Disturbances inside Earth’s core cause earthquakes. The starting point of the disturbance is called the epicenter. Why does the amplitude of a seismic wave usually decrease as the wave moves away from the epicenter?

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

The energy released by the earthquake spreads throughout a larger volume of Earth.

Explanation:

At farther distances the amplitude of the seismic waves decreases as the energy released by the earthquake spreads throughout a larger volume of Earth. Also with increasing distance from the earthquake, the waves are separated apart in time and dispersed because P, S, and surface waves travel at different speeds.


Related Questions

5. After a signal is transmitted from the eyes through the optic nerve, which part of the brain processes the

visual information?

L

A. The frontal lobe

B. The occipital lobe

C. The limbic lobe

D. The temporal lobe

Answers

Answer: B. The occipital lobe

in which trimester do the bony parts of the skeleton begin to form

A. First

B. Second

C. Third

D. None of the above

Answers

Answer:

B. Second

Explanation:

In the second trimester the bony parts of the skeleton begin to form .

Answer:

A. First Trimester

Explanation:

Heat is transferred to the Earth's surface through the process of...
conduction
convection
radiation
reflection

Answers

Answer:

conduction is a correct answer.

Explanation:

Heat is transferred by three ways:

Conduction

Convection

Radiation

Conduction:

heat is transferred by the collisions which occur between the neighboring molecules. it occurs in the liquid and solids stage in which molecules are close to each other.Heat is transfer from the area of high heat to the area of low heat through direct contact. The molecules which are warmer they vibrate and collide with the molecules nearby and they transfer the energy.

Heat is transferred to the Earth's surface through the process of Conduction,since air is not a good conductor, so most of the energy near Earth's surface is transfer by the conduction.

.

Answer:

The answer is C.) radiation.

Explanation:

Conduction involves two objects touching, convection is the motion of energy moving in a circular motion, and reflection is the motion of something reflecting off of another object. Radiation is the correct answer.  

Which of the following astronomical units is closest to the distance of the earth to the sun?
A. 9.5 AU
B. 9.1 AU
C. 3.7 AU
D. 1 AU

Answer is: D. 1AU

Answers

The correct answer is D. 1 AU

Explanation:

In astronomy, the distance from Earth to the Sun that is also used to measure the distance from the sun to other planets or any other elements in the space is known as AU or Astronomical Unit, this covers around 150 million kilometers and is one of the most used units especially to describe the distance of objects in our solar system. This also implies 1AU refers to the distance of the Earth to the Sun; although the distance varies slightly depending on the position of the Earth in the orbit. Therefore, the unit that is closest to the distance of the Earth to the sun is 1 AU.

1AU is the astronomical units closest to the distance of the earth to the sun.

Below is the mean distance from sun to each planet  in Astronomical unit (AU)

Earth: 1.000 AU Jupiter: 5.203 AU Mercury: 0.387 AU Venus: 0.723 AU Uranus: 19.201 AU Neptune: 30.047 AU Mars: 1.524 AU Saturn: 9.582 AU Further Explanation

The Astronomical unit, AU is the means distance from the earth to the sun. Actually, the distances between from the earth and the sun varies and primarily depend on the time of the year. This is simply because the earth orbit within the sun is certainly not a perfect circle. The astronomical distance is about 93 million miles.

The distances within the solar system are measured in Astronomical units (AU). The innermost planet, mercury has a mean distance of approximately 0.4 AU to the sun. Also, Neptune, one of the known distant planets has a radius of approximately 30 AU. However, the parsec is used to express the distance the Interstellar and intergalactic.

The first month, January is the time that the earth is closest to the sun and far away from in July. In January the distance from the earth to the sun is about 0.983 AU and the mean or average distance from the earth to the sun is approximately 1.017 AU in July.

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Why was a second control group was included in this experiment

Answers

Answer:

uhhh we need more info

Explanation:

What is anaerobic respiration?

Answers

Anaerobic respiration is respiration using electron acceptors other than molecular oxygen (O2). Although oxygen is not the final electron acceptor, the process still uses a respiratory electron transport chain.

