Answer and explain:
Bronchial arteries are provenient of thoracic aorta. Their origin is in systemic circulation and their function is provide oxygen blood to big vessels, visceral pleura and walls and glands of bronquios. Also, bronchial arteries are encharged of humidify the air to reduce it loses by evaporation in alveolar surface.
Bronchial arteries are components of systemic circulation.
Bronchial arteries give the nutritional circulation to the non-respiratory structures in the lungs. The left bronchial arteries are usually 2, they directly emerge from the thoracic aorta, while the right bronchial artery emerges from the third intercostal artery or from the left superior bronchial arteries. That the bronchial arteries emerge from aorta explains how they made a part of systemic circulation.
Before these arteries penetrate the lungs, they also give some branches to pericardium, lymphatic ganglia’s, esophagi and bronchioles. This circulation is characterized for having a high pressure but a low flux. The pressure that these arteries manage has no significant differences whit the aortic pressure.
a patient who exhibits a weak pulse, shallow or absent
breathing, delirium or coma, and blue lips is most likely suffering
from which type of drug overdose?
Answer:
Opioid
Explanation:
An opioid is any psychoactive chemical compound that produces pharmacological effects similar to opium or its substances, although not chemically related. Opioids act on opioid receptors, with effects similar to morphine, for example. It is used as an analgesic because it conveys a strong sensation of pain relief, however the constant use of this compound can lead to addiction and even withdrawal symptoms when someone addicted does not have access to it. Patients with opioid withdrawal usually have weak pulse, shallow or absent breathing, delirium or coma, and blue lips .
Final answer:
A patient with a weak pulse, shallow breathing, and blue lips is likely experiencing an opioid overdose, and naloxone is used as an antidote.
Explanation:
A patient exhibiting symptoms such as a weak pulse, shallow or absent breathing, delirium or coma, and blue lips is likely suffering from an opioid overdose. Opioids are known depressants which can slow or stop a person's breathing, often leading to an overdose death.
To combat such an overdose, the opioid-overdose antidote naloxone is used to help the person awaken and breathe until emergency medical treatment can be provided. It's important to note, however, that similar symptoms can be caused by other conditions or overdoses of different substances, such as barbiturates or in cases of severe metabolic acidosis.
The relationship between the maxillary and mandibular teeth, when the teeth are touching and the mouth is gently closed, is known as what?
a. occlusion
b. abutment
c. facial alignment
d. sulcus measurement
Answer:
The correct option is: a. occlusion
Explanation:
The maxilla is the bone that forms the upper jaw, formed by the joining of the two maxillary bones. It is the fixed part of the jaw that holds the upper teeth.
The mandible, also known as the jawbone, is the largest bone of the human face that forms the lower jaw. It is the movable part of the jaw that holds the lower teeth.
During chewing or resting, when the teeth are gently closed or touching, the relationship between the mandibular or the lower teeth and the maxillary or the upper teeth is known as the occulation.
Answer:
a. occlusion
Explanation:
Occlusion is basically the branch of dentistry that studies the bite relationships between the upper and lower dental arch. However, the definition is complete only when considering the dynamic, morphological and functional relationship between all components of the masticatory organ, of which the teeth, the supporting structures of the teeth, the neuromuscular system, the temporomandibular joints and the craniofacial skeleton constitute it. In other words, we can say that the relationship between the jaw and jaw teeth, when the teeth are touching and the mouth is gently closed, is known as occlusion.
The mandibular movements are coordinated and directly linked to the neurological system, which explains the mandibular dislocation to one side and change of the body axis, due to occlusal interference and premature contacts, for example.
These conditions can cause tension, fatigue, hyperactivity, spasms, and pain in the chewing muscles and head and neck postures until the occlusal change is corrected.
Which of the following statements is false regarding 1RM testing?
a. Before beginning maximal strength testing in beginners, the fitness professional should allow several practice sessions with each strength testing protocol.
b. Untrained clients often misinterpret submaximal effort for maximal effort.
c. Maximal and near-maximal strength testing is not safe for those with risk factors for coronary heart disease.
d. Clients should maintain strict posture and maintain a constant speed of contraction.
Answer: c. Maximal and near-maximal strength testing is not safe for those with risk factors for coronary heart disease.
Explanation:
The one -repetition maximum or 1RM is a test that is performed so as to assess the strength capacity of the individuals in typical non-laboratory environments. It can be define as the maximum weight that an individual can lift for one repetition only with the implementation of the correct technique.
The C is false this is because of the fact that 1RM testing is actually safe for people with the coronary heart disease. But it is not suitable for orthopedic patients.
Follicles that undergo the process of ____________ degenerate.
Answer:
The correct answer will be- atresia
Explanation:
Follicular atresia is a process which breakdown the ovarian follicles to regulate the number of follicles in the ovary. The atresia follicles are marked with granulosa layer as well as theca covering an oocyte.
The process of atresia takes place throughout a woman which takes place due to the activation of granulosa cell apoptosis and granulosa cell autophagy.
Thus, atresia is the correct answer.
When the Mean Arterial Pressure is less than 10 mmHg above the diastolic blood pressure then blood will move to slowly serve the tissues and clot much more easily.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
The answer to the question: When the Mean Arterial Pressure is less than 10mmHg above the diastolic blood pressure, then blood will move too slowly to serve the tissues and clot much more easily, would be, A: True.
Explanation:
In general terms, people always tend to think about blood pressure as those two numbers that doctors usually give us: 120/80. This means that during systole, and at the end of diastole, when the heart is filling up again with blood to pump, our blood exerts pressure over our blood vessels in order to move and especially to be able to exchange nutrients and oxygen, as well as recover waste and CO2, with the tissues. However, there is another measurement called the MAP (Mean Arterial Pressure) that is much more important for healthcare professionals, as it tells them whether during a heart cycle the body´s pressure is enough to ensure proper exchange, especially in such organs as the coronaries, the brain, and other vital organs. Usually, normal ranges for MAP are between 70 and 100mmHg. If MAP goes below 70, which would already be 10mmHg below diastolic normal numbers, then it would mean that the blood being pumped is not having enough pressure to ensure exchanges with the tissues and also, because of lower flow, clotting mechanisms will initiate, especially in the distal parts, where capillaries are.
Suppose that 1% of all people have a particular disease. A test for the disease is 99% accurate. This means that a person who has the disease has a 99% chance of testing positive for the disease, while a person who doesn't have the disease has a 99% chance of testing negative for the disease. If a person tests positive for the disease, what is the chance (rounded to the nearest hundredth) that he or she actually has the disease?
Answer:
A positive result shows that the person is having the particular disease which he was tested for and negative result shows that the person does not have the disease for which he was tested.
If a test for the disease is 99% accurate that means that a person who has the disease has a 99% chance of testing positive for the disease, while a person who doesn't have the disease has a 99% chance of testing negative for the disease.
Therefore if a person tests positive for the disease than there is 99% chance that the person has that disease because the test is 99% accurate.
To find the probability that someone actually has a disease given a positive test, we apply Bayes' theorem considering the disease prevalence and test accuracy. With a disease prevalence of 1% and a test accuracy of 99%, the chance that someone has the disease given a positive test result is 50%.
To calculate the probability that a person actually has a disease given a positive test result, we must consider both the accuracy of the test and the base rate of the disease in the population. This is often referred to as Bayes' theorem. We are given a disease prevalence of 1%, and a test accuracy of 99%. We will use a hypothetical population of 10,000 people for this example.
100 people actually have the disease (1% of 10,000).9,900 people do not have the disease (99% of 10,000).The test will correctly identify 99 of the 100 diseased individuals (99% of 100).However, the test will also incorrectly identify 99 of the healthy individuals as diseased (1% of 9,900).So now, we have a total of 99 true positives and 99 false positives, giving us 198 positive tests. To find the probability that a person with a positive test actually has the disease, we divide the number of true positives by the total number of positive tests:
Probability = True Positives / (True Positives + False Positives) = 99 /(99 + 99) = 0.50
Therefore, even with a test that is 99% accurate, if a person tests positive, there is only a 50% chance that they actually have the disease, when the disease prevalence is 1%.
You have a patient whose breath smells like acetone. You note that she has uncontrolled type 1 diabetes. You tell her that the reason her breath smells like acetone is because in order to deliver glucose to body tissues, her liver is producing _________ .which are the break is dow product of _________ catabolism and are used by non-liver cells to produce ___________
a) Ketones, Lipids, glucose
b) Ketones, proteins, glucose
c) Ketones, Carbohydrates, glucose
d) Lipids, triglycerides, ketones
Answer:
c)
Explanation:
This drug used in treating angina acts by dilating the blood vessel.
a. beta adrenergic blocker
b. nitroglycerin
c. calcium channel blocker
d. ACEi
Answer:
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Nitroglycerin is a medication that produces relaxation of vascular smooth muscle. This happens because nitroglycerin is converted into nitric oxide (NO) in the body. NO then activates the enzyme guanylyl cyclase, which converts guanosine triphosphate into guanosine 3',5'-monophosphate (cGMP). cGMP then activates many protein kinase-dependent phosphorylations, resulting in the dephosphorylation of myosin light chains within smooth muscle fibers.
This causes the relaxation of smooth muscle and as a result blood vessels dilatate.
The function of the vibrissae in the vestibule is to:
a. provide a large, mucus-covered surface area over which air must pass before reaching the pharynx.
b. provide an initial "filter" to screen particulate matter from air that is entering the system.
c. produce copious quantities of mucus.
d. serve as resonating chambers for speech.
Answer:
A correct answer is an option - B. provides an initial "filter" to screen particulate matter from the air that is entering the system.
Explanation:
The vestibule is the most anterior region of the nasal cavity lined with epithelium skin and surrounded by the cartilage with the small hair present in it. These nasal hairs are known as vibrissae.
Vibrissae are present on the nasal cavity opening and play the role of filters as they trap dust and particle from the air inhaled by the respiratory system.
Thus, the correct answer is option B.
Velocity of blood is relatively constant as blood flows from the aorta toward the capillaries.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
The answer to the question: velocity of blood is relatively constant as blood flows from the aorta towards the capillaries, would be, B: False.
Explanation:
One way to figure this one out is knowing that the velocity of the blood as it flows through the aorta, comes from the pumping strength of the heart. However, as the blood starts traversing the length of the different arteries, arterioles, and finally reached the capillaries, it encounter two things; first, the speed with which it was originally launched by the heart into the aorta, has already diminished as it moves away from the heart. Second, blood will encounter a series of barriers, not the least of which is resistance from the blood vessels themselves, that will lower the speed with which it will reach the capillares. And this is just as well, as capillaries are much more fragile than arteries themselves, their purpose actually being to serve as exchange points between the cardiovascular system and the different tissues of the body. Their structure is much thinner, and thus needs less speed, in order for exchanges to take place. This is why it is false.
The velocity of blood is not constant as it flows from the aorta toward the capillaries; it decreases dramatically due to the large cumulative diameter of the capillary beds before increasing again as blood returns to the heart.
The statement that the velocity of blood is relatively constant as blood flows from the aorta toward the capillaries is false. Blood pressure and blood velocity are closely related in the cardiovascular system and vary throughout different parts of the blood vessel network. As blood is pushed away from the heart by each rhythmic pump, entering the aorta, it travels at a high velocity of approximately 30 cm/sec. However, as blood reaches the arterioles and moves into the capillary beds, the velocity drops dramatically to about 0.026 cm/sec, which is one-thousand times slower than in the aorta. The law of continuity states that fluid should travel faster through a narrower tube, but the overwhelming cumulative diameter of the capillary beds slows the blood flow to allow for effective exchange processes. Post-capillary, blood velocity increases again as it returns to the heart through veins.
Development of the testes in the embryo is due to:
A. Production of placental estrogen
B. Presence of Mullerian inhibiting hormone
C. Presence of a single Y chromosome.
D. Increased fetal FSH secretion
E. Effects of biochemical conversion of steroid precursors by the fetal adrenal.
Answer:
The best answer to the question: Development of the testes in the embryo is due to:___, would be, C: Presence of a single Y chromosome.
Explanation:
The subject of sexual differentiation into male, or female, during the prenatal, and especially embryonic stage, is still a matter of study and research. Although many of the processes are widely accepted and understood, studies show that there may be other factors involved in sexual differentiation. However, what has been known so far is that in the embryonic stage, the presence of TDF (testis-determining factor) is crucial to this determination. TDF is a product of the presence of the Y chromosome in the gene known as SRY. It has been seen that when this protein product is not presence, there will be no growth of the necessary parts for male differentiation from a female.
The gubernaculum is found in both the male and female embryo. What does it form in the baby and adult females?
Answer:
The answer to the question: The gubernaculum is found in both the male and female embryo. What does it form in the baby and adult females, would be: It forms the 2 rounds ligaments of the uterus, one to anchor each side of this pear-shaped reproductive organ and its companions in the reproductive system.
Explanation:
During embryologic differentiation, both the male and female embryos have in their bodies the gubernaculum. The gubernaculum is a mesenchyal tissue of undifferentiated cells that can be found attached to both the ovarian tissues in female fetuses, and the testicular tissue of male ones. In the female fetus, this gubernaculum starts its differentiation during the urogenital formation stages, and it forms a sort of band of connective tissue that initiates from the ovaries and then starts extending during developing towards the cornu of the uterus, where it attaches and then continue extending towards the labia majora. These two ligaments, one from each ovary, will attach either side of the uterus and will become its binding and attachment to the pelvic area, and also for all other reproductive organs.
A 29-year-old man who lives at the sea level drives up to a high altitude (17,000 feet) for over 3 hours. Which of the following statements best describe his condition after the elevation climb?
A. Increased arterial PO2
B. Decreased arterial PCO2
C. Decreased arterial pH
D. Decreased respiratory rate
Answer:
D. Decreased arterial PCO2
Explanation:
pO2 decreases exponentially with altitude, this leads to an increase in the respiratory rate in an attempt to gain equilibrium, this leads to a decreasing arterial pCO2, this will displace the equilibrium of gases exchanged resulting in a loss of H+ and leading to respiratory alkalosis, an increasing on arterial's pH.
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Which of the following pancreatic enzymes acts on glycogen and starches
a) Nucleosidase
b) Phosphatase
c) Chymotrypsin
d) Amylase
e) Trypsin
Answer:
B.Phosphatase
Explanation:
Try.I DonKnow
Amylase is a pancreatic enzyme that works on glycogen and starches. Amylase is an enzyme that catalyses starch hydrolysis into sugars.
What is pancreatic enzyme?Your pancreas produces natural juices known as pancreatic enzymes to aid in digestion. These juices are transported through your pancreas by ducts. They empty into the duodenum, the upper portion of the small intestine. Your pancreas produces approximately 8 ounces of digestive juice containing enzymes each day.Pancreatic enzyme products are required when the pancreas does not produce enough enzymes to break down food. Patients with conditions that cause poor absorption may be prescribed digestive enzymes, including pancreatic enzymes. These products aid in food digestion and absorption. Exocrine glands in the pancreas produce enzymes that aid digestion. Trypsin and chymotrypsin are enzymes that digest proteins; amylase is an enzyme that digests carbohydrates; and lipase is an enzyme that breaks down fats.To learn more about pancreatic enzyme, refer to:
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The most inferior cartilage of the larynx is the _________ and serves as the landmark for tracheotomies.
Answer:
The best answer to the question: The most inferior cartilage of the larynx is the:____ and serves as the landmark for tracheotomies, would be: the cricoid cartilage and the place where even unskilled medical respondents can perform cricothyrotomy, in case of acute respiratory obstruction is known as the cricothyroid membrane which connects the upper thyroid cartilage and the lower cricoid cartilage.
Explanation:
In the structure of the larynx, there are several cartilaginous structures, and bony structures, that provide both support and protection to the tube that connects the upper airways with the lower airways and the lungs. These cartilages ensure that these functions are provided and that air and foodstuffs, including water, reach the proper places. On the larynx, going down towards the lungs, we have three single cartilaginous structures and three paired ones, before it turns into the trachea. The two lowest ones are the thyroid and the cricoid. These two are also joined by the cricothyroid membrane. The cricoid is the lowest, or most inferior of the cartilages and it is also the place where health professionals seek the mark to perform what is known as cricothyrotomy, or, tracheostomy.
Discuss the process of epidermal growth and repair.
Explanation:
The cells of the stratum basale continue to go through mitosis at the same rate that the cells are shed from the surface of the skin.
Injury stimulates an increased rate of mitosis, and continued abrasion will form a thickening of the stratum corneum called a callus.
Epidermal growth and repair involve the formation of a blood clot, rapid division and mobilization of fibroblasts to deposit collagen, and increased blood circulation. Immune cells also prevent infection. The EGF receptor is critical in signaling for cell proliferation and tissue repair during this process.
Process of Epidermal Growth and Repair
The process of epidermal growth and repair is a complex biological function crucial for maintaining skin integrity and health. When skin is injured, an intricate set of cellular events unfolds to heal the wound. Initially, a blood clot forms to prevent further bleeding. The next phase involves fibroblasts, which are mobilized to the wound site. These cells rapidly proliferate and start depositing collagen, resulting in the formation of granulation tissue.
Simultaneously, blood capillaries extend towards the fibroblasts, enhancing blood circulation and oxygen supply to the damaged area, which is crucial for successful tissue repair. Immune cells, particularly macrophages, play a defensive role by engulfing pathogens and reducing the risk of infection.
On the molecular level, the epidermal growth factor (EGF) receptor (EGFR), a receptor tyrosine kinase, plays a pivotal role in regulating cell proliferation during wound healing. When EGF binds to EGFR, it triggers a series of downstream signaling events that prompt cells to grow and divide, thus contributing to tissue repair. However, unregulated activation of EGFR can lead to uncontrolled cell proliferation, highlighting its importance in epidermal homeostasis.
Where is the esophagus positioned relative to the trachea?
Answer:
Explanation:
The esophagus is a structure which is located in between the trachea and left atrium of the heart. It actually lies behind the trachea and situated on the left side of the atrium of the heart. The esophagus is a tube that connects the throat with the stomach. It is 8 inches long, and it is covered by by moist pink tissue that is called mucosa. The esophagus is situated behind the windpipe (trachea) and heart, and typically can be seen in front of the spine.
The esophagus is a muscular tube that connects the pharynx to the stomach and is positioned posterior to the trachea.
Explanation:The esophagus is a muscular tube that plays a crucial role in the digestive process by connecting the pharynx to the stomach. It is located posterior to the trachea, running a relatively straight course through the mediastinum of the thorax. When we swallow, the esophagus extends and allows food to pass through, whereas when not in use, it remains in a collapsed state. To reach the stomach, the esophagus must pass through the diaphragm via the esophageal hiatus.
Explain how complement generally prevents microbes from causing disease.
Answer:
The complement system plays important role in body defense and provides innate and adaptive immune response to the body. The complement system is made up of many proteins found in the serum.
The complement system performs many roles like cell lysis, clearance of immune complex and opsonization which helps in removing the foreign molecule from blood and put them in spleen and liver for lysis.
Most of the components of complement are synthesized in the liver and binds to antigen-antibody complex to form membrane attack complex(MAC) which results in cell lysis.
Complement plays important role in phagocytosis of disease-causing microbes by phagocytic cells. By this way complement generally, prevent microbes from causing disease.
Sperm is stored and matures in the epididymis.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
The correct answer is a. True
Explanation:
Sperms are produced in the seminiferous tubules from where they are transferred to epididymis where they are stored and matured. Epididymis is like coiled tubes which connects seminiferous tubules in testis to vas deference.
Epididymis is divided into three parts i.e., head, body and tail. Head is the upper part of epididymis receives immature sperms. Immature spermatozoa usually matures in head and body and then transferred to tail region where it get stored before being ejaculated. In epididymis sperms acquires the ability to fertilize and motility which immature sperms do not have.
Describe and explain one presynaptic and one postsynaptic mechanism
that pharmaceuticals can use to modify synaptic transmission.
Explanation:
Presynaptic mechanism: one way to modify the synaptic transmission before it happens is affecting transmitters release, one example is calcium channel blockers (for example, verapamil), this action won't allow transmitters out, therefore, there won't be a synaptic transmission.Postsynaptic mechanism: one method to modify synaptic transmission after it happens is blocking the transmitter receptors, one example of this is antipsychotic drugs that block dopamine receptors.I added some images with another examples for both cases. I hope you find this information interesting! Good luck!
What event occurs following the luteinizing hormone (LH) surge during the female monthly cycle?
a. decline in progesterone secretion
b. ovulation
c. estrogen secretion
d. menstrual flow
Answer:
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
During the follicular phase (first half of female cycle), follicles in the ovary begin developing under the influence of FSH. The follicle that acquires more FSH receptors will become dominant and will produce more estrogen and inhibin hormone than the others. Inhibin will reduce FSH level and as a result the other follicles will fail to keep growing. At this stage the dominant follicle will become FSH independent.
Estrogen produced by the dominant follicle will stimulate LH secretion. After approximately 24-36 hours from when LH reaches its peak level, the dominant follicle releases an ovocyte. This event is called ovulation.
The Luteinizing Hormone (LH) surge in the female monthly cycle triggers the process of ovulation, where a mature egg is released from the ovary.
Explanation:The Luteinizing Hormone (LH) plays a crucial role in the female reproductive system. A surge in this hormone, usually around midway through the menstrual cycle, triggers a process known as ovulation. In ovulation, a mature egg is released from the ovary and becomes available for fertilization if sperm are present. So, the correct answer to this multiple-choice question would be: b. ovulation
Here's a brief breakdown of the series of events: After the start of the menstrual cycle, the levels of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and estrogen rise, which nurture the development of several ovarian follicles. One of these follicles matures, and its growing size prompts a surge in estrogen levels. When estrogen levels peak, they stimulate a substantial release of LH, leading to the 'LH surge'. About a day or two after the LH surge, the mature follicle ruptures, releasing ovum (egg), marking the event of ovulation.
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The hormone that acts to retain more sodium in the body is ___________.
Answer:
The given blank can be filled with aldosterone.
Explanation:
Aldosterone refers to a steroid hormone produced by the adrenal glands. It functions as the chief regulator of the water and salt balance of the body and is thus classified as a mineralocorticoid.
It is the hormone generated in the outer part of the adrenal glands, that is, cortex positioned above the kidneys. It also makes water to get reabsorbed along with sodium, which enhances the volume of blood and also blood pressure.
Daniel has a large stone lodged in his right ureter that requires treatment via a procedure called extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy. Which of the following statements describes this procedure?
a)Surgical removal of a kidney stone via small scopes and instruments.
b)Removal of a kidney stone by passing a small tube through the urethra and bladder.
c)Using soundwaves to break up stones into smaller pieces that can then pass naturally.
d)Removal of the parathyroid glands which are allowing calcium buildup in the kidneys.
Answer: c)Using soundwaves to break up stones into smaller pieces that can then pass naturally.
Explanation:
The extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy is a method or technique which is used to break the stones which may be present in the kidney or ureter. The high energy shock waves can also be in the form of soundwaves. This technology breaks the stones without surgery and into small pieces like that of sand grains.
This substance, a waste product from muscle metabolism, is one indicator of kidney function______________.
Answer:
creatinine
Explanation:
The creatinine it's a protein compound that is the result of the metabolism of the muscles, this protein is produced constantly, depending of the muscle mass of each individual, which should be excreted in urine, therefore an elevated creatinine in blood sugests kidney injury, because it means creatinine is not being filtrated correctly by the kidneys
The peritoneum is the A. Surface of a muscle B. Surface of a vein C. Rectal area D. Body cavity This is for veterinary assistant
Daniel has small stones that are lodged in the left renal pelvis. His doctor recommends passing them naturally. Which of the following choices describes the path that these stones must take to exit the body?
a)Distal convoluted tubule- Ureter- Bladder
b)A loop of Henle- Proximal convoluted tubule- Urethra- Bladder
c)Urethra- Bladder- Ureter
d)Ureter- Bladder- Urethra
Answer:
d) Ureter- Bladder- Urethra
Explanation:
The renal pelvis is located just outside the renal parenchyma, it is the place where the renal calices meet to form the ureter, a long a tubular structure that extends to reach the bladder, where urine is collected and stored to be finally excreted through the urethra, a single tubular structure that connects the bladder with the exterior.
The Loop of Henle- Proximal convoluted tubule and Distal convoluted tubule are structures located inside the renal parenchyma, at the medullary and cortical portion of the kidney, way up the renal pelvis.
The laryngeal prominence is an enlarged region on the anterior surface of the ________ cartilage and is nicknamed __________.
Answer:
Thyroid cartilage
Adam's apple
Explanation:
Adam's apple is a cartilaginous structure that protrudes from the anterior angle of the thyroid cartilage located at the level of the larinx, Adam's apple is more prominent in men due to the hormonal influence of testosterone, so it is related in the developing of the deeper voice tone of the males.
A substance X is secreted by one cell, it travels a short distance through interstitial fluid, and produces an effect in a cell immediately adjacent to the original secreting cell. All of the following terms might fit this substance except:
A. Prostaglandin
B. Neurotransmitter
C. Pheromone
D. Growth factor
E. Nitric acid
Answer:
The answer to the question: All of the following terms might fit this substance except:____, would be, C: Pheromone.
Explanation:
In general terms, the body has a lot of chemical substances that work as communication ways between cells of the same tissues, tissue groups, organs and organ systems. Most of these will be produced by a specific cell and will travel to other cells where they will produce an effect, all within the same body. However, from the list given here there is one that is a chemical substance, produced and secreted by the cells of the body, but whose purpose is rather to produce an effect on other bodies around it, and not over its own. This substance is known as a pheromone and its function is to generate a reaction of attraction from other members of the same species, in this case, humans.
The AV node is located
a. in the bottom of the atrium just above the ventricles
b. in the right atrium
c. in the bundle of His
d. in the heart
Answer:
a. in the bottom of the atrium just above the ventricles
Explanation:
AV node -
It helps to control the heart rate , it serves as an electrical relay station , reduces the electrical current which is sent by the SA node .
The location of the AV node , is at the lower back section of the inter atrial septum , and conducts the electrical impulse normally from the atria to ventricles .
In people who engage in regular vigorous exercise, RMR may account for a larger proportion of daily caloric need.
a. True
b. False
Answer: False
Explanation:
RMR is Resting metabolic rate is the rate at which the body burns the energy while in rest. This can be calculated by how much calories are burn while in rest in vital processes such as breathing and circulation. It is irrespective of the exercise and physical strain taken by the person in awake state. Thus the RMR will only account for small proportion of the caloric needs.