During a client’s examination and consultation, the physician keeps telling the client,"You have an abdominal neoplasm." Which statements accurately paraphrase the physician’s statement?

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

"You have a new growth of abnormal tissue in your abdomen." "You have an abdominal tumor."

Explanation:

Neoplasia, also called a tumor, is a form of abnormal cell growth in a tissue. This growth is not controlled by the organism, with a tendency towards autonomy and perpetuation. An abdominal neoplasm, therefore, is an abnormal growth of tissue in a patient's stomach, generating a tumor. This tumor may be benign or malignant, according to its potential to cause harm to the individual.


Related Questions

A nurse is at the end of a busy shift on a medical-surgical unit. The nurse enters a room to empty the client's urinary catheter and the client says, "I feel like you ignored me today." In response to the statement, the nurse should:___________

Answers

Answer:

sit at the bedside and allow the patient to explain the statement.

Explanation:

The nurse is primarily responsible for patient care. No matter the age of the person, the situation or place; The nursing professional is always there. In addition, the nurse is the primary member of the medical team responsible for the well-being and comfort of the patient, so if the patient felt ignored during his or her stay in the hospital setting, what the nurse should do is sit next to him / her. from the bed and allow the patient to explain the statement.

A client is having a routine eye examination. The procedure being performed is done by using an instrument to indent or flatten the surface of the eye. This is known as ________ and it is routinely done to test for ________.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is - 1) tonometry 2) intraocular pressure

Explanation:

Tonometry is the method of eye care that is used by the professionals to perform to test the intraocular pressure. Intraocular pressure is the fluid pressure inside of the eye.

It is an important procedure that is helpful to the evaluation of risk related to glaucoma. Glaucoma is a serious eye disease in which the fluid pressure increased in the eye.

Thus, the correct answer is - 1) tonometry 2) intraocular disease.

Harvey's doctor prescribed a heart medicine that led to digestive problems in Harvey. He saw a different doctor for that issue and was prescribed another drug, which led to headaches. Yet another doctor prescribed another drug for his headaches. Harvey has just experienced _____.
a. a ministroke
b. reversible dementia
c. a prescribing cascade
d. clinical practice guidelines

Answers

Answer:

C

Explanation:

harvey has just experienced a prescribing cascade

A nurse is conducting an initial interview with a client who has paranoid delusions. What statement by the nurse can help to establish rapport as well as alleviate some of the suspicion the client may experience?a) "I will be asking you some questions, and they shouldn't be hard to answer."
b) "Don't worry about the questions. Just answer to the best of your ability."
c) "I will be asking you a series of questions that I ask of all of my clients."
d) "I am going to ask you a series of questions, and I need you to answer me truthfully

Answers

Answer:

c) "I will be asking you a series of questions that I ask of all of my clients."

Explanation:

Paranoid delusions consist of a psychosis characterized by the development of chronic, lucid and systematic delusional thinking, provided with its own internal logic, without hallucinations. In this pathology, the individual develops an exacerbated or unjustified distrust or suspicion that he is being persecuted, believing that something bad is about to happen or that the stalker wishes to cause harm.

For this reason, the nurse's best way to help establish rapport as well as alleviate some of the suspicions the client may face is to speak to the client: "I will be asking you a series of questions that I ask of all of my clients. "

A mother has brought her 5-month-old son to the clinic because he has been drowsy and unresponsive. The child has hydrocephalus and had a shunt placed about a month previously. Which of the following symptoms indicate that the shunt is infected?

The child has a high-pitched cry.
The fontanels are bulging or tense.
The child is not responding or eating well.
The child's pupil reaction time is rapid and uneven.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is- the child is not responding or eating well.

Explanation:

Lack of responsiveness and not eating properly establishes these are the signs that the child has an infection. There might be some inflammation along with the shunt tract.

Shunt malfunction is characterized by the fontanel bulging or tense, the rapid reaction time of pupil and high pitch cry, which is causing an increase in intracranial pressure so it can not be a symptom.

Thus, the correct answer is - the child is not responding or eating well.

A 4-year old male intact Jack Russell is recovering post-operatively after a lung lobectomy following a coyote attack. The dog is very painful. Which of the following combinations of medications may be given as a constant rate infusion and is commonly used for pain control in the critical care setting?

A)Morphine, lidocaine, ketamine

B)Diazepam, ketamine, morphine

C)Medetomidine, acepromazine, lidocaine

D) Propofol, morphine, bupivacaine

Answers

Answer:

A) Morphine, Lidocaine, Ketamine

Explanation:

A woman who is on a low-carbohydrate diet for weight loss may have difficulty maintaining an adequate level of the B vitamins thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, and folate. What foods being avoided in her diet are most likely to cause this?

Answers

Hi !

A woman who is on a low-carbohydrate diet for weight loss may have difficulty maintaining an adequate level of the B vitamins thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, and folate. What foods being avoided in her diet are most likely to cause this?

- grain foods and cereals

​Leonard is changing his four-month-old son’s diaper, and afterwards he gets him into his pajamas. While easing the little guy’s foot into the sleeper, he inadvertently strokes the boy’s foot and is surprised to see the toes immediately fan out. He does it again to the other foot, and gets the same response. Leonard has accidently stumbled upon his son’s ____ reflex.

Answers

Answer:

babinski

Explanation:

The Babinski Reflex, also called the Babinski Sign, is a reflex in which the toes extend and then open in a fan-like motion. This problem is usually caused by a stimulus that arches from the side of the foot to the base of the first toe. It is common in newborns and young children, where the neurological system is not yet mature, but in adults and older children it indicates a brain or spinal cord problem. If it is present on only one foot, it can also indicate which side of the brain is involved.

High levels of LDL cholesterol in the bloodstream can be the result of familial hypercholesterolemia, an inherited condition that displays incomplete dominance. In a family with a severely affected father and an unaffected mother, what percentage of their children are expected to have higher than normal blood cholesterol?

Answers

Answer:

100%

Explanation:

Familial hypercholesterolaemia is a genetic disease characterized by greatly increased cholesterol levels. Due to this level, there are early manifestations of heart attacks, need for bypass surgery or angioplasty, among others. There are two types of familial hypercholesterolaemia: heterozygous and homozygous. The most common form is heterozygous, which affects 1 person in 250. It happens when only one parent has the defective gene. The child of a couple in this situation is 100% more likely to have blood cholesterol higher than normal.

Isaac wants to know how quickly the HIV/AIDS virus is spreading among teenagers. When conducting his research, he will want to look at the number of new cases, of the _____ of the disease.

Answers

Answer:

Incidence

Explanation:

Isaac will need to assess the incidence rate of HIV-infected adolescents for his research. This must be done because Isaac's research wants to gauge the speed with which this virus is spreading among teens. For this, Isaac must make a comparison between the existing number of patients who fit this case, with patients who fit the recent cases of incidence of the disease. That is, when conducting his research, he will want to examine the number of new cases, the incidence of the disease.

Along with handling job-related hassles, Mena is struggling to keep up with her night classes. As the pressure mounts, Mena finds that she is often unable to go to sleep at night or that she repeatedly wakes up during the night. Mena's sleep disturbance is best described as:

Answers

Answer:

Insomnia 3.

Explanation:

Insomnia may be defined as the condition in which the person is not able to sleep properly. This medical condition is also known as sleeplessness and a sleeping disorder.

Insomnia 3 is mainly characterised by the condition in which the individual is not able to sleep for the particular reason. The build up of pressure makes the individual sleep restlessness. The individual wake up repeatedly at night. Mena shows the condition of Insomnia 3.

Thus, the correct answer is insomnia 3.

Which of the following reflects a self-serving bias?
a. ​seeing another person trip and assuming the person is uncoordinated.
b. ​receiving an A on a test and thinking that the test was easy.
c. ​being turned down for a job and believing that the interviewer was biased against you.
d. ​watching another person play the guitar and thinking the person is very talented.

Answers

Answer:

c. ​being turned down for a job and believing that the interviewer was biased against you.

Explanation:

Selfish bias refers to our tendency to take personal credit for success while blaming external sources for our failures. Essentially, we tend to believe that our successes are due to internal characteristics and talents, while our failures are caused by variables beyond our control. An example of this occurs when you are turned down in a job and instead of acknowledging your failure you place the blame on the interviewer by stating that he was biased against you.

Which must accept whatever a payer reimburses for procedures or services performed?

Answers

Answer: The participating provider must accept whatever the payer will reimburse for the services or procedures that were performed.

Explanation:

The participating provider already has an agreement in place with the insurance company prior to any services rendered. They will have price list for the insurance company and they will negotiate a pay and must accept the payment, based on the prior agreement. The patient will not have to pay the difference between the price submitted to the insurance company and what is actually paid.

If a person uses a non-participating provider, then they will be responsible for any costs incurred that the insurance does not cover. This is why it is very important to make sure that your specific insurance is taken by the doctor or surgeon seeing you at the time.

A client was prescribed a 10-day course of antibiotics for the treatment of sinusitis. The client experienced symptoms relief after 3 days and stopped taking the antibiotics at that time. What is a priority nursing diagnosis for this client?
- Acute confusion
- Deficient knowledge
- Noncompliance
- Risk for injury

Answers

Answer:

Non compliance.

Explanation:

Antibiotics may be defined as the drugs taken to induce and kill the growth of other microorganism. The patients should complete their treatment of the prescribed antibiotics suggested by doctors.

Non compliance is generally used for the patient that has not taken the proper treatment and has not completed the proper treatment as prescribed the nurses. Here, the clients stop taking antibiotics after three days and represent the noncompliance as the priority nursing diagnosis of the patient.

Thus, the correct answer is option (c).

Upon admission to the hospital, the client states, "I am having surgery to correct my back. I have pain in the lower back and the doctor is going to do a lumbar laminectomy." This statement reflects the client's:A) Symptoms B) Review of systems C) Chief concern.

Answers

Answer: C) Chief concern.

Explanation:

Lumbar laminectomy is a surgery which is performed by removing the lamina from the vertebra, which basically covers the spinal canal. It is also called as decompression surgery.

The patient know his condition, and the possible treatment the doctor is going to perform upon him thus the given statement describes the chief concern of the client for own health.

A 41-year-old pregnant woman and her husband are anxiously awaiting the results of various blood tests to evaluate the fetus for potential Down syndrome, neural tube defects, and spina bifida. Client education should include which information?

Answers

Answer:

I'm confusion lol

Explanation:

WORD WIRBCGMB HC DXTSDH GHDSGNGSGXBN

The nurse is caring for a child with a suspected head injury. The nurse observes for what response to the child's eye reflex exam that would indicate potential increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

Answers

Answer:

Pupils that don't respond to changes in light.

Explanation:

The nurse would likely shine a flashlight accross the child's eyes, and a lack of pupil constriction and dilation would indicate increased ICP.

In a child with a suspected head injury, the nurse should observe for signs during the eye reflex exam that may indicate potential increased intracranial pressure (ICP).

What are these signs

These signs include changes in pupillary response, such as unequal or non-reactive pupils (anisocoria), sluggish or non-reactive pupils, fixed and dilated pupils, and alterations in eye movement.

Visual disturbances, such as double vision or blurred vision, should also be noted. These signs can be concerning and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention.

Read more on intracranial pressure (ICP)  here https://brainly.com/question/26565648

#SPJ3

Which characteristic is the single most potent indicator of an infant’s future health status?​ ​
a. mother’s prepregnancy weight ​
b. mother’s weight gain during pregnancy
c. ​infant’s birthweight ​
d. mother’s prepregnancy nutrition status ​
d. mother’s birthweight

Answers

the answer is c. infant's birthweight. you're welcome

Infant’s birth weight ​is the single most potent indicator of an infant’s future

health status.

During birth , the infant is usually weighed to ascertain its health status.

Underweight and overweight infants are usually offered special care to

ensure they are healthy as certain factors could be the cause such as intake

of a lot of sugar etc.

Infant birth weight is the most appropriate options as it tells the Doctor the

exact state of the infant and not that of the mother being included.

Read more on https://brainly.com/question/16758825

According to Bartlett, systematic recall errors and distortions are often caused by _______ intruding on reality, though they can also be credited with helping memory when appropriately applied.

Answers

Answer:

The answer is: Systematic errors and distortions were due to intrusions of his schematic knowledge.

Explanation:

Systematic errors and distortions were due to intrusions of his schematic knowledge, according to Bartlett.

But the instructions given were vague and many of the distortions disappeared when clear instructions were used. In addition, systematic and schema-induced errors are greater with a longer retention interval because the information in the schemes lasts longer in memory than the information in the text.

The answer is: Systematic errors and distortions were due to intrusions of his schematic knowledge.

Katie has an anxiety disorder and recently sought treatment for it. The therapist explained that the anxiety stemmed from her early childhood experiences. When Katie was young, her parents divorced. Her anxiety increased when her dad abandoned Katie, and when her mom decided to start another family with her new husband. According to Katie's therapist, Katie has unresolved unconscious conflicts involving fear of abandonment in addition to aggression toward her father. From which psychological perspective is this explanation?

Answers

Hi !

From which psychological perspective is this explanation?

Answer:

- psychological perspective

Jonah is almost 3 years of age. His parents have had some success getting him to go "pee pee" and "poopy" on the potty when he is awake, but he has not yet learned to recognize his bladder's signals when he is asleep and frequently wakes up with a wet diaper and wet sheets. Propose the diagnosis for Jonah.

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

Eliminator disorder is a disorder in which a person passes off stool or urine place other then the toilet. Enuresis is a eliminator disorder in which a person specially a child below the age of 12 years passes off urine other then toilet due to lack of bladder control. This occurs at night typically can be seen in bed-wetting. This is the most common type of eliminator disorder.

Jonah's bedwetting in the night is perfectly normal for a boy of his age and there is no need to diagnose or treat him with this elimination disorder.  

Answer

Jonah was nervous

According to the Centers for Disease Control and​ Prevention, ________ in 2015 in which less than 20 percent of the population was considered obese. A. Colorado was the only state B. there were more than 25 states C. there were only 5 states D. there were no states

Answers

Answer:

A. Colorado was the only state

Explanation:

Polls say the southern United States concentrates the most obese people in the country. Nearly one in three adults in Mississippi, Louisiana, West Virginia, and Alabama are obese if their weight and height are compared, according to a study by the United States Health Foundation (TFAH) and the Robert Wood Johnson Foundation. , using official numbers. The least obese states tend to be those in the northeast and southwest. Colorado, a state conducive to outdoor and mountain activities, is at the bottom of the national obesity ranking, and according to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, Colorado was the only state in 2015, where less than 20% of the population was considered obese.

What is the name of the document in which the EMT should document all patient findings and​ treatment? A. Medical chart B. PCR C. Triage tag D. General use statement

Answers

Answer:

B. PCR

Explanation:

The PCR stands for 'Patient Care Report.' It is a legal document that needs to have all the procedures done to the patient. This document becomes part of the patients permanent medical record and is used in court in legal cases. It is also used to bill medical expenses. This document needs to be filled out when the EMTs arrive at an emergency situation whereas the other documents like a medical chart is filled out by the practitioners at the hospital and not the scene; and triage tags are used in mass injuries for identification on immediate needs and deceased.  

Functional fitness typifies _____________ because you are working with your whole self to do the exercises: the mind coordinates movements, posture allows for proper handling of weights, muscles contract to overcome resistance, etc.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer would be - mind-body wellness.

Explanation:

Functional fitness is various exercises that are used to help in preparing the body for daily routine tasks by influencing or regulating movements of the body. It includes different movements coordinates by the brain. This exercise also helps in the core stability of the body such as maintaining posture, muscle contraction, and other daily work-related movements.

Thus, the correct answer is - mind-body wellness.

The professional football star Andro "The Man" McGraw claims the dietary supplement AminoProFix helped him build muscle mass quickly and safely. His endorsement of the product is an example of ________.

a) peer review
b) a scientifically valid claim
c) unbiased reporting
d) a testimonial
e) In vivo

Answers

Answer: d) a testimonial

Explanation:

A testimonial is a statement or description which examines and claims something on the basis of the features of some entity or article and testifies it either beneficial or non-beneficial.

The endorsement of the product in the given situation can be an example of testimonial. As in this McGraw claims for the support of the dietary supplement which has helped him in building the muscle mass.

Final answer:

The endorsement by Andro "The Man" McGraw of AminoProFix is an example of a testimonial. It's vital to differentiate between personal endorsements and scientifically valid claims, especially considering the controversies and safety concerns surrounding dietary supplements.

Explanation:

The professional football star Andro "The Man" McGraw's endorsement of the dietary supplement AminoProFix is an example of testimonials. Testimonials are often used in marketing to build trust and credibility with potential customers by showcasing successful stories or endorsements from celebrities or respected figures in a particular field. However, it's important to approach such claims with caution.

Controversies surrounding fitness supplements, such as mislabeling and the presence of harmful substances like heavy metals or unlisted steroids in some products, highlight the need for rigorous scientific evaluation rather than relying solely on personal accounts or endorsements for veracity.

Moreover, the use of testimonials does not equate to scientifically valid claims or unbiased reporting. While a product may work for an individual, it does not guarantee universal effectiveness or safety. This distinction is crucial in understanding the difference between anecdotal evidence and claims verified through comprehensive, peer-reviewed research. Consumers are advised to seek products that have undergone peer review and are supported by credible scientific evidence to ensure their safety and efficacy.

The superego is the personality component that
a. is found only in the unconscious mind
b. is found only in the preconscious mind
c. acts as a person's conscience
d. acts as a mediator between the id and superego

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is option C. acts as person's conscience.

Explanation:

According to the psychoanalytic theory presented by Freud for the personality, The personality of an individual contains three components; id, ego, and superego.

Superego is a conscience of an individual that acts as a social component whereas id and ego are instinct and conscious decisions respectively. The superego is basically made-up of principles or the ideology one get from the society or parents. Its role is to suppress instinct and influence the ego to behave morally.

Thus, the correct answer is option C. acts as a person's conscience.

Final answer:

The superego, according to Freud's psychoanalytic theory, acts as a person's conscience, guiding moral behavior and striving for perfection.

Explanation:

The superego is the component of personality in Sigmund Freud's psychoanalytic theory that acts as a person's conscience. Freud's theory suggests that the superego develops through social interactions, as a child learns from the environment what is considered right and wrong. The superego strives for perfection and moral behavior, judging our actions and leading to feelings of pride or guilt. Therefore, the correct answer is (c) acts as a person's conscience.

Much has been learned in the field of nutrition about nutritional intake and how to work toward making our diets nutritionally optimal. When it comes to carbohydrate intake, the latest findings indicate that Americans should do what?A) Decrease their intake of fiber and increase their intake of complex carbohydrates.B) Increase their intake of fiber and limit consumption of added sugars.C) Eat total carbohydrates consisting of 50% fiber and 50% simple sugars.D) Eat a diet based on plenty of fruits and vegetables and limit carbohydrates.

Answers

Answer: B) Increase their intake of fiber and limit consumption of added sugars.

Explanation:

Nutritionally optimum diet can be define as the diet which includes the  intake of nutrients which the keeps the body possibly healthy. The sugars are the type of carbohydrates which should be taken into adequate concentration so that blood sugar levels remain in control and conditions like diabetes cannot occur in the body. Thus consumption of the added sugars should be prevented to prevent health hazards. One should also increase the intake of the fibers this is because of the fact that the fibers improves digestion and prevents constipation.

Final answer:

Americans are advised to increase fiber and restrict added sugars in their diets. Complex carbs are preferred over simple sugars, and a balanced diet including carbs, proteins, fats, and vitamins supports better health and weight management.

Explanation:

Optimizing Carbohydrate Intake in American Diets

When addressing the latest findings in the field of nutrition, particularly regarding carbohydrate intake, it is recommended that Americans should increase their intake of fiber and limit the consumption of added sugars. Carbohydrates are made of fiber, starch, and sugars, with fiber and starch being complex carbohydrates that have more nutrients, digest more slowly, and provide a feeling of fullness, thereby supporting health. The American Heart Association suggests that about 55% of calories should come from carbohydrates, predominantly from complex carbohydrates rather than simple sugars.

Complex carbohydrates, such as whole grains and vegetables, provide essential nutrients, are higher in fiber, and contribute to various health benefits such as enhancing regular bowel movements, regulating blood glucose levels, and reducing cholesterol and colon cancer risks. Carbohydrates should be a part of a well-balanced diet, which includes proteins, vitamins, and fats, and should not be eliminated entirely in an attempt to lose weight. A low-calorie diet that is rich in whole grains, fruits, vegetables, and lean meat combined with exercise and water intake, is a sensible approach to weight management.

A client is being discharged home after an open radical prostatectomy. Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?
1. "I will try to drink lots of water."
2. "I will try to walk in my driveway twice a day."
3. "I will wash around my catheter twice a day."
4. "If I get constipated, I will use a suppository."

Answers

Answer:

4. "If I get constipated, I will use a suppository."

Explanation:

Radical prostatectomy is the surgery indicated to treat a patient with localized prostate cancer, that is, when the disease is confined within the prostate and within the limits of the prostate capsule. More than 70% of patients treated exclusively by radical surgery no longer suffer from the disease, and it is indicated only to treat prostate cancer and not recommended with prophylactic character, ie to prevent its onset. This type of surgery does not affect bowel function, so the statement "If I get a cold, I'll use a suppository." made by the patient shows that this patient needs more education about radial prostatectomy.

When Leanne heard about experimental evidence that drinking orange juice triggers hyperactivity in children, she questioned whether the tested children had been randomly assigned to experimental conditions. Leanne's reaction best illustratesa. illusory correlation.b. hindsight bias.c. critical thinking.d. overconfidence.

Answers

Answer:

The correct option is: c. critical thinking

Explanation:          

Critical thinking is the process of forming a judgement by carefully assessing and analyzing the evidences or facts.

It can also be described as the method of unbiased analysis which involves evaluating, conceptualizing, and analyzing the information to reach a conclusion. This rational analysis maximizes the rationality of the evaluator.

Therefore, Leanne is exhibiting critical thinking.

hich of the following is NOT true about self-esteem? A. Self-esteem is perceived value and self-worth of a person. B. Self-esteem is the same for each member of a family. C. Self-esteem varies from person to person. D. Self-esteem can adapt and change throughout a lifetime.

Answers

Answer:

B

Explanation:

Self-esteem is how we precieve ourselves, and varies from person to person.

Answer:

b

Explanation:

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Lori borrows 10,000 for 10 years at an annual e ective interest rate of 9%. At the end of each year, she pays the interest on the loan and deposits the level amount necessary to repay the principal to a sinking fund earning an annual e ective interest rate of 8%. The total payments made by Lori over the 10-year period is X: Calculate X: How would the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) be satisfied for a pregnant emergency medical dispatcher (EMD) who suffers from paralysis of both legs and requires the use of a wheelchair?a. Wheelchair accessibility to and from dispatchb. Hourly pay rate 10 percent above the other EMDsc. Scheduled shifts during daylight hours onlyd. Transport by your service to and from work On an island where knaves never tell the truth and knights always tell the truth, you meet 3 of the island's inhabitants: Fred, George, and Quincy. You ask Fred, "Are you a knave?" Fred says the answer to the other natives, but you can't hear him. George turns to you and says that Fred denied being a knave. Quincy says Fred is a knave. How many of the three are knaves? Which of the following is NOT an interpretation that can be made from an age structure diagram? A. The rate of change in population size. B. The distribution of age.C. The comparative sizes of the male and female population.D. The effect of a natural disaster on population size. What are three challenges ofusing science when drafting environmental law? The Federal Bureau of Investigations National InfraGard Program serves its members in four basic ways: Maintains an intrusion alert network using encrypted e-mail; maintains a secure Web site for communication about suspicious activity or intrusions; sponsors local chapter activities; and operates a help desk for questions. True or false? Write a program that asks the user to enter five different, integer numbers. The program then reports the largest number and the smallest number.Use the if statement, but no loops. One of the criticisms of conflict theory is that it A. sees changes in society as natural, inevitable, and even desirable. B. often overlooks gender, social class, and generational gaps. C. overemphasizes competition and coercion at the expense of order and stability. D. glosses over widespread inequality that a handful of powerful people create and maintain. E. overlooks the widespread impact of macro-level factors Financial contracts involving investments, mortgages, loans, and so on are based on either a fixed or a variable interest rate. Assume that fixed interest rates are used throughout this question. Addison deposited $1,000 in a savings account at her bank. Her account will earn an annual simple interest rate of 5.8%. If she makes no additional deposits or withdrawals, how much money will she have in her account in 9 years? As a hurricane passes through a region, there is an associated drop in atmospheric pressure. If the height of a mercury barometer drops by 21.4 mm from the normal height, what is the atmospheric pressure (in Pa)? Normal atmospheric pressure is 1.013 105 Pa and the density of mercury is 13.6 g/cm3 (NOTE: This is g/cm^3, not SI units of kg/m^3). The area of a telescope lens is 6.676 x 10 mm. (a) What is the area in square feet (ft)? Enter your answer in scientific notation. x 10ft (b) If it takes a technician 51.7 s to polish 1.46 x 10mm', how long does it take her to polish the entire lens? A 12 V storage battery is charged by a current of 20 A for 1 hr. A) How much power is required to charge the battery at this rate? B) How much energy has been provided during the process? A 200L tank is evacuated and then filled through a valve connected to an air reservoir at 1 MPa and 20 C. The valve is shut off when the pressure in the tank reaches 0.5 MPa. What is the mass of air in the tank? Which answer most accurately describes how African Americans participated in the American Revolutionary War?African Americans fought for neither the British or the Americans during the war because neither wanted to free slaves.African Americans fought for both militaries during the war because they both made promises of freedom from slavery.African Americans mostly fought alongside the British Army because they were more likely to give them their freedom.African Americans mostly fought for the Continental Army because they were fighting for independence and freedom. Shelly spent 10 minutes jogging and 20 minutes cycling and burned 300 calories. The next day, Shelly swapped times and did 20 minutes of jogging and 10 minutes of cycling, burning the same number of calories. How many calories were burned for each minute of jogging and how many for each minute of cycling? 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