Answer:
Explanation:
Oxygen has low solubility in water, so very little O₂ can be delivered to tissues by simply being dissolved in blood plasma. Animals use carrier proteins to transport O₂. Red blood cells contain hemoglobin, which is the carrier protein used by vertebrates.
In contrast, most carbon dioxide produced by tissues is transported in the blood to the lungs as HCO₃⁻(bicarbonate ions).
The equilibrium equation for carbon dioxide in the blood is:
CO₂+ H₂O ↔ H₂CO₃ ↔ H⁺ + HCO₃⁻Carbonic acid
The conversion to bicarbonate ions keeps the partial pressure of CO₂ in the blood plasma low, facilitating diffusion away from the tissues.
The pH of the blood affects the process. As you can see in the equilibrium equation for CO₂, an increase of this gas results in a decrease of pH because of the formation of carbonic acid. The acidic pH decreases hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen, thus stimulating the release of O₂ to the tissues (that are producing a lot of CO₂ and need oxygen).This is known as the Bohr effect.
Hormones regulate the development of the male reproductive tract. Which hormone must be present during embryogenesis in order for the vas deferens, epididymis and seminal vesicles to form?
A. dihydrotestosterone
B. Estrogen
C. Anti-Mullerian hormone (AMH)
D. Testosterone
Answer: C. Anti-Mullerian hormone (AMH)
Explanation:
Anti- mullerian hormone is a kind of protein hormone. This is important for the development of the reproductive tract in the case of male fetus. It is produced by the testes as well as by the ovaries. It specifically aids in the development of the male reproductive system specifically the parts of the vas deferens, seminal vesicles and epididymis.
Final answer:
Testosterone is the hormone that must be present during embryogenesis for the formation of the vas deferens, epididymis, and seminal vesicles in males.
Explanation:
During embryogenesis, the presence of testosterone is required for the development of the vas deferens, epididymis, and seminal vesicles in males. Testosterone is secreted by Leydig cells in male embryos, and its release stimulates the growth of the male reproductive tract, known as the Wolffian duct. Without testosterone, the Wolffian duct will degrade, resulting in the development of female reproductive structures. The influence of testosterone during embryonic development extends beyond the male reproductive organs, also affecting the differentiation of the external genitalia and the descent of the testes.
The small, leaf-shaped cartilage behind the tongue and hyoid bone is the:
a. cricoid cartilage.
b. thyroid cartilage.
c. corniculate cartilage.
d. epiglottis.
Answer:
The correct option is: D. epiglottis
Explanation:
The epiglottis is a cartilaginous leaf-shaped structure of the larynx that is composed of elastic cartilage. It's shape is similar to the shape of the purslane leaf and is found in the throat of a human, behind the tongue and the hyoid bone.
It prevents the food from entering the trachea and is covered with the mucous membrane.The stem of epiglottis is attached to the thyroid cartilage.
Which of the following is not a postabsorptive state reaction?
a) Breakdown of liver glycogen
b) Lipogenesis
c) Gluconeogensis using lactic acid
d) Gluconeogensis using amino acids
e) None of the above
Answer: b) Lipogenesis
Explanation:
The postabsorptive state reaction is a reaction which occurs in the state of fasting. In this postabsorptive state the digestive tract remains empty as a result of this the breakdown of the body reserves takes place.
All except the lipogenesis is not the postabsorptive state reaction. This is because of the fact that lipogenesis involves the synthesis of the fatty acids and lipids from typically the carbohydrates and other substances.
Lipogenesis is not a postabsorptive state reaction; it occurs during the absorptive state when the body is converting excess energy into fat for storage.
Explanation:The question asks which of the following is not a postabsorptive state reaction. During the postabsorptive state, the body primarily focuses on providing energy by breaking down stored reserves, such as glycogenolysis (the breakdown of liver glycogen), and gluconeogenesis using lactic acid or amino acids to create new glucose molecules. Therefore, options a), c), and d) are reactions that occur during the postabsorptive state. However, lipogenesis (option b) is the process of synthesizing fats from acetyl CoA, which primarily occurs during the absorptive state, when the body is storing excess energy. So, b) Lipogenesis is the correct choice as it is not a postabsorptive state reaction.
Name and describe the functional unit of the kidney. Summarize the functions of each part.
Answer:
The structural and functional unit of the kidney is nephron. Each kidney consists of two parts a renal corpuscle which is the site for blood filtration and renal tubule in which filtrate enters and passes through.
Renal tubule is divided into PCT(proximal convoluted tubule), loop of Henle (nephron loop) and DCT(distal convoluted tubule).
Function of nephron
1. Renal corpuscle: It is made up of two component glomerulus(tuft of capillaries) and bowman's capsule. Glomerulus is having pores in its membrane called fenestrae through which blood is filtered into the bowmen's capsule.
2. PCT: The function of PCT is mostly to reabsorb the materials from filtrate by active and passive transport. Absorption of glucose, amino acids, hormones, vitamins, and ions takes place in this segment.
3. Henle loop: It contains ascending and descending loop. The descending loop is permeable to water and ascending loop is permeable to ions. So reabsorption of water and ions like sodium takes place in this region.
4. DCT: Here reabsorption of ions takes place and it is mostly impermeable to water and it opens into collecting duct.
The functional unit of the kidney is the nephron, composed of the Renal Corpuscle, Proximal Convoluted Tubule, Loop of Henle, Distal Convoluted Tubule, and the Collecting Duct. Each part has its specific functions in filtration, reabsorption and regulating the pH balance of urine.
Explanation:The functional unit of the kidney is the nephron. Each kidney has several millions of these tiny filtration units. The nephron is composed of various parts, namely: the Renal Corpuscle (Bowman's Capsule and Glomerulus), Proximal Convoluted Tubule, Loop of Henle, Distal Convoluted Tubule, and the Collecting Duct.
Renal Corpuscle: It is the initial blood-filtering component of a nephron. It consists of two parts: Bowman's Capsule and the Glomerulus. The latter is a network of tiny blood capillaries that perform the initial filtration of blood.Proximal Convoluted Tubule: It absorbs glucose, sodium ions, and other essential nutrients that are suspended in the fluid passing through it.Loop of Henle: Here, a large amount of water and sodium ions are reabsorbed into the blood.Distal Convoluted Tubule: It regulates the pH of urine by either secreting hydrogen ions into it or absorbing bicarbonate from it.Collecting Duct: It reabsorbs water from the urine, concentrating it and maintaining the balance of body fluids.Learn more about Nephron here:https://brainly.com/question/34373044
#SPJ6
Release of the secondary oocyte occurs on about day_(number) of the ovarian cycle in most women.
Answer:
The correct answer will be- fourteenth day of ovarian cycle.
Explanation:
The secondary oocyte is the cellular stage of the reproductive cells which can be easily distinguished as the cells are present at the metaphase-II of the cell division.
The secondary oocytes are gets matured in the pre-ovulatory phase after which they are released from the follicle on the fourteenth day of the cycle. This fourteenth-day phase is known as the ovulatory phase.
Thus, the fourteenth day of the ovarian cycle is the correct answer.
Male external genitalia do not develop
A. In the presence of an X chromosome.
B. Without androgen secretion by the fetal testes
C. Without prior regression of the Mullerian ducts
D. If Wolffian ducts develop.
E. In the absence of estrogen in the fetus.
Answer:
The correct answer is option B. Without androgen secretion by the fetal testes
Explanation:
Androgen secretion by the fetal testis is important for male external genitalia development or sexual differentiation. Testosterone especially has a major role in the development of the testes, prostate and other cells and tissue responsible for the development of the reproductive organs and external genitalia.
Androgen mainly testosterone is metabolized and DHT is required for androgen-induced development of the external genitalia.
Thus, the correct answer is option B. Without androgen secretion by the fetal testes.
A sticky transparent substance found on the teeth and should be removed daily.
Answer: Plaque
Explanation:
A plaque is squashy film (substance) that generally forms on our teeth, comprised of numerous millions of bacteria. These bacteria are very effective and it can cause the tooth to decay, gum disease and several other types of dental problems. They are needed to be eliminated everyday by brushing teeth and cleaning it.
It occurs all over the mouth, but it usually gets concentrated in and around the deeper and narrower molar openings.
It forms when the food particles remained attached to the teeth and gums, and causes a stinky smell.
Explain why a person with nephrotic syndrome develops edema.
Answer:
Nephrotic syndrome is a group of signs and symptoms due to kidney damage.
It is characteristic:
- Proteinuria (>3,5 g per 1,73m2 body surface area per day)
- Hypoalbuminemia (<2,5 g/dl)
- Hyperlipidemia
- Edema (the first signs can be seen in the face)
The edema is caused due to the hypoalbuminemia. When oncotic pressure drops, fluid tends to accumulate in interstitial tissues, leaving intravascular space. In response to the dropped volume in intravascular space, the kidneys tends to retain water and sodium, this also contribute to edema developing.
Which of the following is the most common eating disorder?
a. Anorexia nervosa
b. Bulimia nervosa
c. Binge-eating disorder
d. Pica
Answer:
The correct option is: C. Binge eating disorder
Explanation:
Binge eating disorder is a type of eating disorder which is characterized by recurrent episodes of binge eating. This eating disorder includes food addiction and compulsive overeating. The common symptoms of this disorder includes uncontrollable and rapid eating, without feeling hungry, and feeling unhappy, depressed and guilty because of it.
Binge eating disorder is the most prevalent or the most common eating disorder.
During the contraction phase of the cardiac cycle, the heart
a. pumpls blood to the body
b. repolarizes
c. rests and recovers
d. refills
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-A.
Explanation:
The cardiac cycle of the heart is divided into two phases: contraction (systole) and relaxation (diastole).
The atria and ventricles of the heart contract simultaneously in response to the impulse generated in the SA node. The contraction of the atria and ventricles push the blood or pumps the blood.
The atrial systole pumps blood to ventricles whereas the ventricular systole pumps blood to the body parts.
Thus, option-A is the correct answer.
The left ventricle pumps blood to the
A) right ventricle.
B) right atrium.
C) pulmonary circuit.
D) aorta.
E) lungs.
Answer:
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
During cardiac cycle, when the left ventricle is full, mitral valve closes to prevent blood to flow backwards into the atrium while the ventricle contracts. This is the end of diastole and the beginning of systole.
The left ventricle contracts and blood flows through aortic valve into the aorta and to de body. The closure of aortic valve establishes systole end.
Discuss the mechanisms and consequences of ADH and aldosterone on the kidneys, in detail.
Answer:
Anti-diuretic hormone or ADH is a hormone which helps in reabsorption of water, maintaining blood volume, blood pressure and homeostasis in the body.
Aldosterone is the hormone which helps in the reabsorption of the electrolyte in the tubules of the kidney.
Aldosterone acts by opening the ion channels which allow the re-absorption of electrolytes like Na⁺ ions, Cl⁻ ions whereas ADH acts by opening the aquaporin-2 channels in the collecting duct which allow the absorption of water molecules from the solution.
These hormone helps forms the concentrated urine as the electrolyte and water get re-absorbed.
An intestinal hormone that stimulates the gallbladder to release bile is
A) secretin.
B) gastrin.
C) enteropeptidase.
D) GIP.
E) cholecystokinin.
Answer:
The correct answer is E) cholecystokinin
Explanation:
cholecystokinin is a peptide hormone which is secreted by the duodenum of small intestine and stimulates the gall bladder to release bile into the small intestine. cholecystokinin give signals to gall bladder to contract which results in the secretion of stored bile from gall bladder into the small intestine through common bile duct.
cholecystokinin also stimulates the secretion of pancreatic enzymes from pancreas. So cholecystokinin plays important role in digestion of food inside the small intestine by facilitating the secretions from gall bladder and pancreas into small intestine.
The function of hemoglobin is to
A) carry oxygen.
B) carry carbon dioxide.
C) aid in the process of blood clotting.
D) A, B, and C
E) A and B only
Answer: E) A and B only
Explanation:
Hemoglobin can be define as red color protein which consists of iron group in the red blood cells. It carries oxygen to all the organs of the body and tissues and transports carbon dioxide from all the tissues and organs back to the lungs so that the carbon dioxide get expelled out of the body. It helps in transport of gases (carbon dioxide and oxygen). But does not help in clotting of blood.
Describe the epiglottis.
Answer:
Explanation:
The epiglottis is the flap in the throat which allows the entry of the food inside the windpipe and the lungs. This flap is composed of elastic cartilage that actually covers the mucous membrane. It is attached to the entrance of the larynx. It is situated and projected upwards typically can be seen behind the tongue as well as the hyoid bone that typically point dorsally. It's function is to seal off the windpipe during the process of eating of food, so as to prevent the inhalation of food.
It means inflammation
Select one:
a. -osteo
b. -ectomy
c. -ostomy
d. -itis
Answer:
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Osteo is a prefix, which is use to mean bone or bone related: osteogenesis, osteomyelitis, osteoporosis, etc.
-ecotmy is a suffix, refers to removal of something surgically: adenectomy, diverticulectomy, embolectomy, etc.
-ostomy is a suffix, refers to a surgical creation of an opening in an organ: gastrostomy, colostomy, etc.
Drugs that are the most effective at treating overactive bladder increase _____________ activity
Answer:
The best answer for the statement: Drugs that are most effective at treating overactive bladder increase:___ activity, would be: anticholinergic activity
Explanation:
Overactive bladder (OAB) is a condition in which, due to disordered firing of the nerves in the bladder walls, and also constant stimulation by ACH (acetylcholine), the neurotransmitter of the central nervous system that activates smooth and skeletal muscles, a person may constantly feel the need to urinate, even if the bladder has not filled to full capacity. It can become a really difficult condition to treat, but before using medication, there are a lot of non-pharmacological treatments that are used in preference to actual chemical substances. However, when these therapies do not work, doctors will prescribe anti-cholinergic medication, which block muscarinic receptors in the muscle walls of the bladder, and thus prevent these walls from reacting to ACH. The end result is to reduce the sense of urination urgency and increase bladder retention and capacity.
Drugs for overactive bladder increase parasympathetic activity which is achieved by acting as antimuscarinics or beta-3 adrenergic agonists. These mechanisms relax the bladder muscles and help control an overactive bladder.
Explanation:Drugs that are most effective at treating overactive bladder function primarily by increasing parasympathetic activity. This action is achieved by the drug acting as antimuscarinics, inhibiting the activity of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors in the bladder. This causes relaxation of the bladder muscle. An example of such a drug is oxybutynin. It is important to note this effect as overactivity of the bladder is often due to an overactive parasympathetic nervous system.
However, some drugs called beta-3 adrenergic agonists such as mirabegron can also effectively treat overactive bladder by relaxing the bladder muscle to prevent sudden, involuntary contractions. They work by stimulating the beta-3 adrenergic receptors in the bladder. This in turn increases the bladder's capacity to hold urine, reduces the frequency of urination, and helps to control an overactive bladder.
Learn more about Overactive Bladder here:https://brainly.com/question/34382537
#SPJ12
What are some of the considerations this hospital must make when
deciding on acquiring an EHR?
Answer:
First, it is important to understand what an EHR is. EHR is defined as an Electronic Health Record. This system is a computarized software that will enable a practice, or a hospital institution to store health information and data from the population that it tends to, including personal information, and health data. Because an EHR will become the storing systematized site of such vulnerable, vital information, it is crucial that organization take a lot of precautions when selecting the software they will use. These are some of the considerations to take into account:
1. Evaluate the software design. Since it will be people who will operate the system, it is invaluable that organizations measure if the software is easy enough to use, intuitive enough, that people will adapt to it, without much problem. Also, it will allow them to know how much support it will need, to decrease danger of information being exposed.
2. Evluate the vendor. Reputation is a must given the sensibility of the information being recorded and used. Thus, organizations need to choose a vendor that will give the hospital what it needs, and all the support it may need once the system becomes operational.
3. Costs. How expensive the system will be, if it will fit most of the hospital wards and departments, how much training will the system require so the staff can use it, what kind of technical support will be required, etc.
4. Customization: Since not all EHR systems can fit everyone, it is vital to learn about how easy it would be to customize the system, before it is implemented.
5. Evaluate if the system chosen really meets the goals of the institution or not. If they do not, then, choose another that fits better.
The nurse is obtaining the vitals of a 76-year-old African
American male patient. The nurse notes that the BP of the right arm
is 187/98 and of the left arm is 201/76. What would cause the
difference in the right arm vs. the left. Is this Blood pressure
anticipated or unanticipated for the patient?
Answer:
In general, epidemiologically speaking, it is known that in African Americans the tendency is towards suffering hypertensive disease. So encountering pressures above 140/90 mmHg is not an uncommon thing, though not what should be. And blood pressures above that level are considered uncommonly high and need to be treated because this will affect the brain, and most particularly the kidneys. Hypertension is also very common in senior African Americans.
Given this introduction, the answers to the questions would be:
1. The cause for the great difference between the blood pressure of the right arm (187/98) and that of the left arm (201/76) is an advancement of the cardiovascular disease affecting the patient. It means that the arm where the higher number in the systolic pressure happened, is probably presenting with an obstruction of some kind, making the issue of higher blood pressure, even worse.
2. Although as said before, hypertension is an epidemiologic reality in African Americans, and especially in seniors, so it is expected that the patient will have an elevated BP, over the expected norm. However, the two pressures obtained on different arms indicates that there is something going on, as the elevation over the baseline for hypertensive patients has been overcome in systolic pressure by much more than 10 mmHg. This patient will need immediate intervention.
Answer:
the minute difference in systolic pressure in both arms is anticipated. However, the huge pressure difference in diastolic pressure in both arms is unanticipated.
Explanation:
If the difference in BP reading between both arms is more than 15 mm Hg and the difference is consistent, it indicates some issue. The pumping of blood from the heart to left arm has more pressure as compared to the right arm and it is normal if the difference in systolic pressure in both arms is less than 10 mm Hg. The diastolic pressure shall remain same in both arms because the blood is not pumped directly into the diastole. The diastolic BP tells about the arterial pressure and it should be low so that the heart does not have increase its pumping speed in order to compensate the diastolic pressure.
The African-American patient does not any unanticipated increase in systolic pressure in both arms as the left arm systolic pressure is usually higher. However, the difference in diastolic pressure in both arms has a difference of more than 20 mm Hg which is alarming. This might be a sign of some blocked artery or peripheral artery disease, diabetes, kidney disease or some heart defect.
Kidney stones have many causes. The stones are commonly composed of all the following substances, except:
a)Calcium
b)Uric acid
c)Cystine
d)Bile
Answer: Bile
Explanation:
Kidney stones can be defined as substances which is formed by the accumulation of different substances to form a stone.
The chemical nature of the stone depends on the chemical imbalance that is found inside urine.
There are almost 5 common types of stone which is made of calcium oxalate, calcium phosphate, cystine, uric acid and struvite.
Hence, the correct answer is option D
Final answer:
The substances that commonly compose kidney stones include calcium, uric acid, and cystine, but not bile. Bile is a digestive fluid that does not form kidney stones.
Explanation:
Kidney Stones Composition
Kidney stones are commonly composed of substances found in the urine that become highly concentrated. The major types of kidney stones include:
Calcium oxalate stones: They are the most common type, often associated with low-calcium diets.
Uric acid stones: These form in people with conditions like gout, which result in high uric acid levels.
Cystine stones: Related to cystinuria, a condition where cystine is accumulated in the urine.
However, kidney stones are not composed of bile. Bile is a digestive liquid produced by the liver, not a substance that forms kidney stones.
The correct answer to the student's question is d) Bile.
Which air passageways do not have cartilage and can collapse: bronchi, bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveoli?
Answer:
The correct answer choices to the question: Which air passageways do not have cartilage and can collapse:___, would be: the bronchioles, alveolar ducts and alveoli.
Explanation:
From the third branching of the bronchi, onwards towards the lungs, the cartilage that covers these structures are lost, as their purpose is to allow the flawless flow of air into the lungs, and the expulsion of CO2 from them. Because air pressure, and different pressure gradients ensure that the exchange of oxygen and CO2 takes place within the lungs, this can only be ensured with expansion of the lungs, chest cavity and of course the alveoli and alveolar ducts, where most of the exchange takes place. This is why cartilage is not a part of any of these three structures.
Which of the following symptoms is characteristic of bulimia nervosa?
a. Episodes of extreme overeating
b. Self-starvation
c. Both episodes of extreme overeating and self-starvation
d. None of these
Bulimia nervosa is characterized by episodes of extreme overeating, followed by actions to prevent weight gain. It does not typically involve self-starvation, which is more indicative of anorexia nervosa.
Explanation:The symptom characteristic of bulimia nervosa is episodes of extreme overeating, followed by behaviors to prevent weight gain such as vomiting, excessive exercise or use of laxatives. This pattern of overeating and then purging is a key symptom in diagnosing this disorder. Self-starvation is more representative of anorexia nervosa, not bulimia nervosa. Therefore, the correct answer is a. Episodes of extreme overeating. Although self-starvation (also known as anorexia nervosa) is a common symptom in another eating disorder, it is not characteristic of bulimia nervosa.
Learn more about Bulimia Nervosa here:https://brainly.com/question/31716847
#SPJ6
The distinguishing symptom of bulimia nervosa is episodes of extreme overeating, not self-starvation.
Explanation:The symptom that is characteristic of bulimia nervosa is episodes of extreme overeating. Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder marked by episodes of binge eating (consuming a lot of food in a short time) followed by inappropriate behaviors such as self-induced vomiting to avoid weight gain. While self-starvation, or the extreme restriction of food intake, is associated with another type of eating disorder known as Anorexia Nervosa.
Learn more about bulimia nervosa here:https://brainly.com/question/32013975
#SPJ6
Explain how you would create a medical intervention to help a person dealing with severe sensorineural or conductive hearing loss.
To help a person dealing with severe sensorineural or conductive hearing loss, medical interventions such as hearing aids and cochlear implants can be used.
Explanation:To create a medical intervention for severe sensorineural or conductive hearing loss, different approaches can be used. For conductive hearing loss, hearing aids can be used to amplify sound vibrations, while for sensorineural hearing loss, cochlear implants can stimulate the nerves directly. Hearing aids press against the bone behind the ear to partially overcome conductive loss. Cochlear implants are widely accepted and work by stimulating the nerves in the cochlea. Over 100,000 implants are currently in use.
Learn more about medical interventions for hearing loss here:https://brainly.com/question/28936608
#SPJ12
Which of the following types of fluoride are typically used in the dental office?
a. fluoride varnish
b. acidulated phosphase
c. neutral sodium
d. all of the above.
Answer:
The correct answer to the question: Which of the following types of fluoride are typically used in the dental office, would be, D: All of the above.
Explanation:
When going to the dentist, for mouth care, it is normal for these professionals to use certain chemicals to ensure not just the removal of bacteria that can cause caries, but also to ensure the total health of the mouth cavity. According to the American Dental Association, the use of fluoride substances is allowed, but there are only a few choices available. As such, the types allowed are neutral sodium fluorides in foam, gels and varnish, as well as acidulated phosphate, also in gels and foams.
Recovery from a severe metabolic acidosis is most dependent on which of the following?
A. The rate of ventilation to blow off excess CO2
B. The rate of H+ secretion by the kidney
C. The rate of H+ excretion by the kidney
D. The arterial pH
E. The arterial PCO2
Answer:
The best answer to the question: Recovery from a severe metabolic acidosis is most dependent on which of the following? would be, D: Arterial pH.
Explanation:
When a person reaches such a severe situation, as having metabolic acidosis, then it means that his body systems are not being able to use the mechanisms to restore the normal acid-base balance within it. Normally, a person needs to have an acid-base balance of 7.35 to 7.45. Drops below or above these numbers will result in acidosis or alkalosis and in severe problems. The way that the body can tell if there is something going on with the pH levels in the blood is through a series of chemoreceptors, especially in the neck, that constantly measures the amount of CO2 molecules in the blood and especially, the pH (acidity or alkalinity) given by the excessive presence, or absence, of acids in the blood. There is another ration that is important for the body, and it is the presence of bicarbonate ions, which will help balance out the amount of H+ ions produced by normal cell function, or increased cell function. In metabolic acidosis, the amount of H+ vs. bicarbonate ions is immense, H+ winning by far over bicarnonate, and a series of steps are taken by the body to restore the 20:1 ratio, and especially return the pH to its normal range. All mechanisms point towards that one measure: pH. Once the level of pH has been reached, we can tell a person is finally coming out of metabolic, or recovering from, metabolic acidosis.
The human liver is composed of ________ lobe(s).
A) two
B) three
C) one
D) four
E) two large, four small
E, Two large and four small is the correct answer
The human liver consists of four lobes: right, left, inferior quadrate, and posterior caudate. Hence the correct answer is D.
A large right lobe, a smaller left lobe, an inferior quadrate lobe, and a posterior caudate lobe. These lobes make up the structure of the liver, with each lobe containing lobules consisting of millions of hepatic cells.
A patients pulse oximetry reading is 92%. What is the best
method of oxygen administration for this patient?
Answer:
A low flow oxygen supply
Explanation:
92% is the threshold for hypoxia, meaning that below 92% a person may need Oxygen supply. Depending of each patient's level of saturation, there are different types of devices and pressures, the lower the Oxygen concentration the more the pressure needed, for 92% a patient may require a low pressure system, such as nasal cannula for supply from 24 to 40% of Oxygen concentration. The second option is a face mask, which provides between 28% and 50%.
The chamber within a tooth that contains blood vessels and nerves is the
A) pulp cavity.
B) periodontium.
C) cementum.
D) dentin.
E) enamel.
Answer:
The correct answer is A) pulp cavity
Explanation:
Pulp cavity is present in the center of the tooth and is a soft portion which contains connective tissue, blood vessels and nerves. These nerves enters from the root of tooth and reaches to pulp cavity.
As the pulp cavity contains nerves it plays important part in sensory function and is responsible sensation of pain, temperature and pressure. Tooth cavity is located deep in the tooth so they are protected from any infection.
Infection can occur if any damage to tooth enamel and dentin occurs. Both pulp cavity and dentin is made by dental papilla and together called endodontium.
The chamber within a tooth that contains blood vessels and nerves is the A) pulp cavity.
It is surrounded by a layer of dentin and is covered at the crown by enamel. The pulp within this cavity provides the necessary nutrients and innervation for the tooth.
Other structures mentioned in the options include:
Periodontium – the supportive tissue around the teeth.Cementum – a bony substance that covers the root of the tooth.Dentin – a bone-like material under the enamel and cementum.Enamel – the hard outer layer covering the crown of the tooth.Describe and provide justification for three research questions
that you would like to see answered regarding technology based
teaching strategies and/or distance education.
Answer:
Explanation:
The three questions are as follows:
1. Will the technology based and distance education system is as effective as that of the conventional classroom program?
2. Is technology based teaching and distance education is affordable and reliable method for learning?
3. What is the impact of technology based teaching strategies and distance education on learning society?
The direct trigger to ovulation seems to be a
A. Sharp increase in LH production on approximately day 13 of the menstrual cycle.
B. Sharp increase in FSH production on approximately day 13 of the menstrual cycle.
C. Sharp increase in progesterone production on approximately day 13 of the menstrual cycle.
D. Sharp increase in prolactin production on approximately day 13 of the menstrual cycle.
E. The release of gonadotrophic hormone from the follicle.
Answer:
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
During the follicular phase of female cycle, estrogen produced by the dominant follicle stimulates LH secretion and LH concentration will keep raising until approximately day 13 of the cycle.
After approximately 24-36 hours from when LH reaches its peak level, ovulation occurs (it means that the dominant follicle has released an ovocyte).