I believe the correct answer is Mitosis.
Explanation:The cell cycle has 4 stages with one resting stage. In the Third stage called Mitosis the nucleus is divided into 2 daughter nuclei and the cell starts to undergo cytoplasmic division.
Further Explanation:a) Gap 1 (G1) Phase:It is the first phase of the cell cycle and the cell is undergoing recovery fro its previous cellular division. It starts to double its organelles and accumulates raw materials that will be used for DNA synthesis in the next phase. In this stage also, the DNA is checked for any abnormalities or damages and if any is found, the cell undergoes a programmed cell death called apoptosis. It takes 11 hours to complete.
b) Synthesis (S) Phase:
This is a phase where DNA synthesis/replication occurs. Chromosomes usually enter the S phase with one chromosome but move on to the next phase with 2 identical chromosomes. It takes up to 8 hours.
c) Gap 2 (G2) Phase:
It is the third phase and is between the Mitotic phase and the synthesis phase. The cell synthesizes all the proteins that are required for cell division to occur. The cell is also checked for DNA abnormalities and if any are found, the cell undergoes apoptosis. It takes 4 hours for this process to complete.
d) Mitosis (M) Phase:
It is the last phase of the cell cycle and there it is in this phase that the nucleus divides. It is a lengthy process. Chromatins are condensed and the chromatids are attached at the centromere. The nuclear envelope disintegrates and the nucleolus disappears. Spindle fibers begin to take shape and two centrosomes move away from each other at the center forming microtubules in star-like arrays. Centromere of each chromosome develops 2 kinetochores. Chromosomes are pulled around by kinetochore fibers and forced to align across equatorial plane of cell. Centromere dissolves releasing sister chromatids and the sister chromatids separate. The spindle fibers then disappear and two clusters of daughter chromosomes formed forming daughter nuclei. Nuclear envelopes form around the two incipient daughter nuclei, chromosomes uncoil and become diffuse chromatin again. Finally, the nucleolus reappears in each daughter nucleus.
Also important to note is the G0 phase where the cell undergoes resting and there is totally no activity taking place. Many cancerous cells optimize this phase by avoiding it and going directly to the synthesis stage hence no DNA abnormalities are checked.
Level : High School
The stage of the cell cycle in which two nuclei form is known as telophase.
What is the cell cycle?The cell cycle may be defined as the sequence of events happening from the end of one nuclear division to the beginning of the next. The complete process of the cell cycle terminates in the following two steps:
Interphase. M-phase (Division phase).Interphase is again classified into three phases. G1 phase, S-phase, and G2 phase. In these phases, the number of chromosomes duplicates is followed by the division phase.
During the termination of mitosis, telophase is the stage where two new nuclei form around the separated sets of daughter chromosomes. During this phase, two sets of daughter chromosomes reached opposite poles and converted into chromatin thread. The Nuclear membrane form round and the nucleolus reappear.
Therefore, telophase is the stage of the cell cycle in which two nuclei form.
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The most common way for a mutation to contribute to disease is by increasing the rate of DNA replication directing the formation of altered proteins or unexpected amounts of proteins interfering with the body's immune response silencing the gene containing the mutation. What is common way for a mutation?
Answer:
A gene mutation refers to a permanent change in the sequence of DNA, which forms a gene, that is, the sequence varies from what is witnessed in the majority of the individuals. The mutations vary in size, they can influence anywhere from a base pair to a huge section of a chromosome, which comprises multiple genes.
The mutations result in extreme modifications in a species if they modify the manner in which a protein functions. However, a mutation, which directs the formation of altered proteins or the unexpected amounts of proteins is the most general way by which a mutation contributes to disease.
Rats that received unpredictable electric shocks in a laboratory experiment subsequently became apprehensive when returned to that same laboratory setting. This best illustrates that anxiety disorders may result from:
Answer:
Classical conditioning
Explanation:
Classical or respondent conditioning is a procedure for learning in which a biologically potent stimulus is combined with a neutral stimulus and in this process, the neutral stimulus is known to exert a response that is similar to the one that is caused by the biologically potent stimulus.
Here, the unpredictable electric shocks classically condition the rats to be apprehensive of the shocks.
Kelsey, a 9-year-old with a history of asthma, is brought to the pediatric clinic by her parent because she has had audible wheezing for one week and has not slept in two nights. She presents sitting up, using accessory muscles to breathe, and with audible wheezes. The results of her arterial blood gas drawn on room air are pH: 7.51, pCO2: 25 mmHg, pO2: 35 mmHg, HCO3: 22 mEq/L. The best analysis is:
A. Compensated metabolic acidosis
B. Compensated metabolic alkalosis
C. Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis
D. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
Answer:
C. Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis
Explanation:
When the partial pressure of CO2 in systemic arteries falls below 35 mmHg, the condition is called respiratory alkalosis. Since pCO2 levels are below 35 mmHg (25 mmHg given), Kelsey is suffering from respiratory alkalosis. Alkalosis is also confirmed by higher pH levels (pH = 7.51).
The ratio of CO2 and HCO3 is around 1:1 (pCO2= 25 mmHg : HCO3= 22 mmEq/L) and confirms the "Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis". The compensated respiratory alkalosis reduces the HCO3 levels far below and exhibits the CO2: HCO3 ratio in the range of 10:2 to 10:4.
What do the sides of a punnett square represent?
Answer:
They represent the genotypes of the parent organisms.
Explanation:
As you can see in the picture, the genotype of the mother goes on one side while the genotype of the father goes on the other side. Let's create an example for this Punnett square. The letters represent alleles, which can be either dominant (capital letters such as B) or recessive (lowercase letters such as b).
Parland’s alligator population has been declining in recent years, primarily because of hunting. Alligators prey heavily on a species of freshwater fish that is highly valued as food by Parlanders, who had hoped that the decline in the alligator population would lead to an increase in the numbers of these fish available for human consumption. Yet the population of this fish species has also declined, even though the annual number caught for human consumption has not increased.Which of the following, if true, most helps to explain the decline in the population of the fish species?(A) The decline in the alligator population has meant that fishers can work in some parts of lakes and rivers that were formerly too dangerous.(B) Over the last few years, Parland’s commercial fishing enterprises have increased the number of fishing boats they use.(C) The main predator of these fish is another species of fish on which alligators also prey.(D) Many Parlanders who hunt alligators do so because of the high market price of alligator skins, not because of the threat alligators pose to the fish population.(E) In several neighboring countries through which Parland’s rivers also flow, alligators are at risk of extinction as a result of extensive hunting.
Answer:
C) The main predator of these fish is another species of fish on which alligators also prey
Explanation:
The only reasonable explanation as to why the species of fish experiences decline in number despite the fishing being the same, and the number of alligators that preyed on the fish going down, is another species of fish which preyed upon the fishes that are fished, but the alligators were also preying on them. Since the alligators have been mostly removed from the ecosystem, the fish that preyed on the other fishes experienced significant increase in its numbers, and since it feeds upon the other fish, that resulted in constant decline in the population of those fishes. The decline in number will only stop when the carrying capacity is reached for the predatory fish in the ecosystem.
Restoration of native plants and habitats on campuses __________. a. is limited to those campuses with large land holdings b. is costly to maintain but worthwhile for its educational value c. can provide ecosystem services such as slowing storm water runoff and filtering pollution d. is an attractive addition but of little academic use
Answer:
Restoration of native plants and habitats on campuses can provide ecosystem services such as slowing storm water runoff and filtering pollution-c.
The environmental movement does not have tools to intervene with environmentally damaging practices on private property. Please select the best answer from the choices provided T F
Answer:
The correct answer is "F" False.
Explanation:
The environmental movement is an international effort towards the conservation and remediation of the environment represented by diverse organizations in the world. The environmental movement started by the awareness of the increasing pollution during Industrial Revolution and it still active in most countries. It is false to affirm that the environmental movement does not have tools to intervene with environmentally damaging practices on private property. The environmental movement has political members that influence the decisions made on private property, including private wildlife sanctuary and companies that must comply the environmental laws.
The environmental movement does not have the tools to intervene with the environmentally damaging practices on private property.Here the given statement is false. So option B is correct.
What is meant by environmental movement?It is a social movement whose aim is to protect the environment from harmful human activities that are damaging the environment and various resources as well.
Due to the increased level of pollution in the enviroment as a result of industrialization, it has become necessary for international organizations to take the necessary steps to reduce the pollution levels so as to protect the resources as well as the life forms that are being affected by these industrial pollutants.
There are several initiatives under the environmental movement. These include natural resource conservation, reducing environmental pollution, and protecting endangered species from becoming extinct.
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Which statement is accurate? a. Filtration dominates at the arterial end of a capillary bed, and is driven by osmotic pressure. b. Filtration dominates at the arterial end of a capillary bed, and is driven by hydrostatic pressure. c. Filtration dominates at the venous end of a capillary bed, and is driven by osmotic pressure. d. Filtration dominates at the venous end of a capillary bed, and is driven by hydrostatic pressure.
The separation of the solid particle from the liquid is called filtration. Filtration required filter paper.
The correct answer is a.
In humans, the fluid is transported through the vessels from one organ to another, The fluid makes the pressure on the vessels known as fluid pressure.
When blood goes through the artery, the pressure of fluid rises due to the thick wall of vessels, and the more amount of blood.
Therefore, the osmotic pressure help to transport the blood and exchange of gases.
The flow of fluid from high pressure to low pressure is called osmotic pressure.
Hence the option A is correct that is Filtration dominates at the arterial end of a capillary bed- and is driven by osmotic pressure.
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Final answer:
Filtration is dominant at the arterial end of a capillary bed due to hydrostatic pressure, and reabsorption occurs at the venous end due to osmotic pressure.
Explanation:
The accurate statement regarding capillary exchange is b. Filtration dominates at the arterial end of a capillary bed, and is driven by hydrostatic pressure. This process is a result of the capillary hydrostatic pressure (CHP), which overcomes the blood colloidal osmotic pressure (BCOP) at the arterial end, causing filtration of fluid out of the capillaries. In contrast, at the venous end, reabsorption occurs because the BCOP is greater than the CHP, leading to fluid moving back into the capillaries.
A scientist discovers a new organism in run-off from the Rio Tinto River in Spain (the river runs through a copper mine and the water has a pH of 2.0). On basic microscopic examination and after conducting a few simple experiments, she finds that this single-celled species is heterotrophic, has no cell wall, uses a flagellum for motion, and contains a variety of internal structures that are bound by plasma membranes. Given this information, this new species is most likely a ______ cell in the _____ subcategory
Answer:
A scientist discovers a new organism in run-off from the Rio Tinto River in Spain (the river runs through a copper mine and the water has a pH of 2.0). On basic microscopic examination and after conducting a few simple experiments, she finds that this single-celled species is heterotrophic, has no cell wall, uses a flagellum for motion, and contains a variety of internal structures that are bound by plasma membranes. Given this information, this new species is most likely a eukaryotic cell in the protozoan subcategory
Explanation:
Eukaryotic cells contain nucleus and organelles and are enclosed by a plasma membrane. Organism that have these cells are protozoa, fungy, plants and animals.
Protozoan are single-celled eukaryotic.
Final answer:
The new organism discovered in the acidic Rio Tinto River is likely a eukaryotic cell in the protozoa subcategory due to its heterotrophic nature, absence of a cell wall, flagellar movement, and membrane-bound internal structures.
Explanation:
Given the information that the new organism is heterotrophic, has no cell wall, moves with a flagellum, and has internal structures bound by plasma membranes, it is most likely a eukaryotic cell in the protozoa subcategory. These characteristics exclude bacteria and archaea, as they do not have organelles bound by plasma membranes and typically have cell walls. Moreover, the flagellum and lack of cell wall are typical features of protozoan organisms, which are eukaryotic and unicellular. Protozoa are known to inhabit a wide range of environments, including acidic ones like the Rio Tinto River, which could be home to acidophilic protozoa adapted to low pH conditions.
To find the graphical solution when adding vectors, you can draw a(n) ____ from the starting point to the ending point.
Answer:
Arrow
Explanation:
To find the graphical solution when adding vectors, you can draw a(n) arrow from the starting point to the ending point.
Answer:
Arrow
Explanation:
Vectors are graphical visualization so addition and subtraction of vectors can be done graphically. It involves drawing of vectors on a graph and adding the vectors using head-to-tail method. The direction and magnitude of the resultant vector then obtained are determined with the help of protractor and ruler respectively.
All of the following are functions of bones except Select one: a. to protect certain internal organs. b. to provide a source for red and white blood cells. c. to provide a set point for the control of blood pressure and body temperature. d. to store inorganic salts.
Answer:
c. to provide a set point for the control of blood pressure and body temperature.
Explanation:
Bones are the part of the skeletal system of the body and serve to protect internal organs, serve as the site for the production of RBCs and WBCs as well as store the inorganic salts. Bones do not serve as a site to set the permissible range of blood pressure and body temperature. This function is served by parts of the central nervous system.
For example, hypothalamus set the body temperature according to the physical conditions. It signals to raise the body temperature during fever.
Final answer:
The skeletal system does not serve to provide a set point for the control of blood pressure and body temperature, this is a function of other bodily systems; hence, the correct answer to the student's question is option c.
Explanation:
The question asks to identify the function that is not a role of the bones. The facts given are that the functions of bones include providing support to the body, protecting internal organs, producing blood cells, and storing inorganic salts such as calcium and phosphate. Considering the options given, the correct answer is c. to provide a set point for the control of blood pressure and body temperature. This is not a function of the bones but rather other systems like the cardiovascular and thermoregulatory systems.
Functions of the Skeletal System:
Support: The bones provide a structural frame to support the body.Protection: Bones protect vital organs such as the brain, heart, and lungs.Movement: Bones, in conjunction with muscles, enable movement.Production of blood cells: Bones contain marrow which produces red and white blood cells.Storage of minerals and fat: Bones store essential minerals and fats within their structure.The option that represents a function of bones not listed is c. to provide a set point for the control of blood pressure and body temperature.What is the best evidence telling you whether this cell is diploid or haploid?
Answer:
As a result of mitosis and meiosis, haploid and diploid cells are formed.
The cell will be diploid if it will have two sets of chromosomes, that is the number of chromosomes will be double than that of haploid one. And all the chromosome pairs in diploid are considered homologous chromosomes. e.g. the somatic cells of the body are diploid cells.
Haploid cells will be those who do not have chromosomes in pairs, a single set of chromosomes is found in them. e.g. the haploid spores or gametes cells. The chromosome number in haploid cells are represented as 'n'. Haploid cells are produced via meiosis in cell division.
Cells can be identified as being diploid or haploid by their number of chromosomes. Diploid cells contain two sets of chromosomes, usually found in body cells, while haploid cells contain a single set of chromosomes, found in reproductive cells like gametes. Meiosis is the process through which a diploid cell divides to give rise to four haploid cells.
Explanation:The best evidence to determine whether a cell is diploid or haploid can be found by examining its number of chromosomes. Diploid cells have two sets of chromosomes, one set inherited from each parent, and this is most commonly seen in somatic or body cells. For instance, humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes making up a full set, thus a human somatic cell is diploid.
Haploid cells, on the other hand, contain a single copy of each homologous chromosome. This is commonly seen in gametes (reproductive cells), such as the egg and sperm in animals. These haploid cells fuse during fertilization to form a diploid cell with two complete sets of chromosomes. Some organisms also produce spores which are haploid cells.
It's also crucial to understand that the process of meiosis results in the formation of four genetically distinct haploid cells from a diploid cell. The tetrads, a group of four homologous chromatids, segregate and segregate in ways that lead to genetic diversity among the resulting cells.
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1. The nucleus
A. Contains nuclear pores
B. Regulates cellular activities
C. Stores genetic material
D. A and B
E. A, B and C
2. Which of the following organelles functions in lipid biosynthesis?
A. Lysosome
B. Smooth ER (my answer)
C. Peroxisome
D. Rough ER
3. Viruses are
A. Eukaryotic
B. Prokaryotic
C. Eukaryotic and Prokaryotic
D. Neither
4. The large central vacuole
A. Contributes to buoyancy in bacteria
B. maintains turgor pressure in plants
C. digests foodstuff in animals
D. Regulates osmosis in protists
Answer:
1. E. A, B, and C
2. B. Smooth ER
3. D. Neither
4. B. Maintains turgor pressure in plants
Explanation:
1. Though I've never heard of "nuclear pores" in the nucleus (I've only known of them to be in the nuclear envelope), answer E is the only one that has the most obvious answer--storing genetic material. The nucleus regulates cell activities by using the stored genetic material to produce proteins.
2. There's no explanation for this as it's pretty much just memorizing the function of organelles, just remember that "lipid biosynthesis" is just basically saying "making lipids".
3. Viruses are neither eukaryotic or prokaryotic since they have no defining characteristics that eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells have. They lack a nucleus and can only replicate when inside a host cell.
4. The words "large central vacuole" should give you a big hint to the question talking about a plant cell. Turgor pressure is when the cell walls of plant cells press up against each other due to the size of the large central vacuole. This is why plants wilt when they do not have enough water, their cell walls do not press against each other so the structure is weak.
Provide an example in which more difficult practice conditions result in better retention and transfer. why does that happen? how can you plan practices to promote these benefits?
Answer:
The more difficult practice of an athlete who is receiving a positive feedback can result in better retention and transfer. Because in this way athlete would recognize that he had completed the goals and teaching of his coach.
Regular exercise and healthy eating could promote these benefits, practice the games more and more in daily routine, and if its not the season of the game then just do regular exercise to keep yourself fit and use such foods that provide you with energy and keep you healthy.
Spaced repetition and other difficult practice conditions improve retention and transfer by strengthening neural connections through harder retrieval processes. These strategies leverage the desirable difficulty effect for better long-term memory and knowledge application.
In psychology, the concept of difficult practice conditions resulting in better retention and transfer is well-documented. One prime example is the spaced repetition technique, where information is reviewed at increasing intervals. Although this method is more challenging than cramming, it leads to better long-term memory retention and the ability to apply the knowledge in new contexts.
This happens because the brain is forced to work harder to retrieve information, thereby strengthening neural connections. This is sometimes referred to as the desirable difficulty effect. By struggling to recall information, learners create deeper and more durable memories.
Planning Effective Practices:
Use spaced repetition to review material periodically.Incorporate real-life scenarios to apply learning objectives.Encourage use of vivid imagery to create strong associations.Continually ask questions to reinforce learning.By integrating these practices, learners can achieve better retention and transfer, ultimately gaining more confidence and skill mastery.
EGTA is a substance that binds calcium ions. Imagine an experimental setup with a motor neuron and a muscle fiber. Stimulation of the motor neuron causes contraction of the muscle fiber through activity at the neuromuscular junction and excitation-contraction coupling. Now, inject the muscle fiber with EGTA. Which of the following effects would EGTA have on excitation-contraction coupling after the neuron releases acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction?
A) It would prevent conduction of an action potential along the sarcolemma.
B) It would prevent the junctional folds from triggering an action potential.
C) It would prevent the release of calcium ions from the terminal cisterns.
D) It would prevent myosin from forming cross bridges with actin.
Answer:
Option (4).
Explanation:
EGTA is also known as egtazic acid that acts as a chelating agent. EGTA has the ability to bind with the calcium ions and shows chelation.
The muscle fiber is injected with EGTA (according to the experiment) will effect the excitation contraction coupling. Since, calcium ions is important for the excitation-contraction coupling after the neuron releases acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction but EGTA chelates the calcium ions and binds with it. The crossbridge between and myosin is prevented due to the binding of calcium with EGTA.
Thus, the correct answer is option (D).
Which of these types of blood cell is a lymphocyte?
A T cell
B. Macrophage
C. Neutrophil
D. Platelet
Answer:
answer is option a . t cell
Answer:
A.
Explanation:
What is a lymphocyte? A type of white cell (defensive cell).
What is a T cell? A lymphocyte cell from the immune system.
What is a Macrophage? A phagocyte from the immune system.
What is a Neutrophil? A granulocyte from the immune system.
What is a Platelet? Thrombocyte form the immune system.
What makes a white cell a white cell?
Well, some characteristics of a white cell are that they are produced in the bone marrow, that they have a nuclei, and that they fight invaders and prevent infections.
Hope it helped,
BiologiaMagister
A vet at your clinic is preparing to perform a punch biopsy of a dermal mass in a cat under local anesthesia. He asks you to add epinephrine to his lidocaine before administering the local anesthetic. What is the rationale for adding epinephrine?
Answer:
To increase the duration of effectiveness of local anesthesia.
Explanation:
Local anesthesia is best effective when its rapid absorption in systemic blood vessels is prevented. Diffusion of anesthesia along with blood reduces the period for which it is active. Epinephrine is a vasoconstrictor and does not allow the local anesthesia to diffuse rapidly. Concentrating the anesthesia locally increases the duration for which it is active.
What topics might biologists study at the community level of organization?
At the community level, biologists might study species interactions, population dynamics, and ecosystem processes, focusing on how multiple species interact and coexist within a specific area.
Explanation:Biologists might study several topics at the community level of organization. First, they may investigate species interactions, which can include symbiosis, competition, and predation. For example, how different species of trees in a forest affect each other's growth. Second, they might study population dynamics, such as changes in population sizes of different species over time, and how these changes are influenced by factors like birth rates, death rates, migration, and resource availability. Lastly, they could delve into ecosystem processes, investigating how energy flows and nutrients cycle within communities, considering elements such as food chains and nutrient cycles. Overall, biologists studying at this level are concerned with the complex interactions that allow a group of different species to coexist within a particular area.
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Which accessory eye structure is NOT correctly matched with its function? (A) conjunctiva: protect eye from drying out(B) eyelid: protect the eye (C) tarsal glands: produce tears(D) lacrimal glands: destroy bacteria
Answer:
(C) tarsal glands: produce tears
Explanation:
Tarsal glands are also called as Meibomian glands. These glands do not secrete tears. The tarsal glands sere to produce a fluid which in turn do not allow the eyelids to adhere to each other. Hence, tarsal glands are involved in preventing the eyelids from sticking to each other. Production of tears is the function of lacrimal glands.
The lacrimal glands' primary function is to keep the eye moist, not destroy bacteria, making option (D) the incorrect match between the accessory eye structure and its function.
Explanation:The accessory eye structure that is NOT correctly matched with its function is (D) lacrimal glands: destroy bacteria. While the lacrimal glands do produce tears, their primary function is not to destroy bacteria, but to keep the eye moist. The components and function of the lacrimal apparatus also include the flow of tears over the conjunctiva to wash away foreign particles.
On the other hand, the tarsal glands, mentioned in option (C), are located within the eyelids and secrete an oily substance that prevents the eyelids from sticking together, rather than producing tears. This oily substance also contributes to forming a barrier against foreign materials and helps with tear film stability.
Therefore, option (C) is incorrect in stating that the tarsal glands produce tears.
In an inheritance relationship __________. a. the subclass constructor always executes before the superclass constructor b. the superclass constructor always executes before the subclass constructor c. the constructor with the lowest overhead always executes first regardless of inheritance in subclasses d. the unified constructor always executes first regardless of inheritance
Answer:
The correct answer is option b. "the superclass constructor always executes before the subclass constructor".
Explanation:
An inheritance relationship is a concept applied to describe the creation of subclasses from one or more superclasses. In inheritance relationships the superclass constructor always executes before the subclass constructor. An inheritance relationship is the contrary of an invoking object method, at which a subclass could override the superclass and could be executed first.
Final answer:
The superclass constructor executes before the subclass constructor in an inheritance relationship. This ensures that the inherited base class is properly initialized before the derived class's constructor runs, creating a chain of constructor calls from the top-level superclass to the deepest subclass.
Explanation:
In the context of object-oriented programming, specifically when discussing inheritance relationships, it is important to understand the order in which constructors are called. The correct answer to the student's question is that b. the superclass constructor always executes before the subclass constructor. This ensures that the superclass is properly set up before the subclass begins its own initializations.
When a new object of a subclass is created, the constructor for the subclass is invoked. However, before the subclass's constructor can execute its own body, it must first invoke the constructor of its superclass. This is typically done implicitly by the programming language, but can often be influenced by explicitly calling the superclass constructor within the subclass constructor code.
The process thus forms a chain of constructor calls, starting from the top-most superclass down to the most derived subclass, constructing each object in turn. It's a foundational concept in languages such as Java and C++. To give an example, in a class hierarchy with a superclass Animal and a subclass Dog, when you create a new Dog object, the order of execution will start with the Animal constructor followed by the Dog constructor.
A stop codon
codes for no amino acid.
codes for the stop amino acid s-methyl-methionine AND forms a hairpin loop forcing the ribosome to fall off.
enhances the binding of the e-polymerase.
codes for the stop amino acid s-methyl-methionine.
forms a hairpin loop forcing the ribosome to fall off.
Answer:
codes for no amino acid.
Explanation:
A stop codon is meant for translation termination and does not specify any amino acid. There are three stop codons named UAA, UAG and UGA. These are also known as non sense codons. If any of these are encountered while translation is going on, the translation immediately stops. So if there are 100 codons including stop codon in an mRNA then only 99 amino acids will get incorporated.
A stop codon signals the end of protein synthesis without coding for an amino acid. Three such codons exist: UAA, UAG, and UGA. The AUG codon is unique and serves as the start codon, initiating translation and setting the reading frame.
Explanation:A stop codon is a sequence of three mRNA nucleotides that does not encode an amino acid but signals the termination of protein synthesis. The three stop codons are UAA, UAG, and UGA. These codons are also known as nonsense codons, and they are recognized by protein release factors rather than tRNA molecules. There is no tRNA that recognizes these codons, and so no amino acid is added when a stop codon is encountered. Instead, the presence of a stop codon leads to the release of the newly synthesized polypeptide from the translation machinery.
While most stop codons simply end translation, there is an exceptional case with the UGA codon, which can sometimes signal for the incorporation of the amino acid selenocysteine into a protein, but this requires a special mRNA hairpin loop structure and is not the norm.
The codon AUG has a dual role; it encodes for the amino acid methionine and also serves as the start codon to initiate translation. This sets the reading frame for mRNA translation, which proceeds by reading nucleotides in groups of three until a stop codon is reached, terminating the process.
Which of the following statements is true? Proteins destined for the ER are translated by a special pool of ribosomes whose subunits are always associated with the outer ER membrane. Proteins destined for the ER are translated by cytosolic ribosomes and are targeted to the ER when a signal sequence emerges during translation. Proteins destined for the ER translocate their associated mRNAs into the ER lumen where they are translated. Proteins destined for the ER are translated by a pool of cytosolic ribosomes that contain ER-targeting sequences that interact with ER-associated protein translocators
Answer: the correct answer is Proteins destined for the ER are translated by cytosolic ribosomes and are targeted to the ER when a signal sequence emerges during translation.
Explanation:
ER means Endoplasmic Reticulum and it works as a manufacturing and packaging system.
Proteins destined for the ER are translated by cytosolic ribosomes and signaled to the ER when a signal sequence emerges. They undergo modifications in the RER's lumen, then get incorporated into cellular membranes or secreted from the cell.
Explanation:The statement 'Proteins destined for the ER are translated by cytosolic ribosomes and are targeted to the ER when a signal sequence emerges during translation' is true. Proteins that are destined for the ER are indeed synthezised by cytosolic ribosomes. A specific sequence called the signal sequence is recognised during the process of translation, which prompts the ribosome to relocate to the ER. There, the ribosomes transfer their newly synthesized proteins into the RER's lumen where they undergo structural modifications such as folding or acquiring side chains.
The modified proteins are then incorporated into cellular membranes, whether of the ER or other organelles, or they can be secreted from the cell. Thus, synthesis of proteins destined for the ER involves a wide range of cellular components including ribosomes, signal sequences, the ER, and various transport vesicles to carry the modified proteins to their final destinations.
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Pyruvate is modified to ____________ and enters ____________ , where carbon dioxide is released and ATP is produced. This occurs in the ____________ . This process is ____________ .
Answer: Pyruvate is modified to Acetyl-CoA and enters the Krebs cycle, where carbon dioxide is released and ATP is produced. This occurs in the mitochondria. This process is Aerobic.
Explanation:
The energy needed to carry out the energy-consuming cellular processes is extracted mainly from the ATP molecule. However, to produce this molecule the cell uses organic molecules as a source of chemical energy, mainly carbohydrates, and lipids and this occurs via the catabolism of these molecules. The energy source of respiration is glucose that will be slowly degraded for the better energy utilization of the molecule. Glucose breakdown comprises 4 steps: Glycolysis - consists of the conversion of sugars to pyruvate and is processed in the cytoplasm. Pyruvate Oxidation - The pyruvate formed in glycolysis is transformed into acetyl CoA with CO2 release. Krebs Cycle - is a sequence of interconnected reactions that occur in the mitochondrial matrix to completely oxidize Acetyl COA molecules and release CO2. And respiratory chain - involves the phosphorylation of ADP to form ATP associated with electron transfer to oxygen with the release of water.
Final answer:
Pyruvate is converted to acetyl CoA which enters the Citric Acid Cycle within the mitochondrial matrix, leading to carbon dioxide release and ATP production during cellular respiration.
Explanation:
Pyruvate is modified to acetyl CoA and enters the Citric Acid Cycle, where carbon dioxide is released and ATP is produced. This occurs in the mitochondrial matrix. This process is part of cellular respiration, specifically the link between glycolysis and the Krebs cycle. After glycolysis, the three-carbon pyruvate molecule is converted into a two-carbon molecule by the action of the enzyