Answer:D
Explanation:After water combined with CO2, it give glucose n oxygen
Answer:
D
Explanation:
The triglycerides in animals tend to be solids (i.e., fats) at room temperature whereas the triglycerides in plants tend to be liquids (i.e., oils) at room temperature. Based on this fact, what can you conclude about the characteristics of the fatty acids in animal triglycerides compared to the fatty acids in plant triglycerides
Answer:
The animal triglycerides have a higher proportion of saturated fatty acids than the plant triglycerides.
Explanation:
The triglycerides have three fatty acids attached to the single glycerol molecule by ester linkage. The fatty acids may be saturated or unsaturated. The triglycerides with saturated fatty acids such as the animal triglycerides exhibit a relatively tight packing of these fatty acids and make them solid at room temperature.
On the other hand, the triglycerides with unsaturated fatty acids such as the plant triglycerides are liquid at room temperature since the presence of double bonds in the hydrocarbon chains leads to weaker interactions and does not allow the tight packing of the fatty acids.
Compare and contrast the reasons cell division is important for unicellular and multicellular organisms. 2. Provide an example of why cell division remains important to an adult organism even after it is fully developed. 3. What is the role of growth factors? 4. Cells divide, differentiate, or die. What is differentiation?
(1)
For unicellular organisms, cell division is important for the reproduction of the population, Unicellular organism mainly use cell division, also called binary fission, for pollution growth. This is because unicellular organisms are only composed of one cell.
Multicellular organisms use cell division for growth and reproduction. Cell division causes increase in the number of cells composing the organism hence its growth in size. Cell division is also used to create gametes that are used in reproduction by fertilization.
(2)
Even in fully developed organisms, cell division is important in tissue repair. In tissue homeostasis, there is a balanced rate of cell division and cell death . An example in muscles. Due to the stress experienced by muscle cells, they usually have a lower life span and therefore the damaged cells are often replaced with new ones by cell division. This prevents tissue wastage.
(3)
Growth factors signal the growth of a cell. They usually bind receptors on the cell surface and indicate how the cell should grow and divide base don environmental stimuli. An example is during regular exercises. Growth factors indicate that the muscle cells should divide regularly and grow bigger to accommodate the higher stress in the muscles from the workout. This is how your muscles grow bigger and stronger with more exercise.
(4)
Differentiation of cells occurs through the silencing of some gene allowing the cell to produce particular proteins (and other biomolecules) that align with its functions in the body. This especially critical in multicellular organisms. An example is that while al the cells in your body have the same DNA, some cells differentiate into liver cells while others into lungs, stomach, heart, and etcetera.
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Cell division is important in both unicellular and multicellular organisms. It is the primary method of reproduction in unicellular organisms, allowing them to multiply and grow. In multicellular organisms, cell division is necessary for growth, maintenance, and repair of cells and tissues. Growth factors play a role in regulating cell division, and differentiation is the process by which cells become specialized to perform specific functions.
Explanation:Cell division is important in both unicellular and multicellular organisms, but for different reasons. In unicellular organisms, cell division is the primary method of reproduction. When a single cell divides, it creates two new cells, allowing the organism to multiply and grow.
In multicellular organisms, cell division is important for growth, maintenance, and repair of cells and tissues. For example, when an organism is injured, cell division allows for the regeneration of damaged tissues. Additionally, cell division is necessary for the production of new blood and skin cells in adults.
Growth factors are proteins that regulate cell division and cell growth. They bind to specific receptors on the surface of cells and initiate signaling pathways that promote cell division. These growth factors ensure that cell division occurs in a controlled and regulated manner.
Differentiation is the process by which cells become specialized to perform specific functions. During development, cells undergo differentiation to become different types of cells, such as nerve cells, muscle cells, or skin cells. This specialization allows for the coordinated functioning of different tissues and organs in multicellular organisms.
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Metabolic regulation ______a. Always involves changing the amount of an enzyme in the cell b. Is the same thing as metabolic control c. Maintains all reactions in a pathway near the equilibrium of each d. Is the maintenance of homeostasis at a molecular level
Answer:
Metabolic regulation D: Is the maintenance of homeostasis at a molecular level
Explanation:
Homeostasis means resistance to change to maintain a stable and constant internal environment in organisms. Body maintains homeostasis for many reasons like to maintain temperature, controlling pH and glucose levels. If these levels fluctuate, person can get sick.
Metabolic regulation provides an ideal homeostasis mechanism. It is a process by which body takes in nutrients in the form of food and energy is being delivered to us. Metabolic regulation includes regulation of an enzyme in a route of the body by responding either less or more to signals.
Metabolic regulation is the molecular-level maintenance of homeostasis in the cell, achieved through mechanisms such as changing enzyme activity or amounts, and feedback inhibition.
Explanation:Metabolic regulation d. Is the maintenance of homeostasis at a molecular level. Metabolic regulation includes various mechanisms that ensure metabolic pathways operate effectively to meet cellular energy requirements and material needs. These mechanisms include changing the activity or the amount of enzymes involved in these pathways.
Enzymes can be subject to allosteric control, where their activity is influenced by the binding of allosteric effectors, which can be metabolites whose levels reflect the cell's energy status. This is one way in which cells adapt quickly to their metabolic needs. Moreover, some key enzymes in metabolic pathways, particularly those catalyzing reactions far from equilibrium or at early committed steps, are highly regulated to control the entire pathway's output.
Feedback inhibition is a specific regulatory mechanism where a product of a pathway inhibits an enzyme involved in its production, helping to prevent excessive accumulation of the product and wastage of resources. Therefore, it's clear that while changing enzyme amounts can be a part of metabolic regulation, it doesn't always involve this and can operate through other means like allosteric regulation or feedback inhibition.
Give four specific counter examples for why each of the following definitions for a gene are incorrect. For each definition, there may be several possible counter examples. For full credit, each counter example should be distinct. For example, if a friend of yours claimed that "a gene is all the DNA sequences that determine an inherited trait", you could reply: "No, that is incorrect, because multiple genes will often determine an inherited trait."A. "A gene is a sequence of nucleotides from a start codon to a stop codon."B. "A gene is a sequence of nucleotides that codes for a functional protein."C. "A gene is a sequence of nucleotides that codes for an RNA molecule (which may be translated)."D. "A gene is the entire DNA sequence that affects the production of a protein."
Answer:
The correct answer is D A gene is the entire DNA sequence that affects the production of a protein.
Explanation:
A gene cannot be the entire DNA sequence because an entire DNA sequence contain both coding part or exons and non coding parts or introns.
But according to the defination of the gene we know a gene is all the DNA molecules that encodes that primary gene product which may be either RNA or protein.
Gene sequence does not includes non coding parts or introns.
The given definitions of genes are not accurate due to a variety of reasons. For example, not all genes code for proteins, some code for other types of RNA. Also, the concept of one gene-one protein is outdated as many traits are determined by multiple genes interacting with each other.
Explanation:A. The statement 'A gene is a sequence of nucleotides from a start codon to a stop codon' is not entirely correct. Here are some counter examples:
Some genes don't code for proteins and, therefore, lack start and stop codons.Genes contain other sequences like introns, promoters and regulators which are not encompassed between start and stop codons.B. Regarding the statement 'A gene is a sequence of nucleotides that codes for a functional protein', the counter examples are:
Not all genes code for proteins, some genes code for rRNA, tRNA, and other non-coding RNAs.Some genes produce proteins that are never functional. These proteins may be part of the process leading to functional proteins but are not functional themselves.C. For the claim 'A gene is a sequence of nucleotides that codes for an RNA molecule (which may be translated)', counter examples are:
Some genes code for RNA molecules that are not translated into proteins (e.g. rRNA, tRNA, and other non-coding RNAs).Genes contain elements like introns and promoters that never translate into RNA molecules.D. Lastly, the statement 'A gene is the entire DNA sequence that affects the production of a protein' is incorrect. The reasons include:
Not all genes affect protein production. Some genes affect the production of non-protein molecules like tRNA.The concept of gene centrality, or one gene-one protein hypothesis, is outdated. Many complex traits are determined by multiple genes interacting with the environment.Learn more about Gene definitions here:https://brainly.com/question/30767484
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5. The blob operon produces enzymes that convert compound A into compound B. The operon is controlled by a regulatory gene S. Normally these enzymes are synthesized only in the absence of compound B. If gene S is mutated, the enzymes are synthesized in the presence of B and in the absence of B. Does gene S produce a repressor or an activator? Is this operon inducible or repressible?
Answer:
Repressor and repressible.
Explanation:
Operon may be defined as the functional unit of the DNA that contains the cluster of genes. These genes are transcribed by the single promoter and works as polycistronic gene.
The blob operon is inactive in the presence of the B. Here, Gene S may acts as a repressor protein and requires the B compound to work as a corepressor. The blob operon acts as the repressible as it is inactive in the presence of B compound and become active only when the B compound is absent.
Thus, the answer is repressor and repressible.
Which statement is true regarding the two beakers and the contents of each? A) The beet core in beaker A is at equilibrium with the surrounding water. B) The beet core in beaker B will lose water to the surrounding environment. C) The beet core in beaker B would be more turgid than the beet core in beaker A. D) The beet cores in both beakers will not change over time. No water will be lost or gained.
Answer:
A) The beet core in beaker A is at equilibrium with the surrounding water
Explanation:
In the picture next to beaker A, there are to 0.4s next to weird symbols, I'm assuming it means the beet core and water are the same solubility.
Select the biochemical roles of cholecystokinin, or CCK. stimulates the secretion of sodium bicarbonate by the pancreas stimulates the secretion of digestive enzymes by the pancreas activates pancreatic zymogens to form active enzymes stimulates the secretion of bile salts by the gall bladder
Answer:
The CCK stimulates the secretion of digestive enzymes by the pancreas, and stimulates the secretion of bile salts by the gall bladder.
Explanation:
The cholecystokinin (CCK) is a hormone that has a very important role in the digestive processes.
The CCK is secreted by mucosal epithelial cells in the small intestine, specifically the duodenum segment, and has several functions during the digestive process. The CCK stimulates the release of digestive enzymes from the pancreas, and it signals the gall bladder to contract and pour its contents (bile salts) into the small intestine. Other functions are the inhibition of the gastric emptying, the stimulation of the intestinal motility, the secretion of glucagon (together with the hormone gastrin), and the increase of the pyloric sphincter contraction (together with the hormone secretin).
Identify two structural features of purines and pyrimidines.
Purines
__contain two heterocyclic rings.
__contain only two ring nitrogen atoms.
__contain four ring nitrogen atoms.
__contain one heterocyclic ring.
__contain only three ring nitrogen atoms.
Pyrimidines
__contain one heterocyclic ring.
__contain four ring nitrogen atoms.
__contain only three ring nitrogen atoms.
__contain two heterocyclic rings.
__contain only two ring nitrogen atoms.
Answer:
Purines and pyrimidines are the nitrogenous bases of the nucleic acids and act as the building blocks of the DNA and RNA.
They both show structural differences between them as the-
Purines :
1. contain only four ring nitrogen atoms.
2. contain two heterocyclic rings.
Pyrimidines:
1. contain only two ring nitrogen atoms.
2. contain one heterocyclic ring
Purines contain two heterocyclic rings and four nitrogen atoms, whereas pyrimidines have one heterocyclic ring with two nitrogen atoms.
Explanation:Identifying structural features of purines and pyrimidines is crucial in understanding nucleic acids and their components. The two structural features of purines are:
Contain two heterocyclic rings.Contain four ring nitrogen atoms.The purines, such as adenine (A) and guanine (G), consist of a six-membered ring fused to a five-membered ring, and collectively, they contain four nitrogen atoms within these rings. In distinction, the two structural features of pyrimidines are:
Contain one heterocyclic ring.Contain only two ring nitrogen atoms.Pyrimidines, including cytosine (C), thymine (T), and uracil (U), are characterized by a single six-membered ring with two nitrogen atoms.
An interesting observation made by the firefighters was that some parts of the forest seemed to escape the flames. The crown fire would drop down into a ground fire in these areas, and then jump back up into the canopy as the fire burned into adjacent areas. They observed that many of these areas had previously been thinned, which means that some of the trees were cut down and hauled away to be used as timber. In other areas, thinned forests burned with as much severity as the unthinned forest. Your objective is to design an observational study to help answer the question: What was the determining factor for areas that escaped the worst impacts of the fire, compared to areas that were severely burned?
Answer:
According to the previous observational study it is possible to notice that thinning determined in great way the rate of trees that survived the fire.
Explanation:
In general the trees that had been previously cut, were the ones that presented more resistance to the fire, while the trees that had not been thinned were the ones that were severely affected in the spreading conflagration. Reason why in comparison of these two samples, it would be possible to conclude that previously cutting down trees can survive better to the spreading fire.
An observational study can be designed to compare thinned and unthinned areas of the forest to determine the factors contributing to escaping the worst impacts of the fire.
Explanation:An observational study can be designed to help determine the factors that led to some areas of the forest escaping the worst impacts of the fire compared to severely burned areas. The study should focus on comparing areas that were previously thinned and areas that were unthinned. Researchers can collect data on the severity of the fire impacts in each area, measure tree density and species composition, and analyze the fire behavior in these areas. By comparing the two types of forests, the study can help identify whether thinning plays a role in reducing the severity of fire impacts.
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The photographs show comb jellies and an anglerfish in a benthic ecosystem.
Which feature of these organisms' bodies allows them to withstand the
extreme pressure of this environment?
O
A. Thick skin
O
B. A lack of air pockets
O
C. The presence of chemosynthetic bacteria
Answer:
B. A lack of air pockets
Explanation:
Answer: A lack of air pockets
Explanation:
The organism in the bethic zone can survive in such high pressure area. This is because the organism there have no air pockets that provides them the ability to be balanced in the water.
The human beings cannot survive under such pressure because we have air pockets inside the body which makes the body unstable and the pressure will be 1100 times more under such depth.
The fishes do not have air pockets that makes them able to withstand such pressure.
Other than the economic impact and sociological implications why should physicians be concerned about halitosis?
The correct answer is; it can be a symptom of a medical issue or cause a medical issue if it is not taken care of.
Further Explanation:
Halitosis can cause issues for the people who suffer from bad breath. When a person has bad breath, others do not want to be close to them. It can cause issues in relationships and at work. It can cause people to not keep a job or a significant other.
Many studies have shown that halitosis/bad breath can lead to or be caused from numerous disease of the mouth. Some of the medical issues are;
gingivitis xerostomiaintra-oral neoplasiaPostnasal dripLearn more about halitosis at https://brainly.com/question/1837104
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Scientists observe that cells are found in every part of every organism. Which
does this evidence support?*
O
Cells are able to get rid of waste.
O
Cells are the basic unit of life.
О
Cells are able to take in energy. O
Cells are able to reproduce.
The DNA in a cell's nucleus encodes proteins that are eventually targeted to every membrane and compartment in the cell, as well as proteins that are targeted for secretion from the cell.
For example, consider these two proteins:
1. Phosphofructokinase (PFK) is an enzyme that functions in the cytoplasm during
glycolysis.
2. Insulin, a protein that regulates blood sugar levels, is secreted from specialized
pancreatic cells.
The question is incomplete. The part of the question after this is: Assume that you can track the cellular locations of these two proteins from the time that translation is complete until the proteins reach their final destinations.
Answer:
PFK: cytoplasm
insulin: ER--> Golgi--> outside cell
Explanation:
The proteins which are made and have to function in the same cell like Phosphofructokinase (PFK) do not have to undergo the modification processes which are required fro transporting a protein. Such kind of proteins are translated in the free cytoplasmic ribosomes and released into the cytoplasm where they start to function.
The proteins like insulin need to be traveled to different cells where they have to function. Such kind of proteins are formed in the ribosomes which have rough Endoplasmic Reticulum attached to them. From here, they travel to the Golgi complex where they are modified and packaged. From the Golgi-complex, these proteins are moved out of the cell.
Which of the following is an example of heat transfer by convection? Question 2 options: The coils of a toaster become red. A hot wood stove heats an entire room. A teaspoon in a glass of hot tea becomes warm. The handle of a pot that is being heated becomes warm.
Answer:
The correct option is B. A hot wood stove heats an entire room.
Explanation:
Convection can be described as a method of heat transfer in which heat is transferred by a medium like a gas or a fluid.
The warmer air has less density as compared to cooler air. Hence, convection currents are generated which transfer heat.
In the option B, heat is being transferred by the particles of the air. The air near the stove is warmer as compared to the air in other parts of the room. Hence, a convection current is generated which transfers the heat.
Which of the following types of glial cells are the most abundant and versatile, and aid in making exchanges between capillaries and neurons? a. microglia b. ependymal cells c. oligodendrocytes d. astrocytes
Answer:
The correct option is d. Astrocytes are the most abundant and versatile glial cells, and aid in making exchanges between capillaries and neurons.
Explanation:
Glial cells have the function of protecting neurons and keeping them together, that is, they act as support cells. Among them we find:
Astrocytes are the most abundant glial cells, star-shaped and located in the central nervous system (in the brain and spinal cord). Its function is to maintain an appropriate chemical environment for neurons to exchange information, helping the exchange between neurons and capillaries. In addition, they wrap the capillaries forming part of the blood-brain barrier.
The other options are also glial cells but with different functions:
Microglia: They are extremely small glial cells of the central nervous system, their function is to elicit neuronal wastes and defend or protect the brain from external microorganisms .
Ependymal cells: These are ciliated glial cells of the central nervous system that form the epidendum and cover the ventricles of the brain and the central duct of the spinal cord.
Oligodendrocytes: This type of glial cell involves some neuronal axons, provides support for neuron prolongations and produces myelin.
Ependymal cells are the most abundant and versatile type of glial cells in the CNS. They produce cerebrospinal fluid, which acts as a circulatory fluid in the brain and spinal cord. Ependymal cells help cushion and protect neurons.
Explanation:Ependymal cells are the most abundant and versatile type of glial cells in the central nervous system (CNS). They aid in making exchanges between capillaries and neurons by producing cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). CSF acts as a circulatory fluid that performs some functions of blood in the brain and spinal cord. Ependymal cells filter the blood to produce CSF, which helps cushion and protect the neurons.
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Which statement about Sanger sequencing is false?
(A) Because a dideoxynucleotide lacks the 3'-hydroxyl group, the next nucleotide cannot be added, and therefore DNA synthesis is blocked at the point of addition.
(B) Four different arrays of labeled DNA chains increasing in length by one base are produced.
(C) If the tag is a fluorescent dye and a different fluorescent color emitter is used for each of the four ddNTP reactions, then the four reactions can take place in the same test tube and the four sets of nested DNA chains can undergo electrophoresis together.
(D) To read the DNA sequence of the synthesized strand in the 5'-to-3' direction, the gel is read from top to bottom.
The false statement in Sanger sequencing is that the gel is read from top to bottom.
Explanation:The false statement about Sanger sequencing is (D) To read the DNA sequence of the synthesized strand in the 5'-to-3' direction, the gel is read from top to bottom.
In Sanger sequencing, the gel is actually read from bottom to top. The fragments of DNA are separated by size using electrophoresis, with shorter fragments traveling farther from the starting point. The smallest, labeled fragment is located near the bottom of the gel, while the longest, unlabeled fragment is located near the top of the gel. By reading the sequence from the bottom to the top, the DNA sequence can be determined.
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One of the primary functions of RNA molecules is to _____. One of the primary functions of RNA molecules is to _____. act as a pattern or blueprint to form DNA function in the synthesis of proteins transmit genetic information to offspring form the genes of higher organisms make a copy of itself, thus ensuring genetic continuity
Answer: function in the synthesis of proteins
Explanation:
Ribonucleic acid or RNA is a kind of essential nucleic acid present in the cells of the living beings. The main function of the RNA is to carry the information present in the coded form in amino acid sequence obtain from the genes to produce protein molecules. The amino acid sequence gets assembled on the ribosome brought about by the messenger RNA (mRNA) each amino acid sequence encodes for a typical protein molecule. A single strand of DNA acts as a blueprint for the synthesis of mRNA which is transcribed from the strand of DNA.
One of the primary functions of RNA molecules is to function in the synthesis of proteins. One of its primary functions is to serve as an intermediary between DNA and protein synthesis. This process is known as protein synthesis or translation, and it involves the conversion of genetic information stored in DNA into functional proteins.
The first step is the process of transcription, where RNA molecules are synthesized based on the DNA template. The RNA polymerase enzyme binds to a specific region of DNA called the promoter and copies one of the DNA strands, called the template strand, to produce a complementary RNA molecule. This RNA molecule is known as messenger RNA (mRNA) because it carries the genetic information from DNA to the protein synthesis machinery.
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If a small founder population of 12 people ends up on a small island, and one member of the population had a mutation that creates a new allele, what is the likelihood that the allele will be eliminated from the population? Enter your answer as a percentage (not decimal), omit the percent sign however.
A Proximity of 92 percentage may likely be eliminated from the population.
Explanation:
This is based on the principle of genetic drift which states that the allele frequency in a population changes from generation to generation. Sometimes there in a loss of alleles and otherwise there is a fixation or rise.
If there is a probability of an allele being fixed we have to calculate the initial frequency of the mutation.
Mutation fixing probability = No. mutation alleles / total Number of alleles
= 1/12 = 0.083
Therefore the probability of the allele getting eliminated is
Elimination probability = 1 – mutation fixing probability
= 1 - 0.083 = 0.917 =91.7 % = 92 %
Tigers and lions inhabit different areas and different habitats. Tigers live in forested areas in South East Asia while Lions inhabit open savannas in Africa and South West Asia. Lions and tigers never mate in the wild because they are geographically and ecologically isolated. However, in the zoo, they can mate and produce viable offspring. A) Would you classify tigers and lions as the same species using the biological species concept, yes/no and explain what was the main factor in your decision. B) Would you classify tigers and lions as the same species using the ecological species concept, yes/no and explain what was the main factor in your decision.
Answer:
A. In biology, species can be described as organisms which are similar and are able to inter breed and produce fertile offsprings. According to the definition, tigers and lions have the capability to interbreed and produce viable offsprings. Hence, they can be classified as same species.
B. In ecological terms, I will not classify lions and tigers as the same species. Because they are not living in the same areas and belong to different environments.
The steps of glycolysis between glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate and 3-phosphoglycerate involve all of the following except:A. ATP synthesisB. Utilization of PiC. Oxidation of NADH to NAD+.D. The formation of 1,3-Bisphosphoglycerate.E. Catalysis by Phosphoglycerate Mutase.
Option(C)- Oxidation of NADH to NAD+H
Explanation:In glycolysis at the step between formation of 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde from glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate, NAD+H is reduced to form NADH(where NAD stands for nicotinamide-adenine dinucleotide) which means a hydrogen atom is added in NAD forming NADH.This enters in elecron transport chain (etc) in mitochondrial membrane which ultimately helps in production of ATP.Hence all other options are true except option C.Result: Therefore option C is the correct answer.
Final answer:
The incorrect step in the sequence of glycolysis from glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate to 3-phosphoglycerate is the oxidation of NADH to NAD+, as this step actually involves the reduction of NAD+ to NADH.
Explanation:
The steps of glycolysis in which glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is converted to 3-phosphoglycerate include several biochemical reactions. Among them, oxidation where NAD+ is reduced to NADH, the phosphorylation adding a phosphate group (Pi) to form 1,3-Bisphosphoglycerate, and the ATP synthesis during substrate-level phosphorylation when the high-energy phosphate group from 1,3-Bisphosphoglycerate is transferred to ADP to form ATP. Furthermore, the enzyme Phosphoglycerate Mutase catalyzes the conversion of 3-phosphoglycerate into 2-phosphoglycerate, which is a later step in glycolysis.
The correct option in the context of this question would state an incorrect association within this sequence of reactions. As such, option C, 'Oxidation of NADH to NAD+' is incorrect because during this step of glycolysis, NAD+ is actually reduced to NADH, not oxidized.
If you started with a cell with four chromosomes, what would happen if sexual reproduction took place for four generations using diploid (2n) cells instead of haploid cells (n)?
(In other words, how many chromosomes would the cells have after four generations without meiosis?).
Answer:
it will be 64 chromosomes after four generations.
Explanation:
Sexual reproduction follows meiosis cell division . this is two step process in which one round of replication occurs and two round of cell division occurs. by which chromosomes are converted to haploid state(n) instead of diploid(2n) state.
when two haploid cells are sexually matted, one diploid(2n) zygote cells are produced.
hare no haploid cells are produced rather diploid cells are matted. So, the chromosome no. of zygote will be doubled after each generation.
so, after 4 generation their will be 64 chromosome.
If sexual reproduction took place for four generations using diploid (2n) cells instead of haploid cells (n), the number of chromosomes would double with each generation.
Explanation:If sexual reproduction took place for four generations using diploid (2n) cells instead of haploid cells (n), the number of chromosomes would double with each generation. In the first generation, each parent's diploid cell with four chromosomes would combine, resulting in 8 chromosomes in the offspring.
In the second generation, the offspring's diploid cells with 8 chromosomes would combine, resulting in 16 chromosomes in the next generation. This doubling would continue for each subsequent generation, resulting in 32 chromosomes in the third generation and 64 chromosomes in the fourth generation.
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During glycogenolysis, glycogen is broken down and converted to glucose-6-phosphate, which can enter glycolysis or be used by the liver to raise blood glucose levels. Complete the following sentences describing glycogen breakdown. Move the appropriate term to each blank. Some terms will be used more than once, and two terms will not be used at all.
1. The enzyme ________ removes terminal glucose residues from glycogen by cleaving ________ linkages.
2. Enzyme activity stops when the enzyme reaches a point _______ glucose residues from a branch point, which is a(n) ________ linkage.
3. The ________ of the debranching enzymes moves three glucose residues to another branch, connecting them by a(n) ________ linkage.
4. The ________ activity of the debranching enzyme removes the glucose at its ________ linkage.
5. The enzyme ________ continues removing terminal glucose residues
Answers:
Explanation:
1. The enzyme _Glycogen phosphorylase_ removes terminal glucose residues from glycogen by cleaving _α-[1→4 ]-glycosidic bond_linkages.
2. Enzyme activity stops when the enzyme reaches a point _Four_ glucose residues from a branch point, which is a(n) _α-[1→6]-glycosidic bond_ linkage.
3. The _glucosyltransferase_ of the debranching enzymes moves three glucose residues to another branch, connecting them by a(n) _α-[1→6]-glycosidic bond_ linkage.
4. The _glucosidase_ activity of the debranching enzyme removes the glucose at its _α-[1→6]-glycosidic bond_ linkage.
5. The enzyme _glucosidase_ continues removing terminal glucose residues.
______ are chromosome sequences in which multiple genes contribute to a quantitative trait.
Answer:
QTL or Quantitative Trait locus
Explanation:
QTL or Quantitative Trait locus are chromosome sequences in which multiple genes contribute to a quantitative trait.
QLT is a locus that correlates with variation of quantitative trait in the phenotype of the population of an organism. It is an statistical method that links two type of information phenotypic and genotypic data in an attempt to explain the genetic variation in complex trait.
An oak tree produces two kinds of leaves: large with shallow lobes and narrow with deep lobes. If this dimorphism is based solely on the ecological condition of the amount of sunlight exposure and there is no genetic difference between leaves that express either of the two forms, then:_______.
Answer:
Natural selection is less likely to determine the fitness of one leaf in comparison to the other.
The variation in oak tree leaf forms depending on sunlight exposure, with no genetic difference in the leaves, exemplifies phenotypic plasticity, allowing efficient sunlight capture, critical for the tree's growth and dominance in its environment.
An oak tree produces two kinds of leaves: large with shallow lobes and narrow with deep lobes. If this dimorphism is based solely on the ecological condition of the amount of sunlight exposure and there is no genetic difference between leaves that express either of the two forms, then this phenomenon is an example of phenotypic plasticity. Phenotypic plasticity refers to the ability of an organism to change its phenotype in response to changes in the environment. In the context of oak trees, the variation in leaf shape depending on the sunlight exposure allows the tree to efficiently capture sunlight, which is its primary energy resource. As oak trees develop, they allocate a significant portion of their energy budget to growth and maintaining their large size, which in turn aids them in dominating the competition for sunlight.
A researcher added a mixture of animal proteins to a physiological bufler solution (pH 7.4) in a test tube incubated at 37"C.
The researcher then added purified pepsin to the mbture, but even after several hours, the proteins were not digested.
Which of the following would explain this result?
a)Pepsin must be converted to its active form, pepsinogen, which digests proteins.
b)The pH was too high
c)Pepsin doesn't digest animal proteins
d)The temperature was too low
Answer:
b)The pH was too high
Explanation:
pepsin is enzyme present in stomach and involves in digestion of proteins. Pepsin dont work at high pH as it normally activates around acidic pH 2. so in stomach, HCL is released from the linings, which will decrease the pH of the stomach and will cause activation of pepsin after the stimulation of food arrival in to the stomach.
The physical process that makes gene linkage incomplete is
A. segregation
B. mitosis
C. the lining up of chromosomes in the middle of the cell
D. cyclin reaching a threshold concentration
E. crossing over
Answer:
Option E, Crossing Over
Explanation:
In the process of crossing over, a chromosome is replicated to produce two sister chromatids.
Sister chromatids have genes that are divided and shared with the offspring in equal number. In this way genetic traits are exchanged and the offspring has a new set of genes.
This process takes place at the prophase stage of cell division.
Without crossing over, gene linkage is incomplete.
Hence , option E is correct
Varying the enzyme- For a one-substrate, enzyme –catalyzed reaction, double –reciprocal plots were determined for three different enzyme concentrations. Which of the three families of curve would you expect to be obtained? Explain.
Answer:
answer is in the image below.
Explanation:
For different enzyme concentrations in a one-substrate, enzyme-catalyzed reaction, the expected double-reciprocal plots are a set of straight lines that intersect the x-axis at the same point (same Km) but intersect the y-axis at different points (different 1/Vmax for different enzyme concentrations). These lines reflect the enzyme specificity and the principle of induced fit.
Explanation:In a one-substrate, enzyme-catalysed reaction, double-reciprocal plots were determined for three different enzyme concentrations. For such reactions, these plots, also known as Lineweaver-Burk plots, are commonly used to investigate different enzyme kinetics. They are typically represented by straight lines in different slopes, each line representing a different concentration of enzyme. The slope of each line is equal to Km/Vmax (where Km is the Michaelis-Menten constant and Vmax is the maximum rate of reaction).
Here, varying the concentration of the enzyme does not change the Km but will increase the Vmax as more enzyme molecules are available to catalyze reactions. Therefore, the slope of the line (Km/Vmax) will decrease as the Vmax increases with increasing enzyme concentration.
In summary, the family of curves expected is a set of lines intercepting the x-axis at the same point (same Km) and the y-axis at different points (different 1/Vmax for different enzyme concentrations). This illustrates the enzyme specificity and the principle of induced fit, which describes the interaction between substrate and enzyme.
Learn more about enzyme-catalyzed reaction here:https://brainly.com/question/39284388
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Why can an exogenous protein, protein that is added by experimentalists that has the same amino acid sequence as endogenous protein, be resistant to RNA interference while the endogenous protein is susceptible to RNA interference?
(A) The genetic code is degenerate, meaning that there is more than one codon for a single amino acid.
(B) The exogenous protein consists of introns rendering the exogenous protein resistant.
(C) The endogenous protein contains introns which is why its susceptible to RNA interference.
(D) The genetic code is degenerate, meaning that there is only one codon for a single amino acid.
Answer:
(A) The genetic code is degenerate, meaning that there is more than one codon for a single amino acid.
Explanation:
RNA interference occurs when small single-stranded RNA molecules inhibit the expression of the mRNA having a sequence complementary to them. The sequence of mRNA is read in the form of triplets during the process of translation. The base triplets make the genetic code and specify amino acids to be added to the protein. One genetic code specifies a particular amino acid but some amino acids have more than one genetic code, that is, the genetic code is degenerate.
Therefore, an exogenous protein with the same amino acid sequence as that of the endogenous protein may be resistant to the RNA interference as its mRNA has alternative genetic codes for the same amino acid. For example, if mRNA with "GCU" code is susceptible to RNA interference, the mRNA with GCA may be resistant to it. Though both specify the amino acid alanine.
Which of the following is not a function associated with the cytoskeleton of bacteria? Plays a role in cell division. Plays are role in maintaining cell shape. Plays a role in segregating the bacterial chromosomes during cell division. Plays a role in the division of the cytoplasm into distinct compartments.
Answer:
Segregating the bacerial chromosomes during cell division is not a function associated with the cytoskeleton of bacteria
Explanation:
A cytoskeleto is in the cytoplasm of cells including archaea and bacteria.Cytoskeleton is responsible for the cell division, 'cell morphogenesis' is the process responsible for generation of the complex shapes of adults from the cells, DNA partitioning and cell motility. The structure, behaviour and function of the cytoskeleton varies upon every organism and the type of cell.Select the statement that is most correct. Select one:
a. The cell bodies of afferent ganglia are located in the spinal cord.
b. Ganglia associated with afferent nerve fibers contain cell bodies of sensory neurons.
c. Ganglia are collections of neuron cell bodies in the spinal cord that are associated with efferent fibers.
d. The dorsal root ganglion is a motor-only structure.
Answer:
b. Ganglia associated with afferent nerve fibers contain cell bodies of sensory neurons.
Explanation: