Digestion begins when starch is broken down in the _____.
mouth
stomach
liver
intestines

Answers

Answer 1
The correct answer is the mouth. Digestion begins when food enters the mouth, chewed, and mixed with saliva. Food usually has complex carbohydrates such as starch in them and saliva has an enzyme called salivary amylase which can break down these complex carbohydrates into simpler molecules (i.e. dextrins). After which, these dextrins are digested further in the stomach and in the small intestine by the action of enzymes such as the pancreatic amylase which further breaks down dextrins into oligosaccharides and disaccharides. Other enzymes such as trypsin breaks down proteins into amino acids and lipase that breaks down fat into triglycerides. In the brush border of the small intestine, there are enzymes such as oligosaccharidases and disaccharidases which breaks down sugars into their most basic forms (i.e. glucose, fructose, galactose) which can be readily absorbed in the intestine. Amino acids and tricglycerides are also readilty absorbed in the intestines with the latter by the help of emulsification by bile. 
Answer 2

Answer:

the mouth

Explanation:


Related Questions

What are the relative sizes of oocytes in a dormant follicle, a growing follicle, and a graafian follicle?

Answers

Final answer:

The size of oocytes varies among the dormant, growing, and mature Graafian follicles during development. Dormant follicles contain the smallest oocytes, whereas the growing follicles have larger oocytes as granulosa cells proliferate. The mature Graafian follicles house the largest oocytes, which are ready for ovulation.

Explanation:

The question refers to the relative sizes of oocytes during different stages of follicular development in the human ovary, known as folliculogenesis. Oocytes are found within ovarian follicles, and their size and development change as the follicle matures.

Primordial Follicle: In a dormant, or primordial follicle, the oocyte is relatively small and arrested in the first meiotic prophase. This is the initial stage of development.


Growing Follicle (Primary and Secondary Follicles): Next, the follicle enters the growing phase, which encompasses primary and secondary follicle stages. During this phase, the oocyte grows in size gradually. First, primary follicles with a single layer of granulosa cells form and as these cells proliferate, secondary follicles develop with multiple layers of granulosa cells and a maturing oocyte which has secreted the zona pellucida, a critical structure for fertilization. The oocyte here remains a primary oocyte.

Graafian Follicle (Tertiary Follicle): At the final stage of maturation before ovulation is the Graafian follicle, also known as the tertiary or antral follicle. It is much larger compared to the previous stages. A large antrum is formed, the oocyte has grown substantially in size and gains several layers of granulosa cells. This stage ends with the rupture of the follicle and release of the secondary oocyte during ovulation.

Crushing > Sizing > Concentrating > Dewatering
Which process is shown?
A. Coal blending
B. Magma crystallization
C. Crude oil refining
D. Mineral processing

Answers

D. Mineral Processing
Apex Processing Minerals 

What is a potassium hydroxide (koh) test and what specific nursing actions should be taken when obtaining fungal skin specimens?

Answers

The potassium hydroxide (KOH) test is a test for fungal infections of the skin. The affected skin is sampled by scraping it off then KOH is added to the glass slide before taking a look at it in the microscope. The KOH dissolves epidermal tissue but does not affect the fungal tissue, leading to direct visualization of the fungal morphology. 

The correct way of collecting a specimen for KOH test is first to collect the specimen using a wooden tongue depressor or the back of the scalpel blade, then placing it inside a plastic container to be sent to pathology laboratory. In cases wherein KOH microscopy is inconclusive, a fungal culture is needed and a punch biopsy of the affected area is warranted. 

Specimens should be labeled by the patient's name, age, specimen, and diagnosis to prevent any mishaps in the laboratory.

When a person’s hair, nails, and skin areas are infected with fungus, such infections are determined by a doctor through the KOH test. While taking a skin sample for the test, the nurse or a doctor must use a scraping tool to remove the infected skin and place it in the KOH solution, which is later examined under the microscope.

Further Explanation:

The KOH or potassium hydroxide test is generally performed to check whether the cause of infection in the skin is a fungus or not. The constituent elements in KOH are potassium (K), hydrogen (H), and oxygen (O), which together produce potassium hydroxide. The products such as soft soaps, fertilizers, and alkaline batteries make use of KOH.

A change on the surface of the skin or skin lesion can be a result of infection through many agents. The KOH test is done when a fungal infection is suspected. The infection through tinea cruris and ringworm are the fungal infections usually determined by the KOH test.

The symptoms of the infection by a fungus include:

Red, itchy patches on the skin When it occurs in the mouth, white patches are seen Thickened or deformed nails

The procedure of the test involves the following steps:

A small area of the skin is scraped through a glass slide or any other instrument. The scraped skin is kept in a potassium hydroxide solution. The KOH kills the healthy cell while keeping the fungal cells alive. A normal KOH test would result in the absence of fungal cells. An abnormal test result will have the presence of fungal cells. The presence or absence of the fungal infection is determined after examining the solution containing the infected skin area under the microscope.

Therefore, if the KOH solution degrades all the cells, the infection is not done by a fungus. This means that the symptoms might have occurred due to some other infectious agent. In the presence of fungal infection, the doctor might suggest further treatment.

Learn More:

Learn more about the treatment of eukaryotic cell with a drug https://brainly.com/question/10767798 Learn more about the proteins synthesis in a cell https://brainly.com/question/1420458 Learn more about the exchange of gases by blood cells https://brainly.com/question/1213217

Answer Details:

Grade: College Biology

Chapter: Fungal Infections

Subject: Biology

Keywords:

KOH test, potassium hydroxide, fungal infection, ringworm, tinea cruris, glass slide, fungal cells.

If you were scaled down to half your size, what would you expect of your strength?

Answers

Hello!

If you were scaled down to half your size, you would expect that your strength would double up!

The reason for that is that, although your muscles will decrease in size, you will maintain the same number of muscular fibers in a smaller size. That would increase the Physiological Cross-Sectional Area (or PCSA). This is an important parameter in measuring strength because total force can be calculated from the following equation:

[tex]Total Force=PCSA*SpecificTension[/tex]

So, if you were reduced to half your size, your strength would double up

A client with angina is preparing to go home with a prescription for nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker. what should the client be taught?

Answers

The client should be advised not to take the drugs with grapefruit. This is because grapefruit increases the absorption of the drug in the blood. This results to an increase in the level of serum. In this condition the monitoring of blood should be frequent.

Which is the correctly accented pronunciation of coccygeal?

Answers

it would be coccygeal (Cok - si - jil)

The correct pronunciation of 'coccygeal' is kɑk'si'dʒil.

kɑk'si'dʒil word originates from the term 'coccyx,' which refers to the small, triangular bone at the base of the spinal column in humans, commonly known as the tailbone.

In the word 'coccygeal,' the primary stress falls on the second syllable 'si.' So, when you say 'coccygeal,' you emphasize the 'si' part more strongly.

'kok' - rhymes with 'sock', the first 'k' is hard, like in 'cat'.

'si' - pronounced as 'see', and this is the stressed syllable.

'dʒil' - the 'dʒ' sounds like the 'g' in 'giraffe' and 'il' like 'eel'.

Which statement best describes why food webs consist of many food chains put together? A. All animals are carnivores. B. All living things eventually die and decompose. C. Most organisms eat more than one thing. D. Animals that live in water are never eaten by land animals.

Answers

Answer:

The answer is C. Most organisms eat more the one thing.

Explanation:

The statement that best describes why food webs consist of many food chains put together is that most organisms eat more than one thing. Therefore, option (C) is correct.

What are food webs?

A food web is a graphical representation of the complex feeding relationships and energy flow between different organisms within an ecosystem. It consists of multiple interconnected food chains that illustrate how energy and nutrients move through an ecosystem.

This means that many organisms have multiple feeding relationships, and thus participate in multiple food chains within an ecosystem. This is because many organisms are not restricted to eating only one type of food or prey. Rather, they may consume a variety of different organisms or food sources, allowing for complex interconnections between different food chains. In addition, some organisms can occupy multiple trophic levels, depending on what they are eating or being eaten by, further contributing to the complexity of food webs.

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It is not until the final period of prenatal development, the _____ stage, that the developing child becomes easily recognizable.

Answers

The correct answer is the fetal stage.

 It is not until the final period of prenatal development at the fetal stage, where the developing child becomes easily recognizable. The fetal stage formally starts when differentiation of major organs occurs.
 It is also in the fetal stage where the child undergoes astoundingly rapid change and increases 20 times in size, for example, dramatic changes in weight and proportion. By three months the fetus urinates and swallows, hands and arms develop, nails and fingers develop.
 The Fetus is termed as the term for a developing child from eight weeks after conception until birth.

A new wastewater treatment plant opens in an area where raw sewage used to be dumped directly into a bay. Which two types of pollution will be reduced the most by the new plant?
A. Toxic and sediment
B. Sediment and bacterial
C. Toxic and nutrient
D. Bacterial and nutrient

Answers

D. Bacterial and nutrient

The correct answer is option D

If a new waste water treatment plant is opened in an area it will be full of bacterial toxin and nutrient.

Sewage usually contains bacteria and nutrients and is directly discharged into the bay.

The bacterial toxin and nutrients can cause different kinds of infection and form algal bloom in water respectively.

Excessive nutrients in water will lead to the growth of algae in the water and will decrease the oxygen content of water in later days.

In a hypothetical population of 1000 frogs there exists a gene, d, with two alleles (d and d). 280 of the frogs are homozygous dominant (dd), and 220 are homozygous recessive (dd). what is the frequency of heterozygotes in the population?

Answers

To answer this question, subtract from the total population of 1000 the homozygous dominant (DD) frogs of 280 and the homozygous recessive (dd) frogs of 220, and you are left with 500 frogs that by default are heterozygotes (dD). The frequency of these frogs would be 500/1000 = 0.5

Answer:

The frequency of heterozygotes is 0.5

Explanation:

The frequency of heterozygotes can be get from the Weinberg equation:

p + q = 1

The number of individuals = 1000

The frequencies of dominant (DD) = q = 280/1000 = 0.28

The frequencies of recessive (dd) = p = 220/1000 = 0.22

The frequency of heterozygotes is equal to:

q + p = 0.28 + 0.22 = 0.5

Two equal body masses are accelerated, but body a's acceleration one-fourth of body b's. what is the force of body b on body a

Answers

body b will have a force 4 times stronger than body a, causing body b to reverse the direction of body a

Final answer:

The force of body B on body A is equal in magnitude and opposite in direction to the force of body A on body B, according to Newton's Third Law of Motion, regardless of their difference in acceleration.

Explanation:

The question relates to Newton's Second Law of Motion, which states that the force acting on an object is equal to the mass of the object multiplied by its acceleration (F=ma). Given that body A's acceleration is one-fourth of body B's acceleration, and assuming they have equal masses, we can deduce that the force acting on body A is also one-fourth of the force acting on body B due to their proportional relationship as outlined in Newton's Second Law. However, according to Newton's Third Law of Motion, for every action, there's an equal and opposite reaction. Therefore, the force of body B on body A is equal in magnitude and opposite in direction to the force of body A on body B.

This means, regardless of the difference in acceleration between bodies A and B, the force exerted by body B on body A will be equal to the force exerted by body A on body B, maintaining equality in force magnitudes between the two bodies but in opposing directions.

Which of the following is likely the direct source of energy to move the sailboat? A, sun B. Wind. C. Moving sails D, Moving water

Answers

The direct source of energy to move the sailboat is probably wind, since wind is what pushes the sail of the sailboat, which is what propels the sailboat forward. 

Hope this helps!

Answer:

The most likely would be wind!

Explanation:

The wind will push the sail on the boat along the water. Although moving water can make a difference the most direct source of energy would be the wind!

Hope this helps!

how do oceanographers define salinity

Answers

 number of grams of salt per kilogram of water

Nearsightedness, farsightedness, and astigmatism are all caused by an abnormally shaped retina.
a. True
b. False

Answers

B false because it the cornea

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Many different types of mutations can occur within the body. Sickle cell anemia is a disease that occurs when a mutation in a base pair of the hemoglobin beta gene causes a single replacement of the amino acid glutamic acid by the amino acid valine.
As a result of this mutation, the individual’s blood cells take on a sickle shape under certain conditions and form clusters that can block blood vessels and cause organ damage.Which type of mutation causes sickle cell anemia?
A.) silent
B.) missense
C.) insertion
D.) frameshift

Answers

Answer:

B

Explanation:

Sickle cell anemia is a mutation of the red blood cells, caused by a missense mutation of the beta-haemoglobin gene.

This mutation is known as a missense mutation because it mistakes one amino acid, for another. Instead of having the codon read GAG, which codes for glutamic acid, the codon mutates to read GUG, which codes for the amino acid valine.

This seemingly small mutation, has a major overall effect on the structure of the beta-haemoglobin protein that is formed.

The other options explained:

A silent mutation happens when a codon changes, but the overall outcome leads to the same amino acid being produced (CUU and CUA both code for the amino acid leucine).

An insertion mutation happens when a nucleotide is unintentionally added into the chain of nucleotides. This can also lead to a frame-shift mutation, depending on the number of nucleotides have been added. Due to the fact that codons are read in sets of three, if three nucleotides are added next to each other, then that insertion mutation will have the effect of adding another amino acid to the chain, without changing anything else. However, if only one or two nucleotides are added, this insertion causes a frame-shift mutation which can alter the amino acids that come after it.

throughout history which of these is an ecological impact associated with agriculture

Answers

which of what? could you be more clear?

To reduce the likelihood of back pain, use a safe ______ technique. A. Lifting B. Sitting C. Standing D. Lying

Answers

The correct answer is A. Lifting

Answer: Lifting

Explanation:

To reduce the back pain you must know how to lift the objects in a proper position. This is necessary to reduce the effect of the weight of the object.

Bending and uplifting the object in a wrong position can affect your back in a very bad way. So, it is important to keep your posture appropriate while lifting.

Lifting in a wrong position can increase the chances of back injury or back pain.

what 3 animals be affected if owls were removed from the food chain

Answers

I think mice , birds , snakes ( I pretty sure they eat mice , I know their a member of the bird family and I'm guessing snakes

Answer:

Rabbits, mice, and snakes will probably increase since one of their predators is gone.

Which is the purpose of transfer RNA?
A.) to code for protein synthesis
B.) to carry the synthesized genetic information from the nucleus to the ribosomes
C.) to synthesize proteins from RNA
D.) to bring amino acids to the ribosomes to be assembled into proteins.
First, & best answer gets 5 stars.

Answers

to bring amino acids to the ribosomes to be assembled into proteins

Final answer:

The purpose of transfer RNA (tRNA) is to bring amino acids to the ribosomes to be assembled into proteins.

Explanation:

The purpose of transfer RNA is to bring amino acids to the ribosomes to be assembled into proteins. RNA is a type of RNA molecule that carries a specific amino acid and recognizes the corresponding codon in messenger RNA during protein synthesis. By bringing the amino acids to the ribosomes, helps in the process of protein synthesis.

So the correct option is D.

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Part a when an ectopic pacemaker leads to an extrasystole, the ______.

Answers

When the ectopic pacemaker leads to an extrasystole, the ventricles seem to contract before the atria contracts.

When an ectopic pacemaker leads to an extrasystole, the electrical signals that control the heartbeat originate from a different location than the sinoatrial (SA) node. This can cause a premature contraction, known as an extrasystole, which is an extra heartbeat that occurs outside the normal rhythm.



Here's a step-by-step explanation:

1. Normally, the SA node, located in the right atrium of the heart, acts as the natural pacemaker. It generates electrical signals that initiate each heartbeat.

2. However, in some cases, an ectopic pacemaker may become active. An ectopic pacemaker is an abnormal region of the heart that can generate electrical signals independently of the SA node.

3. When an ectopic pacemaker becomes active, it can initiate an extrasystole. This means that an additional electrical signal is generated, causing an extra contraction of the heart muscle.

4. The extrasystole usually occurs earlier than the next expected heartbeat, disrupting the normal rhythm of the heart.

5. The origin of the extrasystole can vary, depending on the specific location of the ectopic pacemaker. For example, if the ectopic pacemaker is located in the ventricles, the extrasystole will be known as a ventricular extrasystole. If it originates in the atria, it will be called an atrial extrasystole.

6. Extrasystoles can be identified on an electrocardiogram (ECG) as abnormal or premature beats that deviate from the regular pattern.

In summary, when an ectopic pacemaker leads to an extrasystole, the electrical signals that control the heartbeat come from a different location than the SA node, causing an extra contraction of the heart outside the normal rhythm.

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Growing coffee bean plants quickly depletes farming soil of important nutrients. After several years of coffee bean production, the soil will become infertile. Which of the following is a consequence of soil infertility?

Answers

Soil infertility has the consequence of striping the soil of all of its nutrients. This prevents a farmer from growing anything in that area until the soil has had time to repair itself. This causes: -risk of famine - leads to farmers using toxic synthetic fertilizer go promote growthetc. 

A person calls the clinic and tells the primary health care provider, "last night i travelled to a ski resort located on the mountaintop. after arriving, i began to have difficulty breathing. i also have a headache, and i am very tired. is there a medication you can prescribe to help me?" which question does the nurse anticipate the primary health care provider will ask the patient before prescribing the appropriate treatment?

Answers

Health care provider will first ask the person who is claiming of a headache and not having enough breath that, if he has an asthma disease. If the person says no, the health care will ask him if in his family there is anyone who have ever recognized with asthma for the health care to be sure that the patient might not have been inheriting it from the family unknowingly.

exchange list defines group in terms of

Answers

macronutrient content and types of food.

Hope this helps!

-Payshence xoxo

____ on the blood determine a person’s blood type.

Answers

Ans.

A blood type or blood group of a person is determined by the antigen present on the surface of blood cell of that person. The antigen present on the cell surface may a carbohydrate, glycolipid, protein, or glycoprotein molecule. Humans show four blood groups, which are A, B, AB, and O on the basis of antigen present in their red blood cells.

Thus, the blank can be filled as 'antigens.'

Final answer:

Blood types are determined by the presence or absence of antigens on the surface of red blood cells. The ABO blood type system and Rh blood group are examples of antigen systems used to classify blood types.

Explanation:

Blood types are determined by the presence or absence of different proteins called antigens found on the surface of red blood cells.

For example, the ABO blood type system is based on the presence of two antigens, A and B, on the red blood cells. Individuals can have blood types A, B, AB, or O, depending on the combination of antigens they have. The Rh blood group is another antigen system, with individuals being either Rh positive or Rh negative based on the presence or absence of the Rh antigen.

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Now is the month of maying" is also called a ________ madrigal.

Answers

Ballet

It was written by Thomas Morley during 1959. The song is in bawdy double entendre. This is considered as a song for dancing during spring. The song is based on the canzonet So ben mi ch'a bon tempo used in 1950. This is one of the most famous English balletts, which is a light dance song that is similar to a madrigal. This forms a key part of Oxfords morning celebration.

Which option correctly defines a scientific argument?

a)a type of reasoning that moves from general to specific explanations

b)a logical description of how data-based evidence supports or does not support a hypothesis

c)a type of reasoning that moves from specific to general explanations a process that involves creating

d)a hypothesis and then proving it correct through experimentation

Answers

Answer:

The correct option is B. Scientific argument is a logical description of how data-based evidence supports or does not support a hypothesis

Explanation:

When a scientist or a group of scientists agree or disagree with a certain hypothesis, scientific arguments are generated. Scientific argumentation plays a very important role in science. Based on these arguments, researches are conducted and then rec- conducted. Scientific argument provides logical reasoning for a particular hypothesis to be correct or wrong. A researcher has to support his scientific argument with sufficient pieces of evidence and facts to make it acceptable.

What is the disadvantage of a shallow shoulder socket

Answers

The shallow shoulder socket makes the joint unstable, which makes the bone easy to dislocate.

Explain how this human impact on a forest ecosystem might affect the ability of some species to move to more suitable habitats as earth's climate changes

Answers

The possibility human impact refered to in the statement is deforestation. Deforestation is the widespread removal of trees and other vegetation from forested areas for purposes such as agriculture, road construction and other infrastructural development.

Removing sections of forest can create a disconnect between areas of the forest preventing species from moving and otherwise confining them to smaller regions of the forest.
Final answer:

Human activities that contribute to climate change can significantly affect the ability of various species to move to more suitable habitats. This is due to shifting climates and habitat loss. These environmental disruptions pose a major risk of species extinction.

Explanation:

Human impact on a forest ecosystem, particularly through activities that accelerate climate change, significantly affects the ability of some species to move to more suitable habitats. This is because climate change entails a shifting of colder climates towards the north and south poles, which forces species to move with their adapted climate norms while facing habitat gaps along the way. Habitat loss caused by human activities such as deforestation further exacerbates this problem. For example, the unprecedented contact between polar bears and grizzly bears due to overlapping ranges is a result of these climate shifts.

Additional impacts include changes in regional climates, including rainfall and snowfall patterns, making habitats less hospitable. Global warming also induces the melting and refreezing of the poles and higher elevation mountains—a cycle that has historically provided freshwater to environments—that may result in a shortage of freshwater. As earth's climate changes, these complex ecosystem disruptions threaten various species and potentially catalyze a major trend of species extinction.

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Can I get some help please?

P.S. Make sure you don't guess the answer.

Thanks!

Answers

i know for a fact letter b is correct as far as what the information states also c so the answer may be d

It is important to inspect tina's mouth thoroughly because oral cancers are most commonly found:

Answers

The most common type of cancer in the oral cavity is squamous cell carcinoma and the most common area of the oral cavity that is affected by cancers are the lips and tongue. A systematic physical examination of the oral cavity must be done to differentiate a benign lesion to a potentially malignant ones.
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