures. Similarly, the stomach, which is very acidic, denatures proteins as part of its digestion process, but the enzymes involved in the process retain their functions despite operating under such conditions.
Protein denaturation is often reversible, as the primary structure of the polypeptide is preserved, meaning if the denaturing agent is removed, the protein can sometimes regain its shape and resume its function. However, there are instances when denaturation is irreversible, resulting in the permanent loss of function.
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An in vitro experiment involves making observations of events in a
A. test tube
B. growth chamber
c. living organism
D. total vacuum
Answer:
A; test tube
Explanation:
In-vitro is defined as a technique of performing a given procedure in a controlled environment outside of a living organism. It does not correspond to the circumstances you would usually see in a living organism (since it is most likely in a test tube). This means that an in-vitro experiment could not be applied in a growth chamber in which outside/environmental factors affect the whole organism. You can also eliminate C since in vitro is exclusively taken place outside of a living organism. For D, you most likely wouldn't be able to observe much in a total vacuum as organisms work under regular Earth atmospheric conditions and a total vacuum would not accommodate that as it has a lower pressure.
The chemical factors that determine traits are called
Answer:
The chemical factors that determine traits are called genes.
Answer:
Genes
Explanation:
The chemical factors that determine traits are called genes.
Genes is something that you inherit from your family.
These might include, traits, looks, blood type, and much more.
What is the relevance of osmosis to cellular homeostasis?
Answer:
Osmosis maintains the cellular homeostasis as this allows the exchange of water and other molecules into and out of the cell.
Explanation:
Osmosis may be defined as the solute particles movement from the higher concentration region towards the region of lower concentration through the semi-permeable membrane.
Osmosis is helpful in maintaining the cellular homeostasis. Osmosis balance the ions and water molecules into and out of the cell. Only some selected particles can enter in the cell by the process of osmosis. Electrolytes balance in organisms can be performed by the process of osmosis as it allows the exchange of ions.
Which of the following might be an investigation of microclimate?A) the effect of ambient temperature on the onset of caribou migrationB) the seasonal population fluctuation of nurse sharks in coral reef communitiesC) competitive interactions among various species of songbirds during spring migrationD) how sunlight intensity affects plant community composition in the zone where a forest transitions into a meadow
Answer:
D) how sunlight intensity affects plant community composition in the zone where a forest transitions into a meadow
Explanation:
Microclimate is the climate only in a small area within a bigger area. Or the climate of a specific section that is different from its surrounding areas.
The example above, is considered a study on microcliimate because the study is limited to only the "zone" where a forest transitions into a meadow and it does not consider the climate of the surroundings of that zone.
The other options are more broad, but the last one is more specific in terms of the location.
The investigation of microclimate relating to how sunlight intensity affects plant community composition in a forest-to-meadow transition zone aligns with the study of microclimates and their impact on local ecosystems.
Explanation:In the context of microclimate investigations, which are smaller localized climates within larger ones, the most appropriate answer would be D) how sunlight intensity affects plant community composition in the zone where a forest transitions into a meadow. This investigation directly looks at the impact of an abiotic factor, sunlight intensity, on the biotic community composition at a specific location with unique microclimate conditions. It aligns with the concept of biogeography, which studies the geographic distribution of living things in relation to abiotic factors, like temperature and sunlight.
Microclimate studies often examine precise conditions and their effects on the local flora and fauna. In this scenario, the transition zone between forest and meadow creates a unique microclimate where sunlight intensity varies and can significantly affect which plants can thrive, thereby influencing the local ecosystem. Understanding such dynamics can help ecologists grasp the interplay of abiotic and biotic factors, which is crucial when considering the changes in species distribution and interactions due to macro-environment shifts, such as climate change.
Eras are divided into periods, which can be further divided into _____
it can be further divided into epoch
Answer:
The answer we seek is "epochs."
Explanation:
Hello!
Let's solve this!
The ages are stages in which it is divided chronologically into geology.
These ages are divided into periods.
For their part, periods are divided into epochs.
For example:
Era: Cenozoic
Period: Paleogene
epoch: eocene
Therefore we conclude that the answer we seek is "epochs."
which of the following is the basic taste quality responsible for the amino acid flavor steak? a). sour b). umami c). bitter d). sweet
Answer:
B Umami
Explanation:
Ribosomes provide the scaffolding on which tRNAs interact with mRNA during translation of an mRNA sequence to a chain of amino acids. A ribosome has three binding sites, each of which has a distinct function in the tRNA-mRNA interactions. Drag the appropriate tRNAs to the binding sites on the ribosome to show the configuration immediately before a new peptide bond forms. Note that one of the binding sites should be left empty.
The A, P, and E sites of a ribosome have distinct functions in tRNA-mRNA interactions during translation. The A site holds the incoming tRNA, the P site holds the tRNA with the growing polypeptide chain, and the E site is the exit site for discharged tRNA.
Explanation:Ribosomes play a crucial role in the translation of mRNA into a chain of amino acids. They have three binding sites: A, P, and E. The A site holds the incoming tRNA with the appropriate anticodon, the P site holds the tRNA carrying the growing polypeptide chain, and the E site is the exit site for the discharged tRNA. Before a new peptide bond forms, the tRNA is present in the A site, the tRNA with the growing polypeptide chain is in the P site, and the E site is empty.
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While most bacteria are eliminated by antibiotics, some can possess mutations that are resistant to antibiotics, leading to more drug-resistant strains of bacteria. Such a mutation is an example of which of Charles Darwin's proposed criteria for traits to evolve through natural selection?
Answer:
A trait that impart survival advantage to the individuals is favored by natural selection.
Explanation:
According to Darwin, genetic variations are present in natural populations. However, the genetic variations or the traits that increase the survival rates of the individuals are favored by natural selection.
In the given example, antibiotic resistance was favored by natural selection since it increased the survival rates of the bacteria having this trait. Over generations, natural selection of antibiotic resistance led to the evolution of bacterial population with an increased number of bacteria having this trait.
Which of the following sequences correctly represents the flow of electrons during photosynthesis?
A. NADPH -> O2 -> CO2
B. H2O -> NADPH -> Calvin cycle
C. NADPH -> chlorophyll -> Calvin cycle
D. H2O -> photosystem I -> photosystem II
E. NADPH -> electron transport chain -> O2
Answer:
H2O -> NADPH -> Calvin cycle - B.
The sequence that correctly represents the flow of electrons during photosynthesis is: B. H2O -> NADPH -> Calvin cycle.
Photosynthesis can be defined as a natural process through which autotrophs (green plants), transform light energy (sunlight) into chemical energy by using carbon dioxide ([tex]CO_2[/tex]) and water ([tex]H_2O[/tex]) during cellular respiration.
Basically, both carbon dioxide ([tex]CO_2[/tex]), sunlight, and water ([tex]H_2O[/tex]) contained in the Earth's atmosphere plays a significant role in photosynthesis because they serve as an input.
During photosynthesis, the electrons start at a low energy level in water ([tex]H_2O[/tex]) before they are excited to a very high energy level by light and then transported to NADPH.
Finally, NADPH arrives at the Calvin cycle, where its electrons would be used to build sugars from carbon dioxide ([tex]CO_2[/tex]).
In conclusion, the sequence that correctly represents the flow of electrons during photosynthesis is H2O -> NADPH -> Calvin cycle.
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A human cell containing 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is ___________.
Answer:
A human cell containing 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is a sperm.
A human cell containing 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is a male sex cell or sperm. Autosomes are the non-sex chromosomes, and humans have 22 pairs. The presence of a Y chromosome indicates the cell is male.
Explanation:A human cell that contains 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is classified as a sperm cell. This particular chromosome configuration represents the typical makeup of a male sex cell or gamete.
An autosome is any of the numbered chromosomes, as opposed to the sex chromosomes. Humans have 22 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes. The Y chromosome is one of two types of sex chromosomes.
The presence of the Y chromosome indicates male genetic sex. Therefore, a human cell with 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is a sperm cell that is specific to males.
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During translation, the code for genetic information changes from---
A. Proteins to Amino Acids
B. Amino acids to Codons
C. Codons to Amino Acids
D.Codons to Nucleic acids
Answer:
Codons to Amino Acids.
Explanation:
Translation may be defined as the process of protein production from the RNA strand. The RNA strand is produced from the template DNA by the process of transcription.
During translation, the ribosomes assemble over the mRNA and tRNA attches to the start codon. The ribososme move along the mRNA and forms the chain of amino acids. The encounter of tRNA with stop codon result in the termination of translation.
Thus, the correct answer is option (c).
Answer: c
Explanation: a p e x
You place a marine critter in a solution with an unknown concentration. In two hours, you examine the critter and notice that all its cells are shriveling. What is the tonicity of the tissue fluids inside of cells of the critter?
Answer:
Hypertonic
Explanation:
The cells of the critter are shriveling indicating that there is a high solute concentration in its cells. Hypertonicity causes the cells to shrink because water is leaving the cells to the external solution which one can deduce is also hypertonic.