During which phase do chromosomes become condensed

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

Prophase.

Explanation:

During prophase of mitosis, chromosomes become condensed and appear visible.

Answer 2
Prophase is when the chromosomes become condensed

Related Questions

A female is born with attached earlobes, which is a recessive phenotype. Which of the following genotypes could her parents have?

a. Rr and RR
b. Rr and rr
c. RR and RR
d. RR and rr

Answers

The answer is B because if you recross them you get the same answer Rr and rr so the correct answer is B

To have a child with attached earlobes (rr), both parents must contribute a recessive allele. The only possible genotypes for the parents that can produce such a combination are one parent with Rr (heterozygous) and the other with rr (homozygous recessive).

If a female is born with attached earlobes, which is a recessive phenotype, we can determine the possible genotypes of her parents. Having free-hanging earlobes is an autosomal dominant trait, while attached earlobes are a recessive trait. Since the female has attached earlobes, her genotype must be rr. Each parent must contribute one recessive allele for the trait to be expressed, so each parent must have at least one r allele.

Based on the choices provided:

a. Rr and RR - Not possible because the RR genotype would not give the recessive allele.b. Rr and rr - Possible because both parents would contribute a recessive r allele to the child.c. RR and RR - Impossible because both parents would only contribute dominant alleles.d. RR and rr - Not possible because the RR genotype would not give the recessive allele.

Therefore, the correct genotypes for the parents of a female born with attached earlobes are (b) Rr and rr.

Why is glycolysis considered to be one of the first metabolic pathways to have evolved?

Answers

Answer:

Because it's anaerobic

Explanation:

This metabolic pathway can be found in most of the organisms in the nature.

That gives us the guideline that it's one of the first in appear, even in the abstence of oxygen.

Millions of years ago, there was no presence of free oxygen in the atmosphere.

Final answer:

Glycolysis is considered one of the first metabolic pathways to have evolved because it is a simple and ancient process that does not require oxygen. It provides energy to cells and is a key step in the breakdown of glucose. Glycolysis likely evolved early in the history of life on Earth.

Explanation:

Glycolysis is considered to be one of the first metabolic pathways to have evolved because it is a simple and ancient process that does not require oxygen and can occur in the absence of organelles like mitochondria. This makes it suitable for early life forms that lack complex cellular structures. Glycolysis provides energy in the form of ATP to cells and is a key step in the breakdown of glucose, which is a fundamental source of energy.

Glycolysis takes place in the cytoplasm of cells and involves a series of enzymatic steps. It converts one molecule of glucose into two molecules of pyruvate, producing a small amount of ATP and NADH along the way. The pyruvate can then be further metabolized to produce more energy, depending on the availability of oxygen in the cell.

The simple and essential nature of glycolysis, its ability to occur in the absence of complex cellular structures, and its fundamental role in energy production make it a metabolic pathway that likely evolved early in the history of life on Earth.

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In this experiment, you will change the temperature and particle size of the antacid tablet and observe how these changes affect the reaction. write a scientific question that you will answer by doing this experiment.

Answers

The scientific questions that could be answered by this experiment are:

How does the particle size affect the rate of dissolution of the antacid?

What is the effect of changing the temperature on the rate of dissolution of the antacid?

Further Explanation:

A scientific question must be about the relationship of the dependent and independent variables in the investigation.

The independent variable is the variable that the experimenter manipulates and changes voluntarily. The dependent variable is the responding variable. It changes only in response to the manipulation that was done to the independent variable. The dependent variable is usually what is observed or measured in the experiment.

In the given investigation, the independent variables were temperature and/or particle size. For the experiment to be fair, all variables must be kept constant except the independent variable. To avoid confusion, only one independent variable is manipulated at a time. Therefore, in this experiment, either the temperature will be changed first, or the particle size. It would be confusing to change both at the same time.

The effect of the independent variables on the reaction will be observed, hence, it is the dependent variable. To narrow down which aspect of the reaction will be observed, the focus could be on the rate of dissolution or how fast the antacid dissolves.

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Keywords: scientific problem, variables, dissolution

Final answer:

A suitable scientific question for the experiment could be, 'How do temperature and particle size of an antacid tablet affect the rate of reaction?' This is relevant because both the temperature and particle size play crucial roles in the rate of chemical reactions.

Explanation:

A suitable scientific question for this experiment could be: How does the temperature and particle size of an antacid tablet affect the rate of reaction?

From what we know, higher molarity and temperature increase the rate of a reaction, along with smaller particle size due to the more reactive surface being exposed. As such, in this experiment, changing the temperature and particle size of the antacid tablet may alter the speed at which the reaction process occurs. To illustrate, if the antacid tablet is crushed into smaller pieces, it might react more rapidly because a more reactive surface exists. Similarly, if the temperature of the reactant (antacid tablet) is raised, the reaction rate could also speed up.

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What is the correct sequence of steps in cellular respiration

Answers

Answer:

Cellular respiration takes in food and uses it to create ATP, a chemical which the cell uses for energy. Usually, this process uses oxygen, and is called aerobic respiration. It has four stages known as glycolysis, Link reaction, the Krebs cycle, and the electron transport chain.

Which of the following statements about innate immunity is true?

It involves the activity of B and T cells.
Innate immunity is present at birth. Innate immunity involves specific recognition of microorganisms via a memory response.
The innate immune response does not have a mechanism for detecting invading microorganisms.
It is activated only in response to tissue damage or a signal from an infected cell.

Answers

Answer:

Innate immunity is present at birth.

Explanation:

The immune system is divided into two categories such as innate immunity and adaptive immunity. The innate immunity is present in an individual during birth. It does not depend on prior contact with microorganisms or immunization. It is present at birth and changes throughout the life of the individual. There are different barriers of innate immunity such as skin, mucous, lysozymes (present in the tears). This type of response is rapid and not specific. It has no memory. The cells of innate immunity are the phagocytic cell, dendritic cells.

Final answer:

The true statement regarding innate immunity is that it is present from birth, does not specifically recognize microorganisms via a memory response, and is not solely activated by tissue damage or signals from infected cells.

Explanation:

The statement that innate immunity is present at birth is true. Innate immunity is a form of immune defense that is evolutionarily older and present in the body from the point of birth.

The other statements are false: Innate immunity that does not involve the specific recognition of microorganisms via a memory response. This is a feature of the adaptive immune system, which involves B and T cells. Furthermore, the innate immune system does possess mechanisms for detecting invading microorganisms through pattern recognition receptors that recognize pathogen-associated molecular patterns. Lastly, while tissue damage or a signal from an infected cell can activate the innate immune response, it can also be activated by other factors such as the recognition of a foreign substance or pathogen.

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WILL MARK AS BRAINLIEST!!!

The component that makes up the majority of blood is

A. platelets.
B. white blood cells.
C. red blood cells.
D. plasma.

Answers

It is plasma. \\D\\\

The correct answer is option D. plasma.

What does plasma do to your body?

Plasma is a liquid component of blood and makes up 55% of the total amount of blood. Plasma is needed for the body to recover from injuries, distribute nutrients, remove waste products, and prevent infections as it travels through the circulatory system.

Plasma is the clear, straw-colored liquid portion of blood that remains after the removal of red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets, and other cellular components. At about 55%, it is the largest single component of human blood and contains water, salts, enzymes, antibodies, and other proteins.

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Which process does the plant need energy to perform?

A. Release of oxygen into the atmosphere
B. Transpiration of water
C. Absorbing water into the root hairs
D. Pulling nutrients into the root hairs

Answers

The plant needs to release oxygen into the atmosphere to produce energy by a process called photosynthesis.

What is photosynthesis?

Photosynthesis is a group of chemical reactions by which plant cells can produce energy and biomass by absorbing the energy of the sun (solar radiation).

The plant makes photosynthesis by absorbing CO2 and releasing oxygen, and they also need water and sunlight to perform this process.

Oxygen can be considered as a product of photosynthetic reactions that use other organisms as reactant during cellular respiration, while the other photosynthetic product is glucose, which serves as a source of energy.

In conclusion, the plant needs to release oxygen into the atmosphere to produce energy by a process called photosynthesis.

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The process that the plant needs energy to perform is pulling nutrients into the root hairs. Therefore, option D is correct

- Active Transport: Bringing nutrients into root hairs requires energy because it involves active transport, which moves molecules or ions against their concentration gradient.

- ATP: The energy for active transport comes from adenosine triphosphate (ATP), which is produced through cellular respiration in plant cells.

- Root Function: Nutrient uptake by roots is crucial for plant growth, development, and overall health, as nutrients are necessary for various metabolic processes and structural components.

- Absorption of Water: While water absorption into root hairs is vital for plant survival, it typically occurs through passive transport processes like osmosis, which do not require additional energy.

- Transpiration: The transpiration of water, or the loss of water vapor from plant surfaces, does not directly require energy from the plant, as it happens passively through evaporation driven by environmental factors such as temperature and humidity.

How do nerve signals pass through a synapse?
by depolarization
by acetylcholine
by chemical transmitters
by axon connections

Answers

Answer:

By axon connections.

Hope you got your answer.

The answer is D by axon connections

According to drive theory, secondary drives are a. ​biological needs that demand satisfaction. b. ​learned through experience. c. ​based on instincts. d. ​essential for survival. a. ​homeostatically controlled.

Answers

Answer: b. ​learned through experience.

Explanation:

Clark Hull was an engineer and formulated his theory of behavior based on Pavlov's conditioning laws (conditioned reflexes). For Hull, the impulse was an internal force capable of motivating behavior. According to his theory, the impulse has to do with bodily needs, the deficit in the ideal conditions of the organism and the basis of motivation. His model was based on  2 different drives, the primary and secondary drives. The primary drives are related to the innate biological needs, which are not learned, and which are vital, such as breathing, drinking water, eating, among others. Secondary drives refer to impulses that are learned during existence and are reinforced from the moment that the primary needs are met, by a conditioning process that motivates the organism and is related to environmental stimuli.

Final answer:

Secondary drives, according to drive theory, are learned through experience. They are different from primary drives, which are biological needs that demand satisfaction to maintain homeostasis. Secondary drives are motivators of behavior based on experience or conditioning.

Explanation:

According to the drive theory, secondary drives are b. ​learned through experience. The drive theory suggests that deviations from homeostasis create physiological needs, resulting in psychological drive states which direct behavior to meet these needs, eventually restoring the system to a state of homeostasis.

However, it's important to differentiate between primary and secondary drives. Primary drives are biological needs that demand satisfaction and are essential for survival, like hunger and thirst. They directly correspond with maintaining the body's homeostasis - stability of internal conditions.

Secondary drives, on the other hand, are not directly related to biological needs, but they are still important motivators of behavior. These are learned through experience or conditioning. Examples of secondary drives could include the desire for wealth, success, social acceptance, or love. These drives are often linked to primary drives but extend beyond immediate physiological needs.

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The cell respiration pathway that occurs in the mitochondria is

Answers

Answer:

The path of cellular respiration that occurs in the mitochondria is aerobic.

Explanation:

Aerobic respiration is what uses oxygen to extract energy from glucose. It is carried out inside cells, in organelles called mitochondria, through which chemical energy is obtained from the breakdown of organic molecules.

To obtain glucose energy, a process occurs in which the carbon is oxidized and when it reaches the mitochondria it mixes with the water making a chemical compound called glucositisa ( pathway responsible for oxidizing glucose to obtain energy for the cell) in which the oxygen from the air is the oxidant used.

Aerobic respiration is a process consisting of chemical reactions that are grouped into 3 stages, taking into account the place of the cell in which each one develops.

1) Glucolisis: It is carried out in the cytoplasm.

2) Krebs Cycle: It is produced in the mitochondria matrix.

3) Respiratory Chain: Occurs in mitochondrial ridges.  

Final answer:

The primary cell respiration pathway in the mitochondria is the Krebs cycle, which generates ATP, NADH, and FADH2 from the oxidation of acetyl-CoA. These products are then used in the Electron Transport Chain, also in the mitochondria, to create more ATP.

Explanation:

The cell respiration pathway that occurs in the mitochondria is the Krebs cycle, also known as the citric acid cycle or TCA cycle. Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm where glucose is converted into pyruvate. The pyruvate then enters the mitochondria where it is used in the Krebs cycle. This cycle oxidizes acetyl-CoA into carbon dioxide and produces ATP, NADH, and FADH2. These electron carriers (NADH and FADH2) are then used in the Electron Transport Chain (also in the mitochondria) to produce more ATP, which is the energy currency of the cell.

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A polytypic species is:(A) one that has no phenotypic variability has never been observed in nature (B) is one composed of local populations that differ from one another with regard to the expression of no more than three traits
(C)​ is one that has no phenotypic variability.
(D) is composed of widely dispersed populations.
(E) has never been observed in nature.

Answers

Answer:

(D) is composed of widely dispersed populations.

Explanation:

A polytypic species is the one that is composed of various local populations. These local populations differ from each other with respect to one or more genetic traits. Each of the local populations that make a polytypic species exhibit genetic variations among its individuals.

For example, individuals from the local population of human exhibit variations for genetic traits such as skin color, hair color, etc.

Which of the following events occurs during transcription?

a.Those segments of the RNA strand that do not actually code for the protein are removed.

b. A molecule of RNA is formed based on the sequence of nucleotides in DNA.

c. The message in mRNA is translated into a protein.

d. A cap is added to the RNA molecule.
mRNA binds to a ribosome in the cytoplasm.

Answers

Answer:

Letter B. A molecule of RNA id formed based on the sequence of nucleotides in DNA

Explanation:

The process to form a protein from the information in genes are called the central dogma of molecular biology, this dogma consists of two main steps.

          Transcription                  Translation

DNA           to →               RNA         to →            Protein

The first one consists in to obtain a molecule of RNA using DNA molecules as a template, this RNA contains a message from the DNA. In the next step the RNA molecule act as a messenger (also called mRNA) because it   contains the information to form a protein, in this point there are others additional steps, for example, removing the segments in the RNA that do not code a protein or the mRNA is modified to  binds  a ribosome ( structure that can “read” the message in the mRNA to form a protein).

To sum up, in transcription, we obtain a molecule of RNA that comes from DNA. The translation is the process to read de RNA to form a protein.

Final answer:

During transcription, a molecule of RNA is created that mirrors the sequence of nucleotides in DNA, which then leaves the nucleus to assist in protein synthesis during translation.

Explanation:

The event that occurs during transcription is 'b. A molecule of RNA is formed based on the sequence of nucleotides in DNA.' During transcription, the DNA sequence of a gene is transcribed into an RNA molecule. This process begins when the DNA unwinds, and transcription factors, along with RNA polymerase, bind to the DNA sequence. RNA polymerase then synthesizes the mRNA strand by adding complementary nucleotides to the growing RNA chain. As a result, mRNA is created as a single-stranded transcript of the DNA which carries the genetic information necessary for protein synthesis. This mRNA later exits the nucleus and enters the cytoplasm for translation, at which point it interacts with ribosomes and tRNA to synthesize proteins.

The CARDIA (Coronary Artery Risk Development in Adulthood) study began with over four thousand healthy 18- to 30-year-olds; most were reexamined 7 to 20 years later. The study found that _____.

Answers

Answer:

The CARDIA (Coronary Artery Risk Development in Adulthood) study began with over four thousand healthy 18- to 30-year-olds; most were reexamined 7 to 20 years later. The study found that those who were the first assessment were four times likely to have diabetes and high blood pressure in middle age.

Explanation:

The sedentary lifestyles are responsible for many heart attacks and  and coronary diseases.

What is the most important distinction between the membrane transporters known as channel proteins and those known as carrier proteins?

Answers

Answer:

Channel proteins form hydrophilic channels to passively transport substances down the concentration gradient.

Carrier proteins bind to substances to transport them actively against the concentration gradient. They do not form channels.

Explanation:

Channel proteins are the membrane proteins that serve in transport of small polar molecules and/or ions by making a hydrophilic pore across the membrane. These molecules diffusion through the pore and exhibit facilitated diffusion.  

Carrier proteins are the membrane proteins that transport the substances across the membrane by binding to them. They do not form the hydrophilic channels. Carrier proteins serve in the active transport of molecules against the concentration gradient.

At the end of meiosis 2 how many cells are there

Answers

Answer:

4

Explanation:

Meiosis II starts with two haploid parent cells and ends with four haploid daughter cells, maintaining the number of chromosomes in each cell. Homologous pairs of cells are present in meiosis I and separate into chromosomes before meiosis II

At the end of meiosis 2 there would be 4 sex cells

How Do Sugar Molecules Cross the Cell Membrane?

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is - through facilitated diffusion and active transport.

Explanation:

Glucose is a six-carbon sugar molecule that is directly utilized by cells to provide energy. A glucose molecule is large enough to go through a cell membrane with simple diffusion.  

Cells help glucose molecules to cross the cell membrane through facilitated diffusion and active transport. Active transport is of two types primary and secondary active transport to help the glucose molecule to cross the membrane.

Thus, the correct answer is - through facilitated diffusion and active transport.

Final answer:

Sugar molecules like glucose cross the cell membrane through a process known as facilitated diffusion. In this process, the molecules move from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration through specific protein channels in the cell membrane. The transport does not require energy and is assisted by glucose transporters and various transmembrane proteins.

Explanation:

Sugar molecules, like glucose, cross the cell membrane through a process known as facilitated diffusion. In this process, glucose molecules move from an area of higher concentration to areas of lower concentration, through specific protein channels in the membrane. This process does not require any energy from the cell. Sugar molecules cannot slip easily through the cell membrane due to their polar nature. Instead, they rely on specific protein channels for transport.

Glucose transport into cells is made possible through glucose transporters that use facilitated transport. Similarly, other sugars such as fructose and galactose are broken down during digestion and absorbed directly into the bloodstream. The catabolism of these sugars produces ATP molecules, an energy source for cells.

Simple sugars and amino acids also require the help of various integral proteins or transmembrane proteins channels to successfully transport themselves across plasma membranes. There are several types of protein channels involved in facilitated diffusion, including channel proteins and carrier proteins. Channel proteins are typically less selective and discriminate mainly based on the size and charge of the molecule, while carrier proteins are more selective and usually only allow one particular type of molecule to cross.

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Which bonds are created during the formation of the primary structure of a protein?

Answers

Answer:

peptide bonds are created during the formation of the primary structure

Explanation:

The primary structure of a protein is the amino acids sequence of a protein or polypeptide chain, is the linear sequence of the protein . The amino acids are joined by peptide bond or amide bonds, this is the reason of the name polypeptide.

Carboxylic acid and an amino group form the peptide bond by the loss of a water molecule. The peptide bond is a covalent bond. It forms a relatively rigid unit. It´s synthesis is an enzymatically process carried out and controlled by the ribosome.

The characters of the peptide bond have influence on the flexibility and stability of polypeptide  

Final answer:

The primary structure of a protein is formed by the covalent bonds, known as peptide bonds, between amino acid residues.

Explanation:

The primary structure of a protein is formed by the covalent bonds, known as peptide bonds, between amino acid residues. These bonds link the carboxyl group of one amino acid to the amino group of the next amino acid in the chain. The primary structure is the linear sequence of amino acids that make up the protein.

Example: If we have a polypeptide chain with the amino acid sequence 'Gly-Ala-Ser-Pro', the primary structure would be 'Gly-Ala-Ser-Pro'.

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In primary production ________. (A) there is a net gain in organic carbon by organisms(B) carbon dioxide is released into the water(C) oxygen utilized by animals is less than the oxygen consumed by autotrophs(D) oxygen is utilized by plants(E) proteins are made by animals

Answers

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

Primary productivity can be defined as the phenomenon in which the plants make food by the help of process photosynthesis and plants itself use the carbohydrates produced by them.

The oxygen that is produced as a by product from the plants is more than it is consumed by the animals.

There is a gain in the organic carbon by the organism as the amount of organic matter increases as we go up.

Hence, the correct answer is option A

Final answer:

In primary production, there's a net gain in organic carbon by organisms, which convert inorganic carbon into organic compounds through photosynthesis. Moreover, the oxygen utilized by animals is less than the oxygen consumed by autotrophs, and oxygen is indeed utilized by plants during cellular respiration.

Explanation:

In primary production, (A) there is a net gain in organic carbon by organisms. This means that organisms, specifically autotrophs or primary producers, convert inorganic carbon from carbon dioxide into organic compounds through the process of photosynthesis. This process is a vital part of the carbon cycle, connecting all living organisms on Earth.

(C) Oxygen utilized by animals is less than the oxygen consumed by autotrophs is also true. Oxygen, which is released by autotrophs during photosynthesis, is utilized by animals and other heterotrophs for respiration. The autotrophs consume more oxygen in the process of photosynthesis than what is used by animals.

(D) Oxygen is utilized by plants is accurate as well. During cellular respiration, plants utilize oxygen to break down glucose and produce ATP (energy). It's important to note that plants use oxygen during cellular respiration but produce more of it during photosynthesis, contributing to an overall increase of oxygen in the atmosphere.

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What is the function of MITOSIS? (A) To create eggs and sperm(B) To allow a single cell to increase to its maximum size(C) To create haploid gametes for sexual reproduction(D) To allow multicellular organisms to grow and replace damaged cells

Answers

Answer:

(D) To allow multicellular organisms to grow and replace damaged cells

Explanation:

The function of Mitosis is to allow multicellular organisms to grow and replace damaged cells.

Final answer:

The function of mitosis is to enable multicellular organisms to grow and repair tissues by creating two genetically identical daughter cells from a single parent cell, thus maintaining the organism's diploid chromosome number.(Option D)

Explanation:

The function of mitosis is to allow multicellular organisms to grow and replace damaged cells. During mitosis, a single cell divides to produce two identical daughter cells, each with an exact copy of the parent cell's chromosomes. This process is essential for asexual reproduction in some organisms, but in multicellular eukaryotes, it is also crucial for growth, tissue repair, and the maintenance of the organism.

Unlike meiosis, which creates haploid gametes for sexual reproduction, mitosis maintains the diploid state of cells, preserving the full set of chromosomes. Therefore, the correct answer to the student's question is (D): To allow multicellular organisms to grow and replace damaged cells.

A doctor is concerned that Martha has dysfunction involving the axons of her brain. Which neuroimaging technique would BEST be able to detect this problem?
A) positron emission tomography (PET)
B) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
C) computed tomography (CT) scan
D) diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)

Answers

Answer:

B. diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)

What is the name of the glass container above
that you used to heat water?


Answers

Answer:

Beakers

Explanation:

The name of the glass container above is a beaker that you use to heat water.

A beaker has measurements that include how much of a substance to put in:

A man who is a dwarf with achondroplasia and normal vision marries a color-blind woman of normal height. The man's father was six feet tall, and both the woman's parents were of average height. Dwarfism caused by achrondroplasia is autosomal dominant and red-green color blindness is X-linked recessive. How many of their daughters might be expected to be color-blind with achrondroplasia?

Answers

Answer:

None of their daughters will be color-blind with achrondroplasia, but half of their children would be expected to have only achrondroplasia

Explanation:

Achrondroplasia is autosomal dominant and the man's father was normal and unaffected (aa) thus we can assume that the man's mother had achrondroplasia (AA or Aa). We can then say the man is Aa, inheriting the dominant allele from his mother. The woman is also aa because she is normal height, thus if we cross Aa with aa, we get 2 x Aa and 2 x aa, therefore half their children will have achrondroplasia.

Because red-green color-blindness is X-linked recessive we the know the woman is XᵇXᵇ because she is an affected female and we know the man is X^BY because he is an unaffected male. A man just needs one copy of the recessive allele to be affected, while females need two copies of the recessive allele. Therefore all of their daughters will receive an X from each parent, the X from their father will be dominant over the allele causing color-blindness, thus none of the daughters will be color-blind but all of their sons will be color-blind.

Final answer:

Using knowledge of genetics and inheritance, daughters of this couple have a 50% chance of having achondroplasia, but no chance of being color-blind because their father doesn't carry the gene. Therefore, none are expected to have both conditions.

Explanation:

The probability of a child having both achondroplasia and color blindness, given the information provided, can be determined using knowledge of genetics. The father's condition, achondroplasia, is an autosomal dominant disorder, meaning that it only requires one faulty gene to express. So, every child has a 50% chance of inheriting achondroplasia.

Color blindness, however, is linked to the X-chromosome and is recessive. Therefore, males only need one faulty gene to express color blindness, while females require two. Since the mother is color blind and all daughters will receive one of the mother's X-chromosomes, all daughters will carry the gene for color blindness. However, they will only express the trait if the father provides an X-chromosome with the faulty gene. Since the father is said to have normal vision, he is not a carrier of the color blindness gene.

Therefore, none of the daughters are expected to be both color-blind and have achondroplasia since the father does not carry the gene for color blindness. They will only have achondroplasia if they inherit the defective gene from their father.

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A stop codon
codes for no amino acid.
codes for the stop amino acid s-methyl-methionine AND forms a hairpin loop forcing the ribosome to fall off.
enhances the binding of the e-polymerase.
codes for the stop amino acid s-methyl-methionine.
forms a hairpin loop forcing the ribosome to fall off.

Answers

Answer:

codes for no amino acid.

Explanation:

A stop codon is meant for translation termination and does not specify any amino acid. There are three stop codons named UAA, UAG and UGA. These are also known as non sense codons. If any of these are encountered while translation is going on, the translation immediately stops. So if there are 100 codons including stop codon in an mRNA then only 99 amino acids will get incorporated.

Final answer:

A stop codon signals the end of protein synthesis without coding for an amino acid. Three such codons exist: UAA, UAG, and UGA. The AUG codon is unique and serves as the start codon, initiating translation and setting the reading frame.

Explanation:

A stop codon is a sequence of three mRNA nucleotides that does not encode an amino acid but signals the termination of protein synthesis. The three stop codons are UAA, UAG, and UGA. These codons are also known as nonsense codons, and they are recognized by protein release factors rather than tRNA molecules. There is no tRNA that recognizes these codons, and so no amino acid is added when a stop codon is encountered. Instead, the presence of a stop codon leads to the release of the newly synthesized polypeptide from the translation machinery.

While most stop codons simply end translation, there is an exceptional case with the UGA codon, which can sometimes signal for the incorporation of the amino acid selenocysteine into a protein, but this requires a special mRNA hairpin loop structure and is not the norm.

The codon AUG has a dual role; it encodes for the amino acid methionine and also serves as the start codon to initiate translation. This sets the reading frame for mRNA translation, which proceeds by reading nucleotides in groups of three until a stop codon is reached, terminating the process.

How do mutations lead to variation?

A.
by signaling proteins to be synthesized
B.
by producing changes in the genetic code
C.
by giving organisms new features for survival
D.
by providing a source of energy for cells
Reset Next

Answers

Mutations lead to variation by producing changed in the genetic code
The answer would be B. by producing changes in the genetic code

Synapomorphies are used in determining relationships among animal groups. Synapomorphies are:
(A) evolutionary innovations.
(B) shared, derived traits.
(C) both evolutionary innovations and shared, derived traits.

Answers

Answer: (B) shared, derived traits.

Explanation:

In phylogenetic systematics, which presents itself with a character that eventually changes in descent, and presents itself with variations, which subsequently convert in the next generations. In this way, the character presence is not unique to the ancestor, but also in all heirs, however with a possible variation. This new variation or new character state is recognized as a derived condition, arose from the change in the state of the ancestral character. A derived condition has the potential to serve as a determinant for defining a new group is called apomorphy. An apomorphy can be unique to a group and is called a case of autapomorphy, or when it is shared by two or more groups it is called synapomorphy.

Synapomorphies are shared, derived traits used to determine evolutionary relationships among animal groups and [Option C] are both evolutionary innovations and shared, derived traits.

In biology, relationships between animal groups can only be established through synapomorphies. Synapomorphies are traits that are shared by members of two or more groups and are derived from a common ancestor. For instance, the presence of plumes in birds is a synapomorphic characteristic that recognizes them inside the clade of reptiles where this quality developed. These characteristics are pivotal in phylogenetic systematics or cladistics as they help in gathering creatures as per their last normal precursors. As a result, the correct response is both evolutionary innovations and shared, derived traits because synapomorphies are able to be regarded as both.

Transverse tubules Select one: a. store sodium ions for the action potential at the cell surface. b. transmit muscle impulses into the cell interior. c. store calcium ions. d. connect actin and myosin.

Answers

Answer:

b. transmit muscle impulses into the cell interior.

Explanation:

Transverse Tubules are also known as T Tubes that pass laterally through the muscle fiber. The T Tubes or Transverse Tubules carry the nerve impulses received by the sarcolema to the myofibrils, these are also conductive to substances such as glucose, oxygen and ions. In other words, these tubules are responsible for transmitting muscle impulses into the cell interior.  

Final answer:

Transverse tubules, or T-tubules, transmit muscle impulses into the cell interior, initiating a chain reaction that leads to muscle fiber contraction by signaling the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

Explanation:

The correct answer to the question is that they b. transmit muscle impulses into the cell interior. T-tubules are essential structures in muscle fiber cells, especially in skeletal and cardiac muscles. They form periodic invaginations in the sarcolemma and serve as pathways for the propagation of action potentials deep into the muscle cell, ensuring a swift and uniform response throughout the entire muscle fiber.

Upon the arrival of an action potential, the T-tubules help signal the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) to release calcium ions (Ca²⁺) into the sarcoplasm. These calcium ions are crucial for the initiation of muscle fiber contraction by binding to troponin on the actin filaments, leading to a series of events that result in muscle shortening and contraction.

The enterogastric reflex is stimulated by the presence of chyme in the stomach. is stimulated by the presence of chyme in the duodenum. results in decreased contraction of the pyloric sphincter. increases gastric emptying. is the result of parasympathetic stimulation.

Answers

Answer:

Here is the complete statement: The enterogastric reflex IS STIMULATED BY THE PRESENCE OF CHYME IN THE DUODENUM.

Explanation:

The digestive system works under the influence of three types of reflexes, which can be long, short or extrinsic in nature giving rise to gastrocolic, enterogastric or gastroilea reflexes.

Enterogastric reflex is an extrinsic reflex that is stimulated by the presence of hydrochloric acid in the stomach or in the duodenum. Enterogastric reflex functions by releasing hydrochloric acid, which regulates the release of stomach proteins such as gastrin.

Final answer:

The enterogastric reflex is primarily triggered by chyme in the duodenum and results in decreased contraction of the pyloric sphincter, slowing down gastric emptying. This reflex is associated with the parasympathetic nervous system.

Explanation:

The enterogastric reflex is a physiological process that helps regulate the movement of food through the digestive tract. This reflex is primarily stimulated by the presence of chyme in the duodenum, the first section of the small intestine following the stomach. When chyme enters the duodenum, this stimulates the enterogastric reflex, which then results in a decreased contraction of the pyloric sphincter, the opening from the stomach into the duodenum. Through this reflex, gastric emptying is typically slowed down, not increased. The enterogastric reflex is more associated with the parasympathetic division of the nervous system, which generally conserves and restores body energy.

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What was the author’s purpose in using the phrase “bridge electronics with biology”?

Answers

Answer:  

its the concern with the design of circuits using transistors and microchips coupled with the behavior and movement of electrons is a gas, conductor or vacuum

Explanation:

Answer:

The purpose is to make everyone understand the miracles that can be done when electronic is combined with biology as done by Chortos and colleagues when they created e-skin. Like wise similar concepts can be devised in other medical field.

Explanation:

The author (Wenlong Cheng, chemical engineering student at Monash University in Australia) had said this statement when Chortos and colleagues have successfully demonstrated the functioning of e-skin. This e-skin is enabled to sense pressure differences and hence send signals to the brain. This has revolutionized the communication system through the  use of artificial skin in practical world.

Hence, the purpose of saying the phrase “bridge electronics with biology” was to motivate all researchers to think beyond their limits and develop some thing as unique as e-skin through intervention of electronics.

What is the probability (%) of having a child that is affected by an autosomal recessive disorder if both parents are carriers?

Answers

it is 25% chance with each pregnancy

Bone formation begins when ____________ secrete the initial semisolid organic form of bone matrix called ____________ . Calcification, or mineralization, then occurs when ____________ crystals deposit in the bone matrix. These crystals form when calcium and phosphate ions reach critical levels and precipitate out of solution and deposit in and around the ____________ fibers. The entire process of bone formation requires a number of substances, including ____________ (which enhances calcium absorption from the GI tract) and ____________ (which is required for collagen formation), as well as calcium and phosphorus for calcification.

Answers

Answer:

Bone formation begins when osteoblats secrete the initial semisolid organic form of bone matrix called osteoid. Calcification, or mineralization, then occurs when hydroxyapatite crystals deposit in the bone matrix. These crystals form when calcium and phosphate ions reach critical levels and precipitate out of solution and deposit in and around the collagen fibers. The entire process of bone formation requires a number of substances, including vitamin D (which enhances calcium absorption from the GI tract) and vitamin C (which is required for collagen formation), as well as calcium and phosphorus for calcification.

Final answer:

Bone formation is a process initiated by osteoblasts, which secrete an organic form of bone matrix called osteoid. This structure is then mineralized with the formation and deposit of hydroxyapatite crystals, which require the presence of collagen fibers. The process is aided by vitamins D and C, as well as the essential minerals calcium and phosphorus.

Explanation:

Bone formation begins when osteoblasts secrete the initial semisolid organic form of bone matrix called osteoid. Calcification, or mineralization, then occurs when hydroxyapatite crystals deposit in the bone matrix. These crystals form when calcium and phosphate ions reach critical levels and precipitate out of solution and deposit in and around the collagen fibers.

The entire process of bone formation requires a number of substances, including vitamin D (which enhances calcium absorption from the GI tract) and vitamin C (which is required for collagen formation), as well as calcium and phosphorus for calcification. Once entrapped in the matrix, the osteoblasts become osteocytes, the cells of mature bone.

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