Answer:
Semi-conservative replication is meant for the description of DNA replication and it i s called so because parent DNA helix produces two copies of original DNA, one of which consist of original DNA.
The three main steps in DNA replication includes Initiation, Elongation and Termination.
In the initiation phase, replication begins at origin of replication where helicase enzyme breaks the hydrogen bonds between base pairs and tends to unwind the double helix where the topoisomerase stabilizes the newly formed single strand DNA. DNA polymerase allows elongation to occur in leading direction and catalyses the addition of new nucleotide to new single strands. short sequences of RNA called primers paired to template strands with the help of primase. replication of both strands occurs at the same time one in continuous (3'-5') and other in discontinuous (5'-3') direction, which are called leading strands. new nucleotides added in 3' end and moving to replication fork while discontinuous synthesis occur on parent strand (5'-3') called lagging strand and completed in segments called okazaki fragments. Then primase add primers ahead at 5' end of the lagging strand. DNA polymerase ||| adds short sequences of nucleotides to the primer. During termination, exonuclease replaces DNA primer and DNA nucleotide and DNA ligase helps in making bonding between fragments and replaced nucleotide. Another exonuclease helps in proofreading the newly formed DNA and corrects the errors in sequences. At the end of the parent strands, telomeres are present which keeps on catalyzing by telomerase and completes, the formation of copies of parent DNA.
The semiconservative replication of DNA is a process where each new DNA molecule consists of one parental and one new strand. This process includes unwinding the DNA, helicase creating replication forks, binding proteins stabilizing single strands, and enzymatic actions such as Primase synthesizing RNA primers, DNA polymerase elongating new strands, and DNA ligase sealing the strands.
Explanation:Semiconservative Replication of DNAThe key steps in the semiconservative replication of DNA involve several critical actions and proteins to ensure that the DNA is copied accurately. The term semiconservative relates to the fact that each resultant DNA molecule consists of one old (parental) strand and one new (daughter) strand. The replication process can be described as follows:
DNA unwinds at the origin of replication.Helicase opens up the DNA, forming replication forks; these extend bidirectionally.Single-strand binding proteins coat the DNA strands to prevent them from rewinding.A short RNA primer is synthesized by Primase, which is necessary for DNA polymerase to begin synthesis of the new strand.DNA polymerase III attaches nucleotides to the 3'-OH group of the RNA primer, elongating the new strand.As synthesis proceeds, DNA polymerase continually adds new nucleotides to the growing strand in accordance with the base-pairing rules (A pairs with T, C pairs with G).Once the entire DNA molecule has been copied, DNA polymerase I replaces the RNA primers with DNA nucleotides.The DNA ligase enzyme seals the gaps between the newly synthesized DNA fragments, finalizing the strand.The result is two DNA molecules, each with one parental strand and one new strand - this conservation of the parental strand is why the process is known as semiconservative.Some bacteria are metabolically active in hot springs because
a. they are able to maintain a lower internal temperature.
b. high temperatures make catalysis unnecessary.
c. their enzymes have high optimal temperatures.
d. their enzymes are completely insensitive to temperature.
Answer:
Their enzymes have high optimal temperatures.
Explanation:
Archaea is one of the domain among the three domains of life. Archaea bacteria are the bacteria that may exist in the extreme environmental condition.
Bacteria re also found at extreme temperatures conditions under the hotsprings. This is because these enzymes of this bacteria work at high optimal temperatures. Their enzymes are active at high temperature condition that makes them metabolically active.
Thus, the correct answer is option (c).
Bacteria that are active in hot springs are known as thermophiles. Their enzymes have adapted to work optimally at high temperatures which usually are considered destructive for most enzymes/bacteria.
Explanation:Some bacteria are metabolically active in hot springs because of option c: their enzymes have high optimal temperatures. These bacteria, known as thermophiles, thrive in extremely hot environments that would be destructive to most life forms. Their enzymes and cellular components have uniquely evolved to function optimally at these high temperatures. Therefore, high temperatures become their standard operational conditions, in which enzymatic reactions and metabolic processes occur effectively.
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Which of the following reactions occurs during the Calvin cycle?
Choose all answers that apply:
A) Carbon release
B) Carbon fixation
C) RuBP regeneration
D) Carbon reduction
The correct options for the reactions that occur during the Calvin cycle are: B) Carbon fixation and C) RuBP regeneration.
The Calvin cycle in chloroplast stroma involves carbon fixation and RuBP regeneration. Carbon fixation involves adding [tex]CO_2[/tex] to ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP). The enzyme RuBisCO helps produce an unstable intermediate that soon converts into two molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate (3-PGA).
These molecules then generate glucose. RuBP renewal sustains the cycle after carbon fixation. RuBP is constantly available for carbon dioxide fixation. The Calvin cycle helps plants synthesise sugars and other vital biomolecules by converting ambient carbon dioxide into organic compounds. Therefore, he correct option are: : B) Carbon fixation and C) RuBP regeneration.
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Briefly explain why the heart can be considered to be two pumps side by side. What is the function of each pump?
Answer: There are two pumping systems because the right side receives blood from the body and pumps it to the lungs, and the left side receives blood from the lungs and pumps it through the body. Thereby there are two pumping systems.
Explanation:
The heart is an organ that pumps blood throughout the body through the circulatory system. Its function is to supply oxygen and nutrients to the tissues and remove carbon dioxide and waste products.
The heart is divided into two separate pumps. The right side of the heart receives oxygen-poor blood from the veins and pumps it to the lungs, Over there, the blood picks up oxygen and gets rid of carbon dioxide, wich is a waste product. On the other hand, the left side receives oxygen-rich blood from the lungs and pumps it throughout the body. This blood enters the top chamber of the right heart, called the right atrium.
So, the right side of the heart receives blood from the body and pumps it to the lungs. The left side of the heart does the opposite. Thereby there are two pumping systems.
How does the study of the time progression of fossils support the process of evolution?
Answer:
Thanks to the fossil record, direct evidence of the evolution and change of species can be given over the years. The fossil record tells us the natural history of the species in the different geological ages and allows us to see the changes in the distributions of the species, extinction and diversification from comparison and measurement.
Why are some bacteria referred to as indicator microorganisms in ascertaining microbial quality control of products?
Answer:
Some bacteria are used as indicators because if they are present in the product, we can say that it is a product with the presence of pathogens that will cause diseases. Some of them are: total coliforms, fecal coliforms and enterococci.
To be a good indicator they must have a correlation with the pathogens and be more abundant than them. Its presence in a food indicates the possible presence simultaneous pathogen microorganisms. For example, E. coli has been used as Index of possible presence of pathogens of enteric origin in water and food
What are the 2 ways that you can do to enhance the
resolvingpower on the microscope?
Answer:
Explanation:
The resolving power of the microscope is dependent upon the objective lens. It can be measured by the ability of the lens to differentiate between the two lines or points on the specimen under observation. The more the resolving power the smaller will be the distance between the two lines or points that can be distinguished.
The following are the two ways that can be used to enhance the resolving power on the microscope:
Using a lens that has a higher aperture.
Decreasing the amount of light being entered into the microscope that means using light of less wavelength.
Explain why Huntington disease is caused by a dominant allele.
Answer:
Explanation:
The huntington disease is a disease that is caused by the dominent allele. It is the disease which causes damage to the brain cell. The mother and father can be carrier or affected by the disease. As in the condition if both parents exhibit a hetrozygous condition that is both have a dominent as well as as a recessive allele responsible for the disease. Then there is 75% chances of occurence of disease in the child. If both parents are homozygous that is both have dominent alleles then 100% chances of occurrence of the disease.
a) What is "extension of Mendelian Genetics"?
b) Contrast incomplete dominance and codominance. Define the phenomenon of epistasis in the context of the concept of gene interaction.
Answer:
A. The extension of Mendelian genetics comprises the codominance, incomplete dominance, polygenic inheritance, multiple alleles, lethal genes, sex lined genes, gene mapping, and others.
B. The phenomenon of incomplete dominance takes place when of both the recessive and dominant forms, no one gets expressed in the F1 generation, however, an intermediate expression is witnessed. For example, crossing red flower with the white one generates pink flowers.
On the other hand, in codominance, both the alleles get expressed, like in the blood group AB. The association of genes results in epistasis, it changes the normal dihybrid phenotypic ratio, that is, 9: 3: 3: 1 to 12: 3: 1. The genes, which suppress the others are called epistatic, while the ones, which get suppressed are known as hypostatic.
____ is a type of weathering where rock is dissolved by an acid
Answer:
Chemical Weathering is a type of weathering where rock is dissolved by an acid
Explanation:
The weathering of rocks by chemicals is called chemical weathering . Rainwater is naturally slightly acidic because carbon dioxide from the air dissolves in it. Minerals in rocks may react with the rainwater, causing the rock to be weathered. Some types of rock are easily weathered by chemicals.
Answer:
Chemical Weathering is a type of weathering where rock is dissolved by an acid
Explanation:
Weathering are of two types- Mechanical and Chemical Weathering. In chemical weathering, the molecular structure of different rocks and soils change through chemical reactions.
For example, in carbonation the carbon dioxide of air and often soil mixes with water. This combination forms a acid named carbonic acid that dissolves rock. It especially dissolves the limestone rock. Through the dissolving of limestone huge caves are formed.
Cells import useful solids and fluids by ________________.
a. exocytosis
b. dehydration
c. hydrolysis
d. endocytosis
Answer:
The correct answer is option d, that is, endocytosis.
Explanation:
A procedure in which a component gains entry within the cell without getting passed through the cell membrane is termed as endocytosis. In this process, the cell captivates the substances from the external of the cell by engulfing and combining them with its plasma membrane.
The process is further differentiated into three distinct kinds. These are phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and receptor-mediated endocytosis.
Predict the sex of humans with different complements of X and Y chromosomes.
Answer:
In humans, males sex determination is trigged by a Y linked gene (SYR) female sex determination occurs in XX embryos by default
Explanation:
The sex of the individual is defined through the interaction of genes that are situated in homologous pairs, that is, sex chromosomes (heterosomes or allosomes).
In humans, sex is determined by the XY system. The man has 44 autosomes + XY, being heterogametic: 22 A + 22 A + Y. And women have 44 autosomes + XX, being homogametic: 22 A + X.
Even though male chromosomes are different from female chromosomes, these sex chromosomes are homologous and are similar in meiosis, but there are no partial chromosomes in the male chromosome, so their pairing is partial. In homologous regions, there is pairing between the X and Y chromosomes, and in non-homologous regions, there is no pairing between the X and Y chromosomes.
Man produces two types of sperm, which are composed of equal amounts of X chromosome and Y chromosome, so it is called heterogametic. The woman is considered homogametic, because in the egg she produces there is only one X chromosome. If the egg is fertilized by a sperm that has X chromosome, consequently the zygote will have an X chromosome and a Y, that means the sex of the son will be male. Otherwise, if the egg is fertilized by an X sperm, the zygote will have two X chromosomes, and its sex will be female. This whole process of defining sex occurs in fertilization.
The two homologs of a pair move toward opposite poles of dividing cell during
(A) mitosis.
(B) meiosis I.
(C) meiosis II.
(D) fertilization.
Answer: B, Meiosis I
Explanation:
During meiosis I, genetic material halves, and you get 2 haploid cells (n) from a diploid cell (2n). Those divide again during meiosis II to form 4 different haploid cells.
DNA replicates during interphase and starting at meiosis I, 2n homolog chromosomes attach to form n tetrads. Those tetrads align in the cellular equator during metaphase I and then separate, moving to opposite poles during anaphase I. Each cell formed receives a copy of each chromosome and then divides in a process similar to mitosis during meiosis II.
Homologs of a pair move toward opposite poles of a dividing cell during meiosis I. This is different from mitosis, meiosis II, or fertilization, which involve different cellular processes.
Explanation:The two homologs of a pair move toward opposite poles of a dividing cell during meiosis I. This event is known as anaphase I of meiosis I. In contrast, during mitosis and meiosis II, it is the sister chromatids, and not the homologs, that separate and move to the opposite poles. Fertilization, on the other hand, involves the fusion of two gametes (each from a different parent) and does not involve the separation of homologs.
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Just as in mitosis, cohesin is an important protein that keeps chromatids together during meiosis and is similarly targeted by separate as well. In the context of meiosis, however, there are multiple variants of cohesin with different quaternary structures. Why do you think this is necessary?
Answer:
It is well known that in biological compounds, such as proteins; a small change on its structure modifies its function to send a different signal or even to not have a function at all.
Talking about cohesin, this protein has been implicated in the development of certain types of tumors, because it takes a fundamental role in the cellular division and the 3D structure of the genome. Cohesin SA1, for example, maintains differentiated the TADs and it is essential for the organization of the topological domains of the genome, while the Cohesin SA2 is much more versatile and can regulate the expression of the genes within TADs, it is also capable to bond to some transcription factors creating local loops.
Some mutations on this protein can also be involved in the origin of rare diseases.
Among the characteristics unique to animals is
a.gastrulation c.sexual reproduction
b.multicellularity. d.flagellated sperm
Answer:
a.gastrulation is the correct answer.
Explanation:
The characteristics unique to animals is gastrulation
Gastrulation is a stage early in the embryonic growth in most of the animals, through which simple layered blastula is rearranged into a multi-layered structure called gastrula.
gastrulation results in the formation of three germ layers
endodermmesodermectodermThe embryonic tissue layers are developed and arranged in their proper places during the gastrulation process.
Among the options, gastrulation is the characteristic unique to animals. Other traits like sexual reproduction, multicellularity, and flagellated sperm are also found in non-animal species, while gastrulation is a distinct phase in embryonic development of animals.
Explanation:The characteristics unique to animals are not as straightforward as they may seem. Among the options, the characteristic unique to animals is gastrulation.
Sexual reproduction, multicellularity, and flagellated sperm are not unique to animals as there are non-animal species which also possess these traits. For instance, multicellularity is common in plants and fungi, sexual reproduction occurs in certain fungi and plants as well, and flagellated sperm is found in certain kinds of algae.
Gastrulation, on the other hand, is a phase early in the embryonic development of most animals, during which the single-layered blastula is reorganized into a multilayered structure known as the gastrula. This process, unique to animals, gives rise to what will become the organism's internal body cavities and the arrangement of tissues and organs.
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Which one of the following is NOT a function of sertoli cells?
A. Formation of a blood-testes barrier
B. Production of primary spermatocytes
C. Production of seminiferous tubule fluid
D. Removal of damaged germ cells
E. Synthesis of inhibin
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-B.
Explanation:
Sertoli cells are the large somatic cells present in the testis which helps in the formation of spermatozoa. The Sertoli cells create a suitable environment for the production and maturation of the sperms as they produce certain molecules which nourishes the sperms.
The Sertoli cells act as a barrier between the testis and blood and secrete enzymes like inhibin. They eliminate the apoptotic germ cells and also produce seminiferous fluid to nourish the sperm. They do not play any role in primary spermatocytes.
Thus, Option-B is the correct answer.
Organic chemistry is currently defined as
a. the study of compounds made only by living cells.
b. the study of carbon compounds.
c. the study of natural (as opposed to synthetic) compounds.
d. the study of hydrocarbons.
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Organic chemistry is defined as the study of carbon compounds.
Organic compounds were first thought to be compounds that could only be produced by living organisms. This theory was disproved when scientists synthetically made urea from ammonia in a lab.
Organic compounds are now known as compounds where carbon atoms are covalently bonded to other elements. This could be hydrogen or oxygen (in the case of lipids or carbohydrates) or nitrogen (in the case of amino acids).
Organic chemistry is the study of carbon compounds, including both naturally and synthetically produced ones, and not limited only to hydrocarbons.
Explanation:Organic chemistry is most accurately defined as b. the study of carbon compounds. This branch of chemistry deals with the structures, properties, compositions, reactions, and preparation of compounds that contain carbon atoms. It's important to note that these compounds may not necessarily be produced only by living cells (which eliminates option a) and can be either natural or synthetic, ruling out option c. Furthermore, while organic chemistry does study hydrocarbons (compounds composed solely of carbon and hydrogen atoms), this makes up only a fraction of the compounds analyzed, so option d is too restrictive.
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A pure-line green-seeded plant is crossed with a heterozygous plant. What do you expect in the progeny? Assume the givens of the problems worked in class so that there is no need to ask for additional information.
a. 50% green-seed individuals vs. 50% yellow-seed individuals
b. 25% green-seed individuals vs. 75% yellow-seed individuals
c. 25% yellow-seed individuals vs. 75% green-seed individuals
d. 100% yellow-seed individuals
e. none of the above is correct
Answer:
50% green-seed individuals vs. 50% yellow-seed individuals.
Explanation:
Mendel is known as father of genetics. He explained the concept of dominance, the law of segregation and the law of independent assortment while working on pea plant.
Green seed color is recessive and yellow seed color is dominant. A pure green line seed plant (ss) is crossed with heterozygous plant (Ss). The cross is as follows:
Parents ss (green seed) × Ss (Yellow seed)
Gametes s S, s
progeny: Ss, Ss, ss, ss.
Here, Ss is yellow seed and ss is green seed.
50% green-seed individuals vs. 50% yellow-seed individuals are formed after the cross.
Thus, the correct answer is option (a).
Which of these is NOT a requirement or influence on chemical cycling of inorganic nutrients in a natural ecosystem?
a. A reservoir for the elements in the Earth
b. The biotic community and its food chains
c. Human activities
d. The input of geothermal energy
e. An exchange pool from which producers draw their nutrients
Answer:
The correct answer is option d.
Explanation:
Chemical cycling illustrates the systems of concurrent circulation of elements between other states, compounds, and substances, and then return to their original state, which takes place in space, and on many objects in space comprising the Earth.
Chemical cycling of the nutrients (inorganic) is needed to maintain the conservation of nutrients on Earth. The chemical cycling of nutrients in a natural system requires a pool for the elements, the activities done by human beings, the biotic community and its food chains, and an exchange pool from which producers extract their nutrients. All the mentioned factors are associated with affecting a chemical cycling in exception to the input of geothermal energy.
The final electron acceptor of the electron transport chain that functions in aerobic oxidative phosphorylation is
a. oxygen. b. water. c. NAD+. d. pyruvate.
Answer: a. oxygen
Basically what (/the) ETC and oxidative phosphorylation is, is the products of the Krebs cycle being oxidized and oxygen receiving electrons. And when the phosphorylation part of oxidative phosphorylation occurs is when ADP gains its third phosphate group becoming ATP.
Forgive me for this poor response I was trying to be quick and it resulted in this vague and disorganized mess. To properly explain the ETC and oxidative phosphorylation it would be best to start from the beginning and explain all the stages of Aerobic respiration. Then it would be easier to Segway in to this final stage which would definitely take 2-3 descriptive paragraphs to cover.
The final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain during aerobic oxidative phosphorylation is oxygen. This is because oxygen combines with hydrogen ions and electrons to form water at the end of this process.
Explanation:The final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain during aerobic oxidative phosphorylation is oxygen (option a.)
Here's why it's oxygen: Aerobic oxidative phosphorylation is the process during which ATP (the main energy source for most cellular functions) is produced. This process happens in the mitochondria of our cells, and it's a part of cellular respiration.
In this process, the electron transport chain plays a vital role. Electrons travel down the chain, moving from one protein complex to the next. These electrons ultimately combine with hydrogen ions and oxygen to form water. Thus, oxygen acts as the final electron acceptor in the chain.
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(This is earth science but there is no option for that)Which of the following would be most impacted by a decrease in the use of fossil fuels?
water cycle
volcanic activity
carbon cycle
nitrogen-fixing bacteria
Answer:
Decrease in burning of fossil fuels will affect carbon cycle the most.
Explanation:
Carbon compounds circulate within the biosphere as part of carbon cycle. In terrestrial ecosystems Plants acquire carbon dioxide through photosynthesis and in aquatic ecosystems plankton absorb carbon dioxide.
Dead plants bodies deposited underground for a large number of years get converted to fossil fuels and the burning of these fossil fuels releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.
Carbon dioxide is also released into the atmosphere through processes like respiration and decomposition of dead organic matter. If burning of fossil fuels is decreased it will be the carbon cycle which will be affected the most.
Explain how the Meselson-Stahl experiment with "heavy" nitrogen showed that DNA replication is semiconservative.
Answer:
1. Bacteria where grow in a medium composed of heavy nitrogen. After several generations the bacteria DNA was composed of heavy nitrogen (heavy nitrogen is an isotope of nitrogen).
2. After several generations had passed, the bacteria were transferred to a nitrogen light medium.
3. As soon as the bacteria were transferred the bacteria DNA was isolated after the first and second generation through centrifugation.
4. Results: after 2 generations half of the DNA was intermediate and half was light; there was not heavy-only DNA. The conclusion was that the new DNA is formed by an "old" strand and a "new" strand producing an intermediate weight.
Explain the bacterial transformation experiments of Avery and his colleagues and the results they obtained.
Answer:
Explanation:
Frederick Griffith performed a different experiment on bacterium streptococcus pneumonia. There are 2 strains of streptococcus i.e. virulent strain i.e. bacteria have a smooth capsule, and the avirulent strain, the bacteria have a rough capsule. Though the smooth live bacteria have virulent strain kills the mouse when it is injected into it. But the rough bacteria did not affect the mouse. When he heat-killed the smoothe bacteria and mix with the rough bacteria it kills the mouse. The single heat-killed smooth bacteria did not kill the mouse. Griffith concluded that there is some transforming principle responsible for making the avirulent bacteria into virulent and this process is called the transformation of bacteria. He failed to show which element transforms from the heat-killed bacteria to rough bacteria.
This experiment was further proceeded by Avery, Macleod, Mccarty. They cultured large quantities of smooth pneumonia cells. The cells are harvested from the culture and heat-killed. Then the heat-killed bacterial cells are homogenized and cell extracts were treated with cell lysates separately. The cell lysates are - DNAse, RNAse, protease, trypsin, lipase.
Then he injected the cell extracts with rough bacteria and put this in Petri dish to form the bacterial colony. They observed each colony show a smooth bacterial colony except the DNAse treated cell. DNAse degrades the DNA and the smooth bacterial colony was not formed. This results, DNA is the element which transforms from the smooth bacteria to rough one and makes it virulent.
Avery and his colleagues finally show DNA is the genetic material.
Bacterial cells were coinfected with two types of bacteriophage lambda: One carried the c+ allele and the other the c allele. After the cells lysed, progeny bacteriophage were collected. When a single such progeny bacteriophage was used to infect a new bacterial cell, it was observed in rare cases that some of the resulting progeny were c+ and others were c. Explain this result.
Answer:
Since the cells are being coinfected by 2 types of viruses, this can create heteroduplex areas. DNA repair systems normally correct the heteroduplex areas. In rare cases, the heteroduplex is not corrected and a chromosome containing the mismatch appears so a single bacteriophage particle can be generated. One DNA strand is c+, and the other strand is c. When such a bacteriophage infects a fresh bacterial host cell, some molecules are created by DNA replication.
There are 4 molecules racing to get across a typical cell membrane.
(a) C6H12O6
(b) CO2
(c) Cl -
(d) CH3CH2CH2COOH (a fatty acid).
Predict the order they make it across.
(A) a, b, c, d
(B) b, d, a, c
(C) c, a, b, d
(D) d, c, d, b
(E) b, c, a, d
1. D
2. D
hope this helps
What is the only crainial nerve that enters and leaves the skull?
Answer:
The answer is the accessory nerve.
Explanation:
We have 12 pairs of cranial nerves, the accessory nerve is the XI pair. This is responsible for the innervation of the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles.
The fibers of the accessory nerve originate from neurons that are located in the upper spinal cord. These fibers join together forming roots and once the nerve is constituted, it enters the skull through the great hole that is located at the base of the skull.
Then, the nerve continues its path along the inside of the skull in the direction of the jugular hole and then leaves the skull next to the glossopharyngeal nerve (IX) and the vagus (X).
Thus, the accessory nerve enters and leaves the skull again, characterized by being the only cranial nerve which has this behavior.
Answer:
The correct answer is indeed the
accessory nerve
The fibers that make up the accessory nerve enter the skull through the foramen magnum and proceed to exit the jugular foramen with cranial nerves IX and X. Due to its unusual course, the accessory nerve is the only nerve that enters and exits the skull.
What is meant by the statement "life is diverse?"
A. There are many living organisms on Earth
B. Each living thing is a unique individual.
C. All living things are related to each other.
D. There are many different kinds of living organisms on Earth
E. There are many places to live on Earth.
Answer:
Option (D)
Explanation:
Diversity in simple words means variations. By the given statement "life is diverse", it means that there are various types of life forms on earth. These variations occur in different places under different conditions. The factors that affect diversity are as follows-
(1) Biotic factors
(2) Abiotic factors
(3) Geographical factors
This diversity occurs in three forms and they are as follows-
(a) Ecological diversity
(b) Species diversity
(c) Genetic diversity
Hence, the correct answer is option (D).
All of the oxygen that we breathe is produced by plants.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
The given statement is true.
Explanation:
The oxygen that is present in the atmosphere has two main sources:
Terrestrial Plants: As we know that the plants make use of sunlight, water, carbon dioxide and chlorophyll in a process termed as photosynthesis and make glucose and releasing oxygen into the atmosphere which is then used by animals for respiration. This is one of the major source of oxygen in the atmosphere.
Oxygen released from Oceans: In the oceans of the earth, water bodies ,seas tiny plants termed as Phytoplankton are present that are present near the surface of the water bodied that also release oxygen by photosynthesis and account for about 50% of the world's oxygen supply.
amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere would greatly increase if there were fewer _____.
Answer:
Forests.
Explanation:
They decrease the amount of Carbon dioxide & increase the amount of Oxygen.
Answer:
I think trees aka plants would be the answer
Distinguish between homologous and non-homologous chromosomes.
Answer:
Chromosomes are a microscopic thread-like structure, and it is the part of a cell that carries hereditary information in the form of genes.
Homologous chromosomes the relationship between two chromosome, consists of the same gene sequence, each derived from one parent. They consist of alleles of the same type of genes in the same loci. Homologous chromosomes pair up during the process of meiosis 1. The part of the Homologous chromosomes can be exchanged during the process of recombination. Examples of these are 22 autosomal chromosomes in humans.
Non-homologous chromosomes do not belong to the same pair, they consist of alleles of different types. Non-homologous chromosomes do not pair up during the process of meiosis 1. The part of the Non-homologous chromosomes can be exchanged during the process of translocation. Examples are X and Y chromosomes.
Certain mushrooms tend to appear suddenly in circles on lawns. Which of the following might be an appropriate scientific hypothesis about this.
A. Mushrooms grow only in the summer time.
B. The circle shape is random, even though it's almost always how these mushrooms are oriented on the lawn.
C. Mushrooms grow only in association with grass.
D. There are some things too odd to try to explain scientifically. There's no way to know.
E. Mushrooms mostly grow underground from a central root structure.
Answer:C. Mushrooms grow only in association with grass.
Explanation:
Hypothesis is a statement which includes proposed information for the cause of a particular process.
The mushroom colonizes in a form of circle in the grass lawn. It might be a pattern of development of these mushrooms. Supported by the mineral and nutrients they derive from the grass.
Thus C is the correct option.