Dr. Ivy's research focuses on the genetic tendencies that shape each child's characteristic way of reacting to environmental experiences. Dr. Ivy is MOST likely working from a(n) _____ perspective.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

The best answer to fill in the blank in this statement would be: Dr. Ivy is MOST likely working from a(n): evolutionary perspective, to explain the way that children react to environmental experiences based on their genetic tendencies.

Explanation:

There have been many theories created throughout time to explain why and how, people, be it children or adults, react and act according to the environment in which they are. In this particular case, Dr. Ivy is basing his knowledge and his comprehension of why a child acts in one way to the environment, while another may act completely differently, given the same environment, on the role that genetics plays in behavior shaping. As such, to him, it is a child´s genetic make-up what determines how a child will react to a specific environment, and not other factors, or aspects. This is characteristically of those who favor the evolutionary perspective.


Related Questions

What ethical principle underlies the statement in the National Federation of Licensed Practical Nurses (NFLPN) Code for Licensed Practical/Vocational Nurses, "The practical nurse provides health care to all clients regardless of race, creed, cultural background, disease, or lifestyle"?

Answers

Answer:

Justice

Explanation:

The ethical principle of justice refers to the particularity of what is fair and right, such as respect for the equality of all citizens, for example. An example of this is a statement from the National Federation of Licensed Practice Nurses Code that states "A practical nurse provides medical care to all clients, regardless of race, creed, cultural background, illness or lifestyle".

According to Aristotle, the term justice denotes both legality and equality. Thus, the one who obeys the law (justice in the strict sense) and the one who realizes equality (justice in the universal sense) is just.

Final answer:

The ethical principle of justice underlies the NFLPN Code for Licensed Practical/Vocational Nurses' statement, emphasizing fairness and equality in patient care regardless of personal characteristics. It is accompanied by other core principles such as autonomy, beneficence, and nonmaleficence, and is reinforced by cultural competence in nursing practice.

Explanation:

The ethical principle underlying the statement in the National Federation of Licensed Practical Nurses (NFLPN) Code for Licensed Practical/Vocational Nurses, "The practical nurse provides health care to all clients regardless of race, creed, cultural background, disease, or lifestyle," is grounded in the concept of justice.

Justice, in the context of nursing ethics, mandates that nurses treat all patients equitably, without discrimination based on personal characteristics or conditions. This principle is essential in ensuring that all individuals receive high-quality care regardless of their race, creed, cultural background, disease, or lifestyle, hence promoting fairness and equality within healthcare settings. Other core ethical principles that guide nursing practice include autonomy (respecting a patient's right to make their own healthcare decisions), beneficence (acting in the best interest of the patient), and nonmaleficence (doing no harm to the patient).

Cultural competence also plays a critical role in fulfilling this ethical obligation by equipping nurses with the knowledge and skills to provide care that respects diverse cultural backgrounds. As the U.S. population becomes increasingly diverse, nurses are expected to extend their competencies to effectively serve patients from various cultures, thereby upholding the ethical principle of justice.

The superego is the personality component that
a. is found only in the unconscious mind
b. is found only in the preconscious mind
c. acts as a person's conscience
d. acts as a mediator between the id and superego

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is option C. acts as person's conscience.

Explanation:

According to the psychoanalytic theory presented by Freud for the personality, The personality of an individual contains three components; id, ego, and superego.

Superego is a conscience of an individual that acts as a social component whereas id and ego are instinct and conscious decisions respectively. The superego is basically made-up of principles or the ideology one get from the society or parents. Its role is to suppress instinct and influence the ego to behave morally.

Thus, the correct answer is option C. acts as a person's conscience.

Final answer:

The superego, according to Freud's psychoanalytic theory, acts as a person's conscience, guiding moral behavior and striving for perfection.

Explanation:

The superego is the component of personality in Sigmund Freud's psychoanalytic theory that acts as a person's conscience. Freud's theory suggests that the superego develops through social interactions, as a child learns from the environment what is considered right and wrong. The superego strives for perfection and moral behavior, judging our actions and leading to feelings of pride or guilt. Therefore, the correct answer is (c) acts as a person's conscience.

If a conditioned stimulus (CS) is presented without further pairings with the unconditioned stimulus (US), the CS will gradually lose its capacity to elicit the conditioned response. This is the definition of:

Answers

Answer:

This is the definition of respose extinction.

Explanation:

For example, you taught your dog to sit everytime you grab his leash to go for a walk. Over time you started to let him run in the backyard to exercise, and you show him the leash to just call his attention. One day you grab the leash to take him for a walk, and you realize he does not sit anymore at the stimulus. This is a case of response extinction.        

Final answer:

Extinction is the gradual weakening and disappearance of the conditioned response when a conditioned stimulus (CS) is presented without further pairings with the unconditioned stimulus (US).

Explanation:

Extinction occurs when a conditioned stimulus (CS) is presented repeatedly without being paired with an unconditioned stimulus (US). As a result, the CS gradually loses its capacity to elicit the conditioned response. In classical conditioning, the conditioned response weakens and eventually disappears when the CS is presented alone, without the presence of the US.

Learn more about Extinction in Classical Conditioning here:

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A client is having a routine eye examination. The procedure being performed is done by using an instrument to indent or flatten the surface of the eye. This is known as ________ and it is routinely done to test for ________.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is - 1) tonometry 2) intraocular pressure

Explanation:

Tonometry is the method of eye care that is used by the professionals to perform to test the intraocular pressure. Intraocular pressure is the fluid pressure inside of the eye.

It is an important procedure that is helpful to the evaluation of risk related to glaucoma. Glaucoma is a serious eye disease in which the fluid pressure increased in the eye.

Thus, the correct answer is - 1) tonometry 2) intraocular disease.

A 4-year old male intact Jack Russell is recovering post-operatively after a lung lobectomy following a coyote attack. The dog is very painful. Which of the following combinations of medications may be given as a constant rate infusion and is commonly used for pain control in the critical care setting?

A)Morphine, lidocaine, ketamine

B)Diazepam, ketamine, morphine

C)Medetomidine, acepromazine, lidocaine

D) Propofol, morphine, bupivacaine

Answers

Answer:

A) Morphine, Lidocaine, Ketamine

Explanation:

A woman who is on a low-carbohydrate diet for weight loss may have difficulty maintaining an adequate level of the B vitamins thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, and folate. What foods being avoided in her diet are most likely to cause this?

Answers

Hi !

A woman who is on a low-carbohydrate diet for weight loss may have difficulty maintaining an adequate level of the B vitamins thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, and folate. What foods being avoided in her diet are most likely to cause this?

- grain foods and cereals

The first exercise during Strength Endurance training involves a traditional strength exercise, such as a bench press, that is performed in a stable environment in order to elicit which of the following?a. Fixator strength
b. Antagonist muscle strength
c. Prime mover strength
d. Neutralizer strength

Answers

Answer:

c. Prime mover strength

Explanation:

Strength and endurance training involves a traditional strength exercise. These trainings are the main activities in fitness centers, besides contributing to muscle growth with the decrease of body fat and the increase of bone mass. Its constant practice leads to the harmonious transformation of the human physical constitution. The first exercise during Strength and Endurance training involves a strength exercise because it aims to promote the engine's main strength.

Much has been learned in the field of nutrition about nutritional intake and how to work toward making our diets nutritionally optimal. When it comes to carbohydrate intake, the latest findings indicate that Americans should do what?A) Decrease their intake of fiber and increase their intake of complex carbohydrates.B) Increase their intake of fiber and limit consumption of added sugars.C) Eat total carbohydrates consisting of 50% fiber and 50% simple sugars.D) Eat a diet based on plenty of fruits and vegetables and limit carbohydrates.

Answers

Answer: B) Increase their intake of fiber and limit consumption of added sugars.

Explanation:

Nutritionally optimum diet can be define as the diet which includes the  intake of nutrients which the keeps the body possibly healthy. The sugars are the type of carbohydrates which should be taken into adequate concentration so that blood sugar levels remain in control and conditions like diabetes cannot occur in the body. Thus consumption of the added sugars should be prevented to prevent health hazards. One should also increase the intake of the fibers this is because of the fact that the fibers improves digestion and prevents constipation.

Final answer:

Americans are advised to increase fiber and restrict added sugars in their diets. Complex carbs are preferred over simple sugars, and a balanced diet including carbs, proteins, fats, and vitamins supports better health and weight management.

Explanation:

Optimizing Carbohydrate Intake in American Diets

When addressing the latest findings in the field of nutrition, particularly regarding carbohydrate intake, it is recommended that Americans should increase their intake of fiber and limit the consumption of added sugars. Carbohydrates are made of fiber, starch, and sugars, with fiber and starch being complex carbohydrates that have more nutrients, digest more slowly, and provide a feeling of fullness, thereby supporting health. The American Heart Association suggests that about 55% of calories should come from carbohydrates, predominantly from complex carbohydrates rather than simple sugars.

Complex carbohydrates, such as whole grains and vegetables, provide essential nutrients, are higher in fiber, and contribute to various health benefits such as enhancing regular bowel movements, regulating blood glucose levels, and reducing cholesterol and colon cancer risks. Carbohydrates should be a part of a well-balanced diet, which includes proteins, vitamins, and fats, and should not be eliminated entirely in an attempt to lose weight. A low-calorie diet that is rich in whole grains, fruits, vegetables, and lean meat combined with exercise and water intake, is a sensible approach to weight management.

A 30-year-old woman was hospitalized after she experienced convulsions. On examination, she was alert and oriented and complained of a fever, headache, and stiff neck. Which of the following is most likely to provide rapid identification of the cause of her symptoms?a. check serum antibodiesb. Gram stain of throat culturec. biopsy of brain tissued. Gram stain of cerebrospinal fluide. None of these would provide rapid identification

Answers

Answer:

A) Clostridium botulinum.

Explanation:

Your best friend’s grandmother has just suffered a stroke. This stroke has left her with an inability to speak, but she can still understand what others say to her. She also has paralysis on the right side of her body. Your friend wants to know what part of her grandmother’s brain was likely damaged by the stroke. Based on your understanding of the brain, what would you tell your friend?

Answers

The stroke would have happened on the left side of her body. The left cerebrum controls speaking, so it would make sense that her speech was slow and/or slurred. The right side of the body is controlled by the left brain, so the right side would become paralyzed. The right side of the cerebrum has to do with emotions, so being able to understand what people say is a sign of a stroke on the left side of the brain.

Answer:

The stroke indicates Paralysis

Explanation:

The reason behind a stroke includes- blockage in supply of blood into the brain or blasting of a brain blood vessel. It may result to Paralysis of either parts of the body or any one side of it.

A right-side paralysis of body and inability to speak can be a symptom of Paresis or right-side paralysis. Paresis occurs due to damage in the left-hemisphere or lefty-portion of brain, as the left brain controls the ride side of our body. So, I will tell about the left brain damage of her grandmother.

Isaac wants to know how quickly the HIV/AIDS virus is spreading among teenagers. When conducting his research, he will want to look at the number of new cases, of the _____ of the disease.

Answers

Answer:

Incidence

Explanation:

Isaac will need to assess the incidence rate of HIV-infected adolescents for his research. This must be done because Isaac's research wants to gauge the speed with which this virus is spreading among teens. For this, Isaac must make a comparison between the existing number of patients who fit this case, with patients who fit the recent cases of incidence of the disease. That is, when conducting his research, he will want to examine the number of new cases, the incidence of the disease.

Which of the following reflects a self-serving bias?
a. ​seeing another person trip and assuming the person is uncoordinated.
b. ​receiving an A on a test and thinking that the test was easy.
c. ​being turned down for a job and believing that the interviewer was biased against you.
d. ​watching another person play the guitar and thinking the person is very talented.

Answers

Answer:

c. ​being turned down for a job and believing that the interviewer was biased against you.

Explanation:

Selfish bias refers to our tendency to take personal credit for success while blaming external sources for our failures. Essentially, we tend to believe that our successes are due to internal characteristics and talents, while our failures are caused by variables beyond our control. An example of this occurs when you are turned down in a job and instead of acknowledging your failure you place the blame on the interviewer by stating that he was biased against you.

A 41-year-old pregnant woman and her husband are anxiously awaiting the results of various blood tests to evaluate the fetus for potential Down syndrome, neural tube defects, and spina bifida. Client education should include which information?

Answers

Answer:

I'm confusion lol

Explanation:

WORD WIRBCGMB HC DXTSDH GHDSGNGSGXBN

A nurse is at the end of a busy shift on a medical-surgical unit. The nurse enters a room to empty the client's urinary catheter and the client says, "I feel like you ignored me today." In response to the statement, the nurse should:___________

Answers

Answer:

sit at the bedside and allow the patient to explain the statement.

Explanation:

The nurse is primarily responsible for patient care. No matter the age of the person, the situation or place; The nursing professional is always there. In addition, the nurse is the primary member of the medical team responsible for the well-being and comfort of the patient, so if the patient felt ignored during his or her stay in the hospital setting, what the nurse should do is sit next to him / her. from the bed and allow the patient to explain the statement.

According to Bartlett, systematic recall errors and distortions are often caused by _______ intruding on reality, though they can also be credited with helping memory when appropriately applied.

Answers

Answer:

The answer is: Systematic errors and distortions were due to intrusions of his schematic knowledge.

Explanation:

Systematic errors and distortions were due to intrusions of his schematic knowledge, according to Bartlett.

But the instructions given were vague and many of the distortions disappeared when clear instructions were used. In addition, systematic and schema-induced errors are greater with a longer retention interval because the information in the schemes lasts longer in memory than the information in the text.

The answer is: Systematic errors and distortions were due to intrusions of his schematic knowledge.

Katie has an anxiety disorder and recently sought treatment for it. The therapist explained that the anxiety stemmed from her early childhood experiences. When Katie was young, her parents divorced. Her anxiety increased when her dad abandoned Katie, and when her mom decided to start another family with her new husband. According to Katie's therapist, Katie has unresolved unconscious conflicts involving fear of abandonment in addition to aggression toward her father. From which psychological perspective is this explanation?

Answers

Hi !

From which psychological perspective is this explanation?

Answer:

- psychological perspective

According to the Centers for Disease Control and​ Prevention, ________ in 2015 in which less than 20 percent of the population was considered obese. A. Colorado was the only state B. there were more than 25 states C. there were only 5 states D. there were no states

Answers

Answer:

A. Colorado was the only state

Explanation:

Polls say the southern United States concentrates the most obese people in the country. Nearly one in three adults in Mississippi, Louisiana, West Virginia, and Alabama are obese if their weight and height are compared, according to a study by the United States Health Foundation (TFAH) and the Robert Wood Johnson Foundation. , using official numbers. The least obese states tend to be those in the northeast and southwest. Colorado, a state conducive to outdoor and mountain activities, is at the bottom of the national obesity ranking, and according to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, Colorado was the only state in 2015, where less than 20% of the population was considered obese.

The methods of scientific and clinical psychologists are quite different from those of layfolk, who sometimes rely on an unreliable body of knowledge known as
a)critical thinking.
b)learning.
c)past history.
d)common sense.

Answers

Answer:

d) common sense.

Explanation:

According to my research on studies conducted by various psychologists, I can say that based on the information provided within the question this unreliable body of knowledge being mentioned is called common sense. This is basically making smart or sound judgment on different practical matters mostly based on past experiences. This is sometimes unreliable because perception and emotion affect these judgments a lot instead of actual facts and research.

I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.

According to the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP), which of the following would be considered adequate evidence of immunity to varicella, indicating that administration of varicella vaccine is unnecessary?a) Patient self-reported case of chickenpox.b) Patient self-reported case of herpes zoster.c) Birth in the United States after 1990.d) Diagnosis of chickenpox by a health care provider.

Answers

Answer:

a) Patient self-reported case of chickenpox

Explanation:

Varicella, or chickenpox, is an infectious disease caused by the varicella-zoster virus. Highly contagious but usually benign, it was one of the most common childhood illnesses before the advent of the vaccine. Once acquired the virus, the person is immune for life. However, it will remain in the body and in the future may cause a condition known as herpes zoster, or shingles. Because of this immunity, we can conclude that adequate evidence of varicella immunity, indicating that administration of varicella vaccine is unnecessary is a case reported by the chickenpox patient.

A patient (who suffers from asthma) has developed reddened blistered skin. Which condition is she likely to be suffering from?
O A.
vitiligo
OB.
cellulitis
O c. alopecia
OD. eczema

Answers

The answer is D. Hope this helps :)

________ can be thought of as the effective rules of the game

Answers

Answer: Business Culture - It can be thought of as the effective rules of the game, the boundaries between competitive and unethical behavior, and the codes of conduct in business dealings.

Functional fitness typifies _____________ because you are working with your whole self to do the exercises: the mind coordinates movements, posture allows for proper handling of weights, muscles contract to overcome resistance, etc.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer would be - mind-body wellness.

Explanation:

Functional fitness is various exercises that are used to help in preparing the body for daily routine tasks by influencing or regulating movements of the body. It includes different movements coordinates by the brain. This exercise also helps in the core stability of the body such as maintaining posture, muscle contraction, and other daily work-related movements.

Thus, the correct answer is - mind-body wellness.

Harvey's doctor prescribed a heart medicine that led to digestive problems in Harvey. He saw a different doctor for that issue and was prescribed another drug, which led to headaches. Yet another doctor prescribed another drug for his headaches. Harvey has just experienced _____.
a. a ministroke
b. reversible dementia
c. a prescribing cascade
d. clinical practice guidelines

Answers

Answer:

C

Explanation:

harvey has just experienced a prescribing cascade

"Dr. Chen studies several traits that distinguish one person from another. Dr. Doherty investigates how people grow and change during late adolescence and young adulthood. Dr. Chen is a ________ psychologist; Dr. Doherty is a ________."

Answers

Answer: Developmental psychologist and Personality psychologist

Explanation:

Developmental psychology is defined as the scientific study of why and how human beings change over the period of their lifetime.

It is originally concerned about the development, aging and entire lifespan.

Personality psychologist observe the social situations and how they are influenced by individual emotion and conduct.

They tend to express the behavior of person under stress conditions, attraction,  aggression, persuasion.

Individuals that are heterozygous for the sickle-cell anemia allele are more resistant to malaria than those that do not have a sickle-cell allele. Why does the sickle-cell allele not become fixed in the population?

Answers

Answer:

The character of sickle cell anaemia does not get fixed in the population Because it has more disadvantages than advantages

Explanation:

Any character will get fixed in the population if the character provides the progeny certain advantage to reproduce better.The rate of malaria infection is low, but such people may have breathing difficulties and organs may fail due to the wrinkled RBC's not able to flow smoothly in the arteries and hence causing blockages. the character may be recessive but again the amount of oxygen carried per healthy RBC is less and that makes breathing difficult . so as a character its a disadvantage for the person who is a career and hence not being selected to be fixed.

​When discussing his relationship with his wife Amber, Travis says, "I have this very strong sense of commitment and tranquility." Researchers have suggested that the neurophysiological basis of this feeling may be due to brain chemicals related to

Answers

Answer: Morphine

Explanation: Morphine is a medicational drug that is used for the relieving the pain of the body under the prescription.It is prescribed to be taken in limited amount otherwise overdose cause cause serious damage to the body.

According to the neurophysiology, morphine can affect the brain by inducing plasticity.Thus, the Travis is stating about his calmness and commitment feeling in his mind.

What is the name of the document in which the EMT should document all patient findings and​ treatment? A. Medical chart B. PCR C. Triage tag D. General use statement

Answers

Answer:

B. PCR

Explanation:

The PCR stands for 'Patient Care Report.' It is a legal document that needs to have all the procedures done to the patient. This document becomes part of the patients permanent medical record and is used in court in legal cases. It is also used to bill medical expenses. This document needs to be filled out when the EMTs arrive at an emergency situation whereas the other documents like a medical chart is filled out by the practitioners at the hospital and not the scene; and triage tags are used in mass injuries for identification on immediate needs and deceased.  

The nurse completes the health interview and physical exam on a patient admitted with an infection of the gallbladder. The nurse reviews the medical record and compares the abnormal lab results to the normal standards. Which critical thinking skill is the nurse using in this part of the nursing process?

Answers

Answer: Analysis

Explanation:

Analysis is the set of experiment and research studies which is based upon the examination of the observations and data obtain after the experimental trial. These are compared with appropriate standards which are based on previous research and experiments. This process helps in development of the results.

The nurse here is using the analysis. This is because of the fact that the nurse reviews the medical record and comparing it with the abnormal lab result which can help in development of valid result and conclusion.    

The nurse uses the critical thinking skill of evaluation to review abnormal lab results and compare them to normal standards, which is crucial for formulating appropriate interventions. This step is a part of the assessment phase in the nursing process. Effective evaluation ensures accurate diagnosis and treatment, leading to better patient outcomes.

The nurse is applying the critical thinking skill of evaluation during this stage of the nursing process. By reviewing the patient’s abnormal lab results and comparing them to normal standards, the nurse is assessing the severity and implications of the patient’s condition. This process is essential for identifying the most appropriate interventions and prioritizing the patient's care needs. For example, elevated white blood cell counts in a Complete Blood Count (CBC) might indicate an infection, which the nurse corroborates with observed symptoms and other diagnostic results, such as an ultrasound.

The Nursing Process

The nursing process comprises five key steps: assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation. In the assessment phase, the nurse collects subjective and objective data from the patient. This data collection involves critical thinking about the patient’s history, current symptoms, and lab results.

Assessment: Gather comprehensive information about the patient’s health status. This includes taking a medical history, conducting a physical exam, and ordering diagnostic tests such as liver function tests (LFTs), amylase or lipase levels, and imaging studies.Diagnosis: Formulate a nursing diagnosis based on the assessment data.Planning: Develop a care plan with specific outcomes and interventions tailored to the patient's needs.Implementation: Execute the care plan by administering treatments and monitoring the patient's response.Evaluation: Assess the effectiveness of the care plan and make necessary adjustments.

The nurse's ability to evaluate data effectively ensures the accuracy of the diagnosis and the efficacy of the treatment plan, ultimately leading to better patient outcomes.

A psychological scientist asks study participants to indicate whether the green line at the front corner of the wall pictured here is longer than, shorter than, or equal in length to the green line at the back corner of the wall. Participants regularly say that the front line is shorter than the back line (even though the two are perfectly equal in length). The participants’ brains are using ___________ to guide perception.

Answers

Answer:

contextual cues about depth

Explanation:

Based on the information provided within the question it seems that the participants' brains are using contextual cues about depth to guide the perception. This can be said because the brain is subconsciously measuring both lines in relationship towards each other as well as various objects around the lines at different depths, which would lead to inaccurate measurements as opposed to comparing the lines together at the same depth perception.

I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.

Answer:

contextual cues about depth

Explanation:

The nurse is caring for a child with a suspected head injury. The nurse observes for what response to the child's eye reflex exam that would indicate potential increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

Answers

Answer:

Pupils that don't respond to changes in light.

Explanation:

The nurse would likely shine a flashlight accross the child's eyes, and a lack of pupil constriction and dilation would indicate increased ICP.

In a child with a suspected head injury, the nurse should observe for signs during the eye reflex exam that may indicate potential increased intracranial pressure (ICP).

What are these signs

These signs include changes in pupillary response, such as unequal or non-reactive pupils (anisocoria), sluggish or non-reactive pupils, fixed and dilated pupils, and alterations in eye movement.

Visual disturbances, such as double vision or blurred vision, should also be noted. These signs can be concerning and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention.

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