Answer:
Linkage chromosomes may be defined as the chromosome present at the same chromosomes and has the ability to undergo the process of recombination. The linkage results in the production of recombinant gametes that differ from their parents.
Map distance may be defined as the distance between the two gene on a chromosome. The recombination frequency is equal to the map distance. For example: Gene A and B has the recombination frequency of 10%, this means there map distance is 10 mu.
During light reactions, ATP is produced when hydrogen ions move:
a. Down their concentration from the stroma into the thylakoid space
b. Against their concentration gradient from the stroma to the thylakoid space
c. Down their concentration gradient from the thylakoid space into the stroma
d. Against their concentration gradient from the thylakoid into the stroma
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-C.
Explanation:
Light-dependent reactions are the reaction of photosynthesis which takes place in the presence of light.
During light reaction, ATP and NADPH intermediates are produced which are utilized during the light-independent reaction. The main reactions that take place during light reactions are photolysis of water and ATP synthesis due to the electron transport chain.
Electron transport chain generates electrochemical gradient across the thylakoid membrane sue to the accumulation of protons in the thylakoid lumen and fewer protons in the stroma of the chloroplast.
This causes the osmotic movement of protons down their concentration gradient through ATP synthase. The movement if hydrogen ions take place from thylakoid lumen to stroma forming ATP molecules.
Thus, Option-C is the correct answer.
ATP is produced during the light reactions of photosynthesis when hydrogen ions move down their concentration gradient from the thylakoid space into the stroma, a process facilitated by ATP synthase.
Explanation:During the light reactions of photosynthesis, ATP is produced when hydrogen ions move down their concentration gradient from the thylakoid space into the stroma. This is a process known as chemiosmosis, which harnesses the passive diffusion of hydrogen ions from a high concentration within the thylakoid lumen to a lower concentration in the stroma. This movement of hydrogen ions through ATP synthase drives the synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate.
The correct answer to the question is:
c. Down their concentration gradient from the thylakoid space into the stroma
Adaptive radiations can be a direct consequence of three of the following four factors. Select the exception.
a. vacant ecological niches
b. genetic drift
c. colonization of an isolated region that contains suitable habitat and few competitor species
d. evolutionary innovation
Answer:
The correct answer is option b, that is, genetic drift.
Explanation:
Adaptive radiation refers to a procedure that exists in enhancing the diversity of life in the course of evolution. Various groups of species develop adaptive compositions to get adapt to the new surroundings and perform new ecological functions.
These give rise to many new species that get amended with various new ecological habitats. The adaptive radiation occupies the vacant ecological niches. It results in the development of new and diversified characteristics within the species that take place in the niches with appropriate habitat. Evolutionary innovation is also a direct outcome of the adaptive radiation.
Genetic drift is not a direct outcome of adaptive radiation, it refers to a process, which takes place in small populations, and because of certain chance incidences, the allele frequencies of populations modify with time.
In this condition, either some of the individuals become distinguished from the main population and turn into new species or a huge population suddenly gets diminished to a small population, and therefore, modification in allelic frequency takes place.
Genetic drift is the exception among the given factors as it doesn't directly cause adaptive radiation, which is often triggered by vacant ecological niches, colonization of isolated regions, and evolutionary innovations.
Explanation:Adaptive radiations occur when a species rapidly diversifies to fill various ecological niches. Factors contributing to adaptive radiation include vacant ecological niches, colonization of an isolated region with suitable habitat and few competitor species, and evolutionary innovations that allow exploiting different resources or environments. Among the options provided, genetic drift is the exception as it's a random change in allele frequencies that by itself does not cause adaptive radiation, although it might play a role in the divergence of populations over time.
Examples of Adaptive Radiation
Examples include the Hawaiian honeycreepers and Darwin's finches, where a founder species radiated into multiple species each adapted to different niches within isolated geographical locations like island archipelagos.
The Cortisol Receptor once activated turns on genes. Explain how this protein accomplishes this activity.
Answer:
The cortisol is generally nothing but a hormone of a steroid category, which is produced by the adrenal glands as a reciprocation to any type of stress or low concentrations of glucose in the blood, also called glucocorticoid. It plays an essential role in all the vertebrates as it is accountable for conducting various activities associated with the metabolism, cardiovascular system, homeostasis, and immunity.
The glucocorticoid receptors or the cortisol receptors are found to take place in the cytoplasm and carry the heat shock proteins alongside. When the hormone reaches these receptors and combines with them some modification in their conformation takes place, and two things occur, that is, the heat shock proteins are discharged, and a complex is produced by the hormone and the receptor, known as the G. R complex.
This complex exhibits the tendency to move into the cytoplasm and performs the process of translation and transcription by combining it with the DNA. Here, it again can do two kinds of activities, that is, via transactivation it can result in the expression of the inflammatory proteins in the cytoplasm or via transrepression, it can repress the similar proteins.
The recent loss of biodiversity on Earth stems from ___________
a. destruction of habitat
b. consumption by humans
c. effects of introduced species
d. global climate change
e. all of these factors contributed to the recent loss of biodiversity
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
The loss of biodiversity can be defined as the loss of beneficial plants and animals that is found in the environment.
The destruction of habitat of animals, hunting, introduction of invasive species has led to the loss of biodiversity in case of animals and plants.
The global climate change has also resulted in the loss of species, the increased consumption of plants, animals and many more sources has led to loss of biodiversity.
Hence, all of the given parameter encourages loss of biodiversity.
Answer:
The Correct answer is E
Explanation:
Causes of the Loss of Biodiversity
According to most sources, the major direct source of loss of Biodiversity are such as:
There are five main sources of loss of Biodiversity
Habitat alteration Invasive speciesOverharvestingPollutionAnd, Climate change is now considering as the fifth reason behind the loss of Biodiversity.
What is hypersensitivity? Allergies? Autoimmune disorders?
Answer:
Hypersensitivity is also known as intolerance which is defines as an unwanted reactions due to changes or interference with immune system for example allergies and autoimmunity. Hypersensitivity is the reaction of immune system that can be harmful and weakens once body.
Allergy is kind of hypersensitive reaction which is having fast response within few minutes rather than hours or days. In the case of allergies free antigens cross link with IgE on mast cells and basophils and releases vasoactive biomolecules. Few example of Allergies are anaphylaxis and asthma.
Autoimmune disorders are also a kind of hypersensitive reaction which occurs when body's immune system attacks own body cells mistakenly. few examples are Type 1 diabetes, Rheumatoid arthritis (RA), and Multiple sclerosis.
Using Chargaff's Rules, which of the following satements about genomic base content is TRUE?
a. Senior citizens have higher genomic AT content in their brains than 21 year olds.
b. Malnutrition has no significant effect on the genomic base pair content of a person's muscles.
c. Since GC base pairs are more stable than AT, Alaskans typically have slightly higher genomic GC contents than Floridians.
d. Human racial differences are reflected in increased genomic GC contertin native Americans as compared to Africans.
e. The genomic AT content in human lung tissue is equal to the AT content in shark gills
Answer:
The correct answer is option b. "Malnutrition has no significant effect on the genomic base pair content of a person's muscles".
Explanation:
Chargaff's Rules state that the content of nucleotides in the cells have a 1:1 ratio of pyrimidine and purine bases and the composition of DNA varies from one species to another but not within the same specie. Therefore according to Chargaff's Rules malnutrition has no significant effect on the genomic base pair content of a person's muscles, since no variation of the genomic base pair content should occur within the same person or specie.
How is photosynthesis similar in C4 plants and CAM plants?
a. In both cases, only photosystem I is used.
b. Both types of plants make sugar without the Calvin cycle.
c. In both cases, rubisco is not used to fix carbon initially.
d. Both types of plants make most of their sugar in the dark.
Answer:
In both cases, rubisco is not used to fix carbon initially (Ans C)
Explanation:
Photosynthesis is similar in C4 plants and CAM plants because they separate the light and dark reactions to reduce photorespiration. Plants which lives in dry and hot condition may be C4 plants and CAM plants have an alternative method of carbon fixation.
In C4 plants carbon dioxide is taken into the leaves through the stomata present in leaves but is converted to a 4 carbon molecule, then this molecule can be pumped to the deeper layer present on the leaves for the Calvin cycle to occur away from the presence of the oxygen.
CAM plants take in carbon dioxide at night time and convert them to other carbon molecules which can be stored in the vacuole. During the day time, CAM plants shut their stomata and instead utilize the carbon which was brought at night to reduce water loss and photorespiration.
During photorespiration plants shut their stomata and reduce the intake of CO2 and reduce water loss, with a limited amount of CO2, rubisco uses oxygen instead of CO2 in the dark reaction. (which is present in both C4 and CAM plants)
The key similarity between C4 and CAM plants is their mechanism of concentrating and fixing carbon dioxide prior to its entry into the Calvin cycle. C4 plants perform this process spatially across different cell types, while CAM plants perform it temporally, fixing carbon dioxide at night and performing the Calvin cycle during the day.
Explanation:Photosynthesis is similar in C4 plants and CAM plants notably in one key aspect, both use a specialized method to concentrate and fix carbon dioxide prior to its entry into the Calvin cycle. However, these processes are arranged slightly differently in each type of plant.
In a C4 plant, the carbon dioxide is initially fixed in the mesophyll cells to form a four-carbon compound (hence the name C4). This embraces the enzyme PEP carboxylase, which has a strong affinity for carbon dioxide and can function effectively even when its concentrations are low. This compound is then translocated to the bundle-sheath cells where the carbon dioxide is released and then enters the Calvin cycle.
In CAM plants (Crassulacean Acid Metabolism plants), the process is temporally divided. The plant fixes carbon dioxide into a four-carbon compound, similar to a C4 plant, but this occurs during the night when the stomata are open to reduce water loss. During the day, when the stomata are closed, the carbon dioxide is released from the four-carbon compound and enters the Calvin cycle. Hence, the processes revolve around the diurnal cycle to conserve water.
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The underlying structure of DNA is very simple, consisting of only four possible building blocks. a. How is it possible for DNA to carry complex genetic information if its structure is so simple? b. What are these building blocks? Can each block be subdivided into smaller units, and if so, what are they? What kinds of chemical bonds link the building blocks? c. How does the underlying structure of RNA differ from that of DNA?
Answer and Explanation:
a) Although the DNA is made up of only four possible building blocks, these blocks are combined from a 3 (form triplets of nitrogenous bases) giving rise to a large variety of nucleotide sequences that carry a large amount of genetic information.
b) DNA is a polymer formed by nucleotides, which we could consider as the building blocks.
Each of these nucleotides is, at the same time, formed by a carbohydrate, a nitrogenous base and a phosphate group (derived from phosphoric acid). The nitrogen base may be adenine (A), thymine (T), cytosine (C) or guanine (G).
The nitrogenous bases are located in a complementary manner between the two strands of DNA, with thymine-adenine being joined by a double bridge of hydrogen and cytosine-guanine by three hydrogen bonds.
Example of questions A and B: AAA, AAT, AAC, AAG, ATT, ACC, AGG, ATA, ACA, AGA, etc.
c) In RNA the carbohydrate that is present is ribonucleic acid while in DNA it is deoxyribonucleic acid.
In addition, in the RNA, the thymine nitrogenous base is replaced by the Uracil.
Pea seed color exists as green or yellow. We might say that "yellow" is an example of a (an)_ for seed color
a. genotype
b. allele
c. karyotype
d. homozygote
e. heterozygote
Answer:
b. allele
Explanation:
An allele is a variant form of a gene. In this problem, there is one gene (that determines seed color) with two possible alleles (green and yellow).
The other options are wrong because:
The genotype is the combination of alleles an individual has.
The karyotype is an individual's collection of chromosomes, paired and ordered.
A homozygote individual has the same alleles for a particular gene.
A heterozygote individual has different alleles for a particular gene.
What evolutionary mechanisms might account for the origin and persistence of cell-to-cell signaling systems in prokaryotes?
Answer:
Quorum sensing.
Explanation:
Quorum sensing may be defined as the phenomena by which the bacteria can detect the specific stimuli and respond towards the cell population density. This process helps in coordinating gene expression.
Quorum sensing is used in prokaryotes for the cell to cell signalling and cell communication as well. The main evolution of quorum sensing in bacteria was to relay the information and helps in cell signalling by releasing the specific toxins. From the evolutionary point, the organism that are capable of quorum sensing would survive more in their environment, adapt well in their environment.
Thus, the answer is quorum sensing.
An albino corn snake is crossed with a normal-colored corn snake. The offspring are all normal-colored. When these first- generation progeny snakes are crossed among themselves, they produce 32 normal-colored snakes and 10 albino snakes. a. How do you know that only a single gene is responsible for the color differences between these snakes? b. Which of these phenotypes is controlled by the dominant allele? c. A normal-colored female snake is involved in a test-cross. This cross produces 10 normal-colored and 11 albino offspring. What are the genotypes of the parents and the offspring?
a. We can infer that only one gene is responsible for the only two phenotypes of snakes due to the 3: 1 Mendelian ratio. If there were other genes involved, the ratio would be different.
b. The normal-colored
c. To have raised an albino half offspring, these individuals received a recessive gene from both father and mother. And the other half of normal individuals received at least one dominant gene. Since the statement says that the female snake is a normal phenotype, we know that it has a dominant and a recessive gene. The male snake can only be recessive homozygous to generate offspring half and half. If he was heterozygous for the disease, the offspring would have a 3: 1 ratio.
Here you can see the cross and the genotype of each individual:
A x a
a Aa aa
a Aa aa
While there are a number of characteristics that vary between monotremes and marsupials, there is one characteristic that links them together. What is it?
a. they both have nipples for sucking
b. they both have a single opening for reproduction, excretion and defecation
c. they both gave birth to underdeveloped young
d. they both have members that retain the primitive reptile-gait
Answer:
c. they both gave birth to underdeveloped young
Explanation:
a. they both have nipples for sucking: this is a characteristic that monotremes don't have. They produce milk but babies are fed through skin openings.
b. they both have a single opening for reproduction, excretion and defecation: marsupials have a separate genital tract.
d. they both have members that retain the primitive reptile-gait: Monotremes, like reptiles, have a single cloaca. Marsupials don´t.
Both groups will finished their development inside a mothers sack.
emochromatosis is an inherited disease caused by a recessive allele. If a woman and her husband, who are both carriers, have three children, what is the probability of each of the following?
(a) All three children are of normal phenotype.
(b) One or more of the three children have the disease.
(c) All three children have the disease.
(d) At least one child is phenotypically normal.
Answer:
(d) At least one child is phenotypically normal.
Explanation:
To be a carrier means that you have the gen but you are not affected by it.
If both parents have that recessive gene, this means, both are heterozygous for that trait.
Let's say this gen is A, for the dominant trait, and "a" if it's recessive.
The mother and the father are Aa.
If you cross them you have Aa x Aa = AA Aa aA aa
This means you have 50% of Aa, carrier children
25% AA, not a carrier or affected by this gen.
25% aa, affected by the gen.
At the beginning of the Cenozoic, the distribution of continents changed from that seen throughout most of the Mesozoic. Which of these best describes the new distribution of continents?
a. a single land mass that allowed for easy moevement of animals between continents
b. individual land masses that are moving towards the poles
c. most of the land masses are located near the equator
d. the continents were already in the positions that we have in the current time.
Answer:
b. individual land masses that are moving towards the poles
Explanation:
The Mesozoic started with the Triassic period, 251.9 million years ago, after a mass extinction that wiped out most of life on Earth. At this moment, all the continents were part of a continuous landmass called Pangaea. By the Late Jurassic, the continents started to drift towards the poles. Africa and South America stay move from the southern hemisfere towards the Equator, Antartica and Australia move towards the south pole. It is during this time that we have two continents: Laurasia in the north, comprised of Europe, North America, Russia, China, and parts of Central Asia; and Gondwana, comprised of South America, Africa, Australia, India and Antarctica.
Towards the end of the Mesozoic, Laurasia and Gondwana also start to split. Laurasia breaks up and still occupies the Northern hemisphere, but pieces of broken Gondwana drifted north, such as South America, Africa and India. Of these, Africa collided with Europe and originated the Italian peninsula, the Iberian peninsula, and the Balkan region. The collision of India with China, Tibet and Russia prompted the beginning of the formation of the Himalaya.
By the beginning of the Cenozoic, Laurasia and Gondwana had split into several individual landmasses, most of them in the Northern Hemisphere.
Which of the following statements accurately describes specific bacterial cell walls? View Available Hint(s) Which of the following statements accurately describes specific bacterial cell walls? Gram-negative bacterial cell walls contain teichoic acids, whereas the cell walls of gram-positive bacteria do not. The cell walls of gram-negative bacteria contain many more layers of peptidoglycan than those of gram-positive bacteria. In gram-negative bacteria, the thin layer of peptidoglycan is surrounded by an outer membrane made of phospholipids, lipopolysaccharides, and proteins. In bacteria with acid-fast cell walls, the carboxylic acid in the walls forms a layer outside a thin layer of hydrophilic polypeptides.
Answer:
In gram-negative bacteria, the thin layer of peptidoglycan is surrounded by an outer membrane made of phospholipids, lipopolysaccharides, and proteins. This statement accurately describes specific bacterial cell walls.
Explanation:
The Gram- negative bacteria constitute of an outer membrane which is richly made up of lipopolysaccharides, phopholipids and proteins. The lipopolysaccharides function mainly as a virulence factor and are involved in causing variety of diseases in animals.
Gram- negative bacteria can be seperated from gram- positive bacteria mainly because of the thickness of peptidoglycan and by the presence of the outer membrane of Gram- negative bacteria. The outer membrane is absent in Gram- positive bacteria.
Gram-positive bacteria possess a thick peptidoglycan layer anchored by lipoteichoic acid, while Gram-negative bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan layer and an outer membrane with lipopolysaccharides and proteins, including porins.
Explanation:The question pertains to distinguishing between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria based on their cell wall structure. The correct statement regarding these bacterial cell walls is that Gram-positive bacteria have a cell wall anchored to the cell membrane by lipoteichoic acid, which contains a thick layer of peptidoglycan and teichoic acids. In contrast, the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria is composed of proteins, lipopolysaccharides, and phospholipids, and it is encircled by a thin layer of peptidoglycan. Porins, which are proteins that allow substances to pass through, are present only in the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria; they are not found in Gram-positive bacteria.
Additionally, unlike Gram-positive bacteria, Gram-negative bacteria do not contain teichoic acids in their cell walls. The inner membrane, a thin layer of peptidoglycan, and an outer membrane containing lipopolysaccharide define the cytoplasm of Gram-negative bacteria. This outer membrane and the associated structures account for the complex Gram stain reaction observed with Gram-negative bacteria as compared to the simpler cell wall of Gram-positive bacteria.
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Why is the Earth's crust composed of 'lighter' elements than the mantle or core?
Answer:
True, earth's upper crust that is lithosphere is made of lightweight rocks and is thinner as compared to that of the rock that are found in the below layers.
Explanation:
The outer layer covering the planet is made up of lighter and less dense rock as this layer is called the plating layer or the crustal rock layer which is composed of silicon 27.7% and aluminum 8.1 %, Iron 5.0% and Oxygen 46.6% and having light-matter has 1 % of the entire landmass. Being composed of all types of rocks like sedimentary, metamorphic and igneous rocks. The crust is either oceanic or continental as the continental being the landmass is light and consists of only 29% of the entire earth some area partly submerged. Depth of 700 km. Mantel being the second, layer is composed of heavier elements like the Magnesium, Iron and other dominant metals has an average thickness of 2900 km constitutes 70% of earth mass. Divided into three layers upper, lower and Transition, etc. The outer core starts from 5150 kilometers to 6370 kilometers from outer to inner containing iron, nickel, and sulfur and followed by the transition in between presence due to the liquid boundaries, intensity gravity, and pressure.The Earth's crust consists of lighter elements because during Earth's formative, molten state, elements with lower densities floated toward the surface, while heavier elements sank, forming the denser core and mantle.
Explanation:The Earth's crust is composed of lighter elements than the mantle or core due to the process known as planetary differentiation. When Earth was molten during its formation, materials with different densities separated under the force of gravity. The heavier elements, such as iron and nickel, sank to the center to form the core, while the lighter elements, like silicon, oxygen, and aluminum, floated towards the surface, forming the crust.
The crust is broken up into two main types: oceanic and continental crust. Oceanic crust is denser and predominantly made of basalt, whereas continental crust is composed largely of granite, which is less dense. As a result of these processes, the crust is much less dense than the mantle, which is made of solid but deformable rock, and the core, which has the highest density due to its metal composition.
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Which of the following statements describes the most likely selective pressure behind the evolution of feathers?
a. Feathers assisted with the ability to climb into trees
b. Feathers were used to help direct turning while in flight
c. Feathers were used as part of a social display
d. Feathers were used to collect food from burrows
e. Feathers were used to help reduce water loss
Answer:
c. Feathers were used as part of a social display
Explanation:
There are many speculations about the origin of feathers, some researchers believe that they emerged as a specific function, others defend the idea of the emergence of feathers from a social display.
The social display may have been one of the factors for the origin of the feathers, since in addition to the conquest of the female, animals thus selected would gain more conducive conditions for survival, such as better regulation of body temperature. But social display alone could not have forced the emergence of more complex feathers, since in many cases sexual characters usually occur only in males and not in females, or less apparent in females.
The appearance of penaceous appendages in theropods may be linked to the evolution of a high metabolic rate, which provides an improvement in locomotor skills as well as distinct behavior and visual communication. The development of penaceous appendages may also have played an important role in regards competition and radiation success of maniraptor theropods and their descendants of active flight in the Jurassic. Therefore, the theory is believed that external factors (natural selection) along with social display could have propitiated the origin of feathers.
Distinguish the different structural forms of DNA from one another.
Answer:
The major structural forms of DNA are A- DNA, B-DNA, and Z-DNA.
There are several differences among the 3 DNAs in their helix turn, number of nucleotides, distance between the base pairs, etc.
Explanation:
DNA is a double-stranded helix. These are the twisted ladders where base pairs are attached by hydrogen bonds. There are 3 major forms of DNA such as A - DNA, B- DNA, and Z - DNA. They are different from each other by their helix type, diameter or complete turn, and distance between the 2 base pairs.
A - DNA: This type of DNA was discovered by Rosalind Franklin. It was discovered by the X-ray diffraction method. Its helixes are right-handed. The helixes are shorter than the B - DNA. The diameter of the helix is 2.55nm. The distance between the base pair/rise is 0.29nm. The number of base pairs per complete turn is 11.
B - DNA: This is the common type of DNA structure. This is the Watson and Crick model of DNA. The helix is right-handed and the diameter is 2.37nm. The distance of a complete turn is 3.4nm. The rise per base pair or the distance between 2 base pairs in B-DNA is 0.34nm. The number of base pairs per complete turn of the helix is 10 nucleotides.
Z -DNA: It is the left-handed DNA. This type of DNA was discovered by Robert Wells and colleagues. This DNA is in a zig-zag form. So it is called Z-DNA. It is long and thin than other DNA. The distance per turn is 4.5 nm. and rise per base pair is 0.37 nm. The number of base pairs per complete turn is 12 nucleotides. The minor groove is deep.
If the B-DNA is compressed it becomes the A-DNA and if the B-DNA is expanded it turns into a Z- DNA.
Explain why cytotoxic T cells are not affective against bacteria.
Answer:
Because cytotoxic T cells are activated with antigens.
Explanation:
Cytotoxic T cells are a type of white blood cell that expresses T-cell receptors that can recognize specific antigens to then be activated by them to neutralize an infected cell, antigens are structures that can stimulate an immune response, they are presented by the cells so T cells can identify them.
So, based on the previous information, cytotoxic T cells can't recognize or attack bacterias if their T cell receptors don't have an antigen presented by another cell to bind.
I hope this information clarifies your doubts!
The genetic information contained in DNA consists of a linear sequence of coding units, known as codons. Each codon consists of three adjacent DNA nucleotides that correspond to a single amino acid in a protein. The E. coli DNA molecule contains 4.70×1064.70×106 base pairs. Determine the number of codons that can be present in this DNA molecule.
Answer:
The correct answer is 1.57 × 10⁶ codons.
Explanation:
It is given that the number of base pairs in E.coli DNA is 4.70 × 10⁶
1 codon = 3 DNA nucleotide adjacent that codes for a single amino acid
The number of bases or nucleotides in a single strand = number of base pairs in DNA = 4.70 × 10⁶
We only have to consider the coding strands triplet codons, that is,
Number of triplet codon = 4.70 × 10⁶ / 3
= 1.57 × 10⁶ codons.
Q:- In dogs, the Mexican hairless phenotype never breeds true. When Mexican hairless are interbred the offspring are 2/3 hairless and 1/3 normal. It is also observed that some deformed puppies are born dead. Propose a genetic explanation for these observatios.
Explanation:
The problem says that the hairless phenotype never breeds true. That means that it's not the result of a homozygous genotype (H₁H₁ or H₂H₂), so it is caused by the heterozygous genotype (H₁H₂).
The expected offspring from the cross between two Mexican hairless would be:
P H₁H₂ x H₁H₂F1 1/4 H₁H₁, 2/4 H₁H₂ and 1/4 H₂H₂.And the expected phenotypic ratio 3:1. However, the observed offspring shows a 2:1 ratio. What's happening?
If the observed phenotypic ratio in the offspring of a monohybrid cross (a single gene with two alleles) is 2:1, we can suspect that one of the genotypes is lethal in homozygosis and therefore does not appear in the progeny (the puppies are born dead).
If we proposed that the H₂ allele is lethal in homozygosis, then:
The H₁H₁ genotype would cause normal puppies --> 1The H₁H₂ genotype would cause hairless puppies --> 2The H₂H₂ is lethal and causes the death of puppies --> 0The phenotypic ratios change to 2:1, as observed in the experiment.
Translate the following mRNA: 5'AUGGCGAACUGCGAGUGA3'
a. Ser-Glu-Arg-Gin-Ala-Val
b. Met-Ala-Gin-Arg-Glu-Ser
c. Val-Ala-GIn-Arg-Glu-Ser
d. Met-Ala -Asn-Cys-Glu
Answer:
Option (d).
Explanation:
Genetic code may be defined as the triplet code of the nucleotides that are heritable in nature. The mRNA molecule contains the group of codons that codes for the particular amino acids by the process of translation.
The amino acids are specified by the specific codons. Here, AUG codes for methionine and also acts as the initiator codon. GCG codes for Alanine. AAC codes for Asparagine, Cysteine is coded by UGC and GAG codes for glutamic acid. UGA is a stop codon and result in the termination.Hence, the translated mRNA is Met-Ala -Asn-Cys-Glu.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
The motor cortex is part of the ________.
a. cerebrum
b. cerebellum
c. spinal cord
d. medulla oblongata
The correct answer is A. Cerebrum
Explanation:
The motor cortex is an area of the cerebral cortex (outer layer of the cerebrum in the brain), this area is the one responsible for movements especially voluntary ones and including the movement of different parts of the body such as the limbs, the jaw, the tongue, the eyeballs, the neck, etc. Additionally, due to the complexity of the motor cortex, this is divided into three areas located in the same zone that include the primary motor cortex, the supplementary motor area, and the premotor cortex. According to this, it can be concluded the motor cortex is part of the cerebrum as it is located in the cerebral cortex which is part of it (cerebrum).
Answer:
The answer is A. cerebrum.
Hope this helps... Good luck.
In a particular population of mice, certain individuals display a phenotype called "short tail," which is inherited as a dominant trait. Some individuals display a recessive trait called "dilute," which affects coat color. Which of these traits would be easier to eliminate from the population by selective breeding? Why?
Answer:
The "short tail" dominant allele is easier to eliminate by selective breeding.
Explanation:
The only way for a recessive allele to be expressed (be visible) is when it appears as recessive homozygotic. These means the organisms need to have 2 copies of the gene. Selective breeding is based on the characteristics that one can see, so if the organism shows the "dilute" phenotype you can keep reproducing this individuals and get rid of the dominant allele.
On the other hand if you have a population with the dominant phenotype, you discard all the ones that have a recessive trait and you breed the dominant phenotype you could still get individuals with the recessive phenotype and individuals that express the dominant phenotype but are heterozygous.
What do structures B and C have in common?
Both B and C epresent the muscularis externa, the outermost layer of smooth muscle found in most hollow organs of the digestive tract. This layer contracts and relaxes to propel food along the digestive system.
: B and C are major blood vessels supplying the respective sections of the digestive tract. Adequate blood flow is crucial for nutrient absorption and transport. They could also represent lymphatic vessels involved in draining fluids and immune cells from the digestive tract. The lymphatic system plays a vital role in fighting infection and absorbing dietary fats.
B and C could be labeled as nerves or ganglia, representing the autonomic nervous system branches controlling digestive functions like muscle movement and secretion of digestive juices.
Which process is most directly driven by light energy?
(A) creation of a pH gradient by pumping protons across the thylakoid membrane
(B) reduction of NADP+ molecules
(C) transfer of energy from pigment molecule to pigment molecule
(D) ATP synthesis
Answer:
C
Explanation:
The energy from sunlight is used to split water molecule into H+ and O- and the emanating electron used to replace the lost electron at the reactive center of the Photosystem I & II. The lost electron is a high energy electron that is transferred from pigment to pigment in the Photosystem. As it does, its energy is harnessed and used to pump H+ protons into the lumen of the thylakoid from the stroma (creating a proton motive force that will be used to make ATPs). Ultimately this electron will then reduce NADP to NADPH.
The process that is most directly driven by light energy is ; ( C ) Transfer of energy from pigment molecule to pigment molecule
The light energy derived from the sunlight or a corresponding light source splits the H⁺ and O⁻ contained in water molecules. The split O⁻ replaces the electron which is lost at the center of photosystem I and II.
The lost electron at the reactive center contains energy while it is been transferred from one pigment molecule to another pigment molecule and this driven directly by the light energy.
Hence we can conclude that the process that is most directly driven by light energy is Transfer of energy from pigment molecule to pigment molecule.
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The aging process is thought to be initiated at the cellular level. Among the changes that can occur after a certain number of cell divisions is the loss of a cell’s ability to respond to growth factors and other signals. Much research into aging is aimed at understanding such losses, with the ultimate goal of extending the human life span. Not everyone, however, agrees that this is a desirable goal. If life expectancy were greatly increased, what might be the social and ecological consequences?
Answer:
Enhancement in the life expectancy of humans can exhibit certain unwanted outcomes that could affect the quality of life. Some of the probable social and ecological outcomes due to an increase in life expectancy are:
Social: Greater life expectancy would signify that the age of employment would get extended. As an outcome, the older individuals would hold the seats for a longer duration, leaving only some seats for the young. This would influence the life quality and development of the young.
Due to the increase in life expectancy, there would be an elevation in the demand for basic needs, and increased consumption of food increased utilization of land, and larger population. The use of global resources would increase by humans, therefore, declining the resources at a greater rate. Hence, overall, the ratio of the old to the young would get influenced, and therefore, the quality of life would get affected.
Ecological: With longer life expectancy, there will be an enhanced burden of human species on the planet Earth. Due to this, the balance between the humans and the other species would get disturbed. Human activities have been substantially related to the issues of global warming, issues of deforestation, endangering of other species resulting in ecological imbalance.
Enhancement in the life expectancy of humans would cause further destruction of endangered species and huge imbalance in the ecosystems that would eventually influence life of human beings. Therefore, ecological in combination with socioeconomic influence of greater life expectancy incline towards reduced quality of life, and it is not desirable.
Increased life expectancy due to enhanced understanding of aging at a cellular level could potentially yield social and ecological issues, due to increased demand for resources and societal changes. The role of telomeres, absence of telomerase in somatic cells, and the effects of oxidative stress are crucial in understanding the aging process.
Explanation:The question posed involves the biological process of aging at a cellular level, tied to factors like the shortening of telomeres regions with repeated cell divisions. Primary and secondary aging, which concern molecular/cellular changes and controllable factors like exercise and diet respectively, play key roles in the aging process. The implication of an extended human life span involves exploring potential social and ecological impacts.
Social implications could cover areas like increased demand for healthcare, living spaces, and resources, and a shift in societal structures due to the increased proportion of aging populations. Ecological considerations may revolve around the fact that a larger aging population might drive greater consumption of resources, potentially exacerbating environmental issues.
Moreover, telomerase and aging are closely linked, as most somatic cells do not produce telomerase, leading to progressive telomere shortening and aging. With advancements in modern medicine and lifestyle changes, humans have extended their lifespan, prompting desires to maintain youth and a higher quality of life into old age.
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Which of the following statements regarding the endomembrane system is false? Which of the following statements regarding the endomembrane system is false? The endomembrane system is involved in the synthesis, storage, and export of important molecules. The endomembrane system is a system of interrelated membranes that are all physically connected. The endomembrane system includes the rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum. The endomembrane system includes the nuclear envelope.
The false statement about the endomembrane system is that all its components are physically connected. While they work closely together, they are not all physically continuous, though they form a functional network for modifying, packaging, and transporting cellular substances.
Explanation:The false statement regarding the endomembrane system is that it is a system of interrelated membranes that are all physically connected. In fact, the different components of the endomembrane system, such as the nuclear envelope, lysosomes, vesicles, the endoplasmic reticulum (both rough and smooth), and the Golgi apparatus, as well as the plasma membrane, are functionally connected though they are not all physically continuous with one another. Components like vesicles move between these structures, carrying substances within the cell, thus ensuring an interactive and dynamic system rather than a physically interconnected network.
The endomembrane system's main functions include the synthesis, storage, and export of important molecules. It also plays a crucial role in the production and modification of lipids and proteins which are necessary for building cellular membranes and for secretion out of the cell. It is important to note that the mitochondria and chloroplasts are not part of the endomembrane system despite being involved in various aspects of cell metabolism.
Which of the following occurs during the light-dependent reactions of plants?
a. Electron transport
b. The splitting of water
c. A hydrogen ion gradient is established to produce AT
d. All the above
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-D.
Explanation:
Photosynthesis proceeds in two stages: light-dependent and light-independent reaction.
The light-dependent begins when the chlorophyll pigment of the photosystem absorbs light energy. This absorption causes the excitation of the electrons provided by the chlorophyll molecule.
The excited electrons accepted by electron acceptor molecule from reaction center and a chain of electron flow begin called electron transport chain.
This transport of electrons creates a scarcity of electron in photosystem which causes splitting of the water molecule as a result of which oxygen gas is released.
Thus, option-D is the correct answer.
Final answer:
All of the options given (electron transport, the splitting of water, and establishing a hydrogen ion gradient to produce ATP) occur during the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, which takes place in the chloroplast thylakoids of plants.
Explanation:
The correct option for the question about what occurs during the light-dependent reactions of plants is d. All the above. During these reactions, multiple processes take place:
Electron transport: Energy from sunlight captured by the chlorophyll in the photosystem II (PSII) reaction center is used to extract electrons from water. These electrons are then passed through a series of proteins in the thylakoid membrane known as the electron transport chain.The splitting of water: Water molecules are split to release electrons, protons (H+), and oxygen in a process called photolysis, which takes place in PSII.Hydrogen ion gradient establishment: The electron transport chain moves protons across the thylakoid membrane, creating a high concentration of protons (a low pH) inside the thylakoid lumen. This proton gradient is then used by ATP synthase to produce ATP in a process known as chemiosmosis.The initial source of electrons for the chloroplast electron transport chain is the splitting of water (photolysis), which occurs at PSII. The primary function of Photosystem II is to capture energy from sunlight to start these processes, while Photosystem I primarily works to produce NADPH.
Which cell would be best for studying lysosomes?
(A) muscle cell
(B) nerve cell
(C) bacterial cell
(D) phagocytic white blood cell
Answer:
(D) phagocytic white blood cell
Explanation:
Lysosomes are cell organelles which contain hydrolytic or digestive enzymes. They engulf waste materials, dead cells, and microorganisms. They break them down them using digestive enzymes. Muscle cell, nerve cell s do not perform phagocytic or lysosomal activities and the bacterial cell is a prokaryotic cell which does not contain lysosomes. Therefore, white blood cells are phagocytic contains lysosomes. Due to the presence of lysosomes, white blood cells or leucocytes protect our body from infectious diseases.
Answer:
(D) phagocytic white blood cell is the correct answer.
Explanation:
phagocytic white blood cell is best for studying lysosomes.
lysosomes are the cell organelles, its function is to digest the dead cells, bacteria and waste substance with help enzymes such as lipases, amylases, and proteases.
Phagocytic white blood cells are best for studying lysosomes because many white blood cells are found in lysosomes.
White blood cells function is to ingest or engulf the foreign materials and protect the body from the infection.