What are the two main phases of the cell cycle? A. Prophase and anaphase B. Interphase and mitosis C. Replication phase and recombination phase D. Multiplication phase and division phase

Answers

Answer:

Letter B.... :)

ANSWER:

The correct option is B: Interphase and mitosis. The two major phases of cell division are interphase and mitotic phase.

EXPLANATION:

The cell-division or cell cycle cycle is a series of events that lead to cell growth and cell division. Interphase is the phase that leads to cell growth. Mitotic phase is the one that leads to cell division where DNA is replicated and division of cell organelles takes place to produce two daughter cells.  

7. The role of an organism in the ecosystem is called its​

Answers

Answer: The role of an organism in the ecosystem is called its NICHE.

Explanation: The niche (pronounced 'neesh') of an organism is the specific function and purpose of the organism within its environment, ecosystem or food-web or food-chain.

Answer:

niche

Explanation:

What is a quantitative observation?

Answers

Answer:

things that you can use numbers to express

Explanation:

PLEASE ANSWER QUICK

(more than one answers)

Answers

the third one and the last one.
Yes, it would be the third choice and the last choice

Which statement best explains why obsidian has a smooth glassy surface but basalt has a rough surface? Obsidian is formed due to compaction and basalt is formed due to weathering. Obsidian allows less crystal growth than basalt because it cools more rapidly than basalt. Basalt is more easily eroded than obsidian because it is formed at a lower temperature than obsidian. Basalt is formed from the erosion of sediments and obsidian is formed due to the metamorphosis of rocks.

Answers

Answer:

Obsidian allows less crystal growth than basalt because it cools more rapidly than basalt.

Explanation:

Both Obsidian and Basalts are igneous rocks. Igneous rocks from the solidification and cooling of magma.

The textures of igneous rocks relies mostly on their mode of formation. Igneous texture refers to the way minerals are formed and arranged in rocks.

When magma forms and cools rapidly, crystals of minerals don't have time to grow. This leads to the formation of a rock that would look like glass. An example of such rock is Obisdian. Obsidian's glassy and smooth texture is as a result of the way it was formed. This rock type is an extrusive igneous rock that forms on the surface where cooling magma solidifies rapidly and crystals have little to no time to solidify.

Basalt on the other hand is an extrusive igneous rock. The mineral grains here have some ample time to form. Basalt is made of mafic minerals which impacts some very interesting textures on the rock mass. The texture of a typical basalt is fine grained and the minerals can be seen when magnified. Cooling is not as rapid during the formation of basalts compared to obsidian.

Answer:

it is b

Explanation:

Someone is sniffing near Grumpy’s front door. Can you help Grumpy identify the Ragdoll in this picture!

(Sorry if I chose the wrong subject, I don’t know what the subject of this question is)

Answers

Answer:

D

Explanation:

If you look up pictures of a Ragdoll cat, you'll see that they have blue eyes and the answer choice D is the only cat with blue eyes.

Answer:

The correct answer is option D.

Explanation:

The ragdoll is a breed of cats. This breed has blue eyes and a colorpoint coat with semi-long hair and large in size. They are known for their placid temperament and affection.

Grumpy can identify ragdoll cat by its physical properties and blue color eye. In option D the cat has blue eyes, semi-long hair and larger in size.

Thus, the correct answer is option D.

Enzymes can be recycled.
True
False

Answers

True. Unless they were to be exposed to extreme temperatures, in that case they would “unravel” aka not be able to be used again

The given statement is true. Enzymes can be recycled.

What are enzymes?

The chemical reactions, or metabolism, of our bodies are sped up by proteins known as enzymes. While certain chemicals are broken down, others are generated. Everything that is alive contains enzymes.

Naturally, enzymes are produced by our bodies. However, enzymes are present in both food and manufactured commodities.

One of the most important jobs of enzymes is to aid with digestion. Digestion is the process by which food becomes a source of energy. For instance, enzymes are found in our saliva, pancreas, intestines, and stomach.

The proper environment is necessary for enzyme activity. Enzymes can alter their form if certain criteria.

Therefore, The given statement is true. Enzymes can be recycled.

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Lubricants reduce friction by replacing sliding friction with fluid friction,
O
A. True
B. False
O

Answers

Lubricants reduce friction by replacing sliding friction with fluid friction.

The answer is true as fluid friction separates the two hard surfaces
The answer would be true because it stops sliding friction

What produces NADH,ATP, and two pyruvate molecules?


A. Calvin cycle
B. Electron transport chain
C. Glycolysis
D. Krebs cycle

Answers

Answer:  C (Glycolysis)

Explanation:

Glycolysis is present in nearly all living organisms.

Order the steps of protein synthesis,

Answers

Answer: Hola! My name is Marissa and im here to help !:) don't hesitate to give brainliest!

step1-start of synthesis

step2-initiation

step3 -elongation

final- elongation and termination

The first step in protein synthesis is the transcription of mRNA from a DNA gene in the nucleus.

before the protein synthesis, all of the component parts are assembled in the ribosome

step 2

In the cytoplasm, protein synthesis is actually initiated by the AUG codon on mRNA. The AUG codon signals both the interaction of the ribosome with m-RNA and also the tRNA with the anticodons (UAC). The tRNA which initiates the protein synthesis has N-formyl-methionine attached. The formyl group is really formic acid converted to an amide using the -NH2 group on methionine

step 3

Elongation of the peptide begins as various tRNA's read the next codon. In the example on the left the next tRNA to read the mRNA is tyrosine. When the correct match with the anticodons of a tRNA has been found, the tyrosine forms a peptide bond with the growing peptide chain .

step 4

When the stop signal on mRNA is reached, the protein synthesis is terminated. The last amino acid is hydrolyzed from its t-RNA.

Explanation:

Protein synthesis : It is a procedure in which cells make protein.

There are two stage of protein synthesis.

1): Transcription

2): Translation

The transfer of genetic instruction in DNA to mRNA in the nucleus is called transcription. Transcription include three steps:

a) initiation b) elongation and c) termination.

After the mRNA is managed it carries the command to a ribosome in the cytoplasm.

Translation happen at the ribosome in which contain rRNA and proteins. In a translation the command mRNA are read and tRNA gives the true order of amino acids to a ribosome. after that rRNA helps bonds structure between the amino acids, construct a polypeptide chain.

Then a polypeptide chain is combined it may undergo further processing to form the finished protein.

Classify the organisms based on whether they follow the Camegie stages of development

Answers

The correct answer is that a butterfly  and an octopus do not have Carnegie stages of development, while elephants and turtles do. This is because Carnegie stages of development are stages found only in the development of the vertebrate embryo.  Carnegie stages can be defined as a system in embryology, which include 23 stages of the embryonic development, each characterized with the different age, size and morphologic characteristics of an organism.

Final answer:

Organisms in the animal kingdom are classified based on their body morphology, developmental pathways, and embryological development. The Carnegie stages of development refers to the classification of human embryos based on their physical and internal features at different stages of development.

Explanation:

Classifying Organisms by their Developmental Stages
Organisms in the animal kingdom are classified based on their body morphology, developmental pathways, and embryological development. The Carnegie stages of development specifically refer to the classification of human embryos based on their physical and internal features at different stages of development.

For example, the Carnegie stages can help identify when specific organ systems start to form or when major developmental milestones occur. However, it's important to note that the Carnegie stages are specific to human embryonic development and may not be applicable to all organisms in the animal kingdom. Other organisms may have their own unique classification systems based on their own specific developmental characteristics and stages.

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the exchange of genetic materials between homologous chromosomes is called
a.synapsis
b. chiasmata
c.heterozygous
d. homozygous ​

Answers

The answer is A.

The tight pairing of the homologous chromosomes is called synapsis. In synapsis, the genes on the chromatids of the homologous chromosomes are precisely aligned with each other.

11. In a long bone, such as the femur in the leg, the center of the bone contains which substance, responsible for producing blood
cells?
O A. Plasma
B. Ligaments
C. Marrow
O D. Synovial fluid

Answers

the answer to your problem will be C buddy good luck

In a long bone, such as the femur in the leg, the center of the bone contains Marrow, responsible for producing blood cells.

What is Bone marrow?

The spongy material called bone marrow is located in the middle of the bones. It produces things like bone marrow stem cells, which go on to make blood cells.

Each type of blood cell that the bone marrow produces performs a crucial function.

Bone marrow stem cells is the blood that circulates in the veins and arteries of all normal people. These stem cells are known as peripheral blood stem cells (PBSC). Patients recovering from chemotherapy and healthy people who are treated with certain drugs that stimulate the growth of the bone marrow have relatively large numbers of PBSC in their blood.

Therefore, In a long bone, such as the femur in the leg, the center of the bone contains Marrow, responsible for producing blood cells.

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Cells use _____ to get energy only when carbohydrates are not available. hormones nucleic acids proteins lipids

Answers

Answer:

Cells use lipids to get energy only when carbohydrates are not available.

lipids hope this will help you

Where in the cell does translation occur? the cytoplasm the promoter the nucleus the DNA

Answers

The answer to you question would be A:Cytoplasm

Hope this helped!!

Aaron

Answer:

The Cytoplasm is definitely the answer.

Explanation:

how do humans get the nitrogen that they need ?

Answers

Answer: Humans get the nitrogen they need by eating plants or other animals that contain nitrogen.

Explanation: When organisms die, their bodies decompose bringing the nitrogen into soil on land or into ocean water. Bacteria alter the nitrogen into a form that plants are able to use.

Nitrogen is one of the essential component for human body as it helps in protein synthesis by getting involved in amino acid formation. Human gets nitrogen either from environment or through nitrogen-rich diet.

What is the necessity of nitrogen in human body?

All tissues in the human body require nitrogen as an essential component.

it helps in making proteins in the muscles, skin, blood, hair, nails as well as DNA.

Human obtains protein through atmosphere as it comprises of 80% nitrogen as well as from diet.

Thus, it can be concluded that these are the sources of nitrogen for human beings.

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CAM plants lose their _____ during the day and open them at night.

a) thylakoids
b)chloroplasts
c)vascular bundles
d)stomata

Answers

Answer:

d) stomata

Explanation:

CAM plants lose their stomata during the day and open them at night.

Therefore, CAM plants do not lose thylakoids, chloroplasts, or vascular bundles during the day and open them at night.


(c)Why was no starch found in:(i)the part of the leaf labelled A......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................(1)(ii)the part of the leaf labelled B?......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................(1)(Total 7 marks)Q3.A plant with variegated (two-coloured) leaves was left in sunlight for several hours. Pieces of one of its leaves were then detached (removed) and tested for sugar. The diagram below shows the results.Explain, as fully as you can, why the yellow region of the leaf had not produced sugar

Answers

Answer:

During photosynthesis a plant absorbs light energy using the pigment chlorophyll. This allows it to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose. This glucose is:

transported to the growing parts of the plant for use in respiration

transformed into cellulose, proteins and oils

turned into starch for storage

Therefore, to test if a plant has been photosynthesising, you can test the leaf to see if starch is present.

Which structure fuses to form a diploid zygote during sex reproduction

Answers

Final answer:

In sexual reproduction, a diploid zygote is formed by the fusion of two structures: a haploid egg and a haploid sperm. These cells, also known as gametes, each contain one set of chromosomes, and their fusion results in a zygote with a complete diploid set of chromosomes.

Explanation:

In sexual reproduction, the structures that fuse to form a diploid zygote are the haploid egg and the haploid sperm cells. These cells are also referred to as gametes. Each of these gametes is haploid, meaning they contain one set of chromosomes in their nuclei. The zygote, which is the cell that results after the fusion of these gametes, is diploid and contains two sets of chromosomes. For example, in animals, sexually reproducing adults form these haploid gametes from diploid germ cells. The fusion of these gametes gives rise to a fertilized egg cell, or zygote.

This process of fusion, called fertilization, ensures that the offspring has a complete diploid set of chromosomes. Later, the zygote will undergo multiple rounds of mitosis to produce a multicellular offspring, which is genetically unique.

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Final answer:

The structures that fuse to form a diploid zygote during sexual reproduction are the haploid egg and sperm cells. They fuse together during fertilization to create a new individual with a complete set of chromosomes.

Explanation:

The structure that fuses to form a diploid zygote during sexual reproduction is the haploid gametes, specifically the egg and sperm. In this process, the haploid sperm and egg cells fuse, leading to the formation of a diploid zygote. The diploid zygote contains the combined genetic material from both parents, which is vital for creating a new individual. To ensure that the offspring has only one complete diploid set of chromosomes, only one sperm must fuse with one egg. This fusion of gametes is called fertilization.

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A colorimeter is an instrument used for chemical analysis by comparing a liquid’s color with standard colors. In an experiment, a scientist used two colorimeters and noted the readings. The first colorimeter showed consistent readings that were five points lower than the actual reading. The second colorimeter provided readings that were the same as the actual reading. Which two statements are implications of these readings?

The first colorimeter is reliable but not valid.
The second colorimeter is valid and reliable.
Both the colorimeters are reliable and valid.
The readings of the first colorimeter can be used without repeating the experiment.
The readings of the second colorimeter aren’t reliable and can’t be used for the experiment.

Answers

Answer:

The correct statements are that the first calorimeter is reliable but not valid, and the second calorimeter is valid and reliable.

Explanation:

The first calorimeter is reliable as the reading demonstrated by it is similar when each time the experiment is performed, however, the result attained is not correct, though it is reliable. On the other hand, the second calorimeter is both reliable and valid, as it is demonstrating the accurate results from time to time. This is valid as it is providing a similar result as that of the original readings.

Answer:

Answer:

The correct statements are that the first calorimeter is reliable but not valid, and the second calorimeter is valid and reliable.

Explanation:

The first calorimeter is reliable as the reading demonstrated by it is similar when each time the experiment is performed, however, the result attained is not correct, though it is reliable. On the other hand, the second calorimeter is both reliable and valid, as it is demonstrating the accurate results from time to time. This is valid as it is providing a similar result as that of the original readings.

Explanation:

During transcription, mRNA is produced from the antisense strand of DNA. This means that the mRNA will match the

Answers

During transcription, mRNA is synthesized using the antisense strand of DNA as a template, resulting in an mRNA sequence that matches the sense strand of DNA, with uracil (U) replacing thymine (T).

During the process of transcription, the mRNA is synthesized using the antisense strand of DNA as a template. This results in the mRNA sequence matching the sequence of the sense strand of DNA, with the exception that uracil (U) is incorporated in place of thymine (T). Therefore, the correct answer is:

A. Sense strand of DNA, substituting uracil for thymine.

The sense strand of DNA is also known as the coding strand because its nucleotide sequence corresponds to the codons that are translated into protein. During transcription, the mRNA synthesized is indeed complementary to the antisense strand, which is the template strand, and matches the sense strand except that uracil replaces thymine.

_was a key technique used to explain the structure of DNA

Answers

Answer:

X-ray crystallography

Explanation:

Its was a key technique to study and explain the structure of DNA based on X-ray shot's pattern, which was formed when these shots passed through the crystal of particular substance. This pattern provided information about molecular structure of DNA.

X-ray crystallography involves aiming X-rays at a crystal to generate a diffraction pattern, which is used to determine the 3D structure of a molecule. This technique was critical in discovering the double helix structure of DNA.

X-ray Crystallography and the Structure of DNA

X-ray crystallography was a key technique used to explain the structure of DNA. X-ray Crystallography involves aiming X-rays at a crystal containing many identical molecules.The X-rays scatter off the crystal and are collected on a detector, forming a diffraction pattern.This pattern is analyzed using mathematical methods to determine the three-dimensional structure of the molecule.Watson and Crick used X-ray crystallography data from Rosalind Franklin to elucidate the double helix structure of DNA.This method allows scientists to view molecules at an atomic level, making it integral for understanding complex biological structures.

Complete question:

_was a key technique used to explain the structure of DNA

A. NMR spectroscopy

B. Electron diffraction

C. X-ray crystallography

D. Electron microscopy

how does animals store energy

Answers

Animals ( or plants ) store solar energy as chemical energy between atoms of their molecules.

For example : ATP is phosphate energy bonds stored by animals in their molecules.

For more stable form animals also store energy in carbon bonds called carbohydrates. The most common e carbohydrates are starch, sugar and fats. Animals have enzymes to convert these forms of energy into actual form which they use for their activities like move, run or fly.

Bases form hydrogen ions (H+) when dissolved in water
True or False.


Hurry plz!!!

Answers

Answer:

Bases form hydrogen ions (H+) when dissolved in water - False

Bases in chemistry are substances that acquire hydrogen ions or donate the valence electron.

The given statement is False.

Bases are substances when dissolved in water will give hydroxide ions (OH-). For example: Potassium hydroxide(KOH), Sodium hydroxide (NaOH)

Acids are substances when dissolved in water will give  hydrogen ions (H+) ions. For example: Hydrocholric acid (HCl), Sulfuric acid.

Therefore, Bases does not form hydrogen ion when dissolved in water.

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Peristalsis occurs in the digestive tract. True or False Which of the following is an irigation catheter used after transurethral prostatic surgery? A. ureteral stent B. three-way Foley C. Robinson D. Malecot Organize the word parts according to where they appear in a medical term. Which ofthe following sentence beginnings would be best to use in apersuasive request?a- We think it would begood if you . . .b- We need you to give . ..c- Will you please . . .?d- It would be appreciatedif you.... Help Please!!!!!!!!!!!Describe String Theory. What is the central idea behind it? Identify two reasons for the Indian partition. Muslims wanted an independent nation. Hindu, Muslim, and Sikh riots broke out throughout India. The Muslim League disagreed with the independence plans of the Indian National Congress.reasons for partition Which statements are true? The oxidation number for Cu(s) is +2. An oxidizing agent gains electrons. Na+ is formed from the reduction of Na(s) . The oxidation number for Hg(????) is 0. A reducing agent gains electrons. Zn2+ is formed from the oxidation of Zn(s) . Find the range of 2,7,3.1,4.2,1.9,2.4,and 2.7 2. Is it a good idea to use stimulants like caffeine and sugar before you take a test? Explainyour answer. Who controlled a married English woman's property?OA. Her brotherO B. Her husbandOC. The woman herselfOD. Her father For the past four weeks, Odessa has been feeling lethargic and worthless. Her friends are worried because she no longer shows interest in her normal social activities. It is MOST likely that Odessa is suffering from: How does Thomas Jefferson support the argument that the colonies should form their own government?A) by stating that British citizens warned the colonists that war was coming. B)by claiming that British citizens support the colonists forming a new government C) by providing examples of when British citizens were Enemies in WarD)by explaining that British citizens have failed to defend the colonists What happens to alveolar volume and intra-alveolar pressure during exhalation?1. Decrease alveolar volume causes an increase alveolar pressure2. Increase alveolar volume causes an increase alveolar pressure3. Decrease alveolar volume causes a decrease alveolar pressure4. Increase alveolar volume causes an increase alveolar pressure In? 2008, a country used ?twenty-five percent or 100 million tons of all the grain grown that year to produce ethanol. How much grain was grown in the country in? 2008? All of the following are examples of quantitative data EXCEPT ________. All of the following are examples of quantitative data EXCEPT ________. the cholesterol levels of the students in a class the exam scores for the students in a class the gender of the students in a class the number of siblings that students have the amount of sleep normally gotten by the students in a class What is electrical firing mechanism of the heart? After Jeff Bezos read about how the Internet was growing by 2,000 percent a month, he set out to use the Internet as a new distribution channel and founded Amazon, which is now the world's largest online retailer. This is clearly an example of a(n)A. firm that uses closed innovation. B. entrepreneur who commercialized invention into an innovation. C. business that entered the industry during its maturity stage. D. exception to the long tail business model consider the polynomial p(x)=32x^5y-2xy^5part a: What is the complete factorization of p(x)=32x^5y-2x^5 over the integers?part b: what methods are used to factor p(x)=32x^5y^5?Select 1 answer for a and one for b.a- 2xy(2x-y)^2 (2x+y)^2a-2xy(2x-y)(2x+y)(4x^2+y^2a-2xy(4x^2-y^2)(x^4-4x^2y^2+y^4b-repeated differences of squaresb- difference of cubesb-greatest common factorb-grouping .Compare and contrast Primary storage and Secondarystorage.? What is the common difference or common ratio of the sequence 2,5,8,11...? A. 1 B. 3 C. 5 D. 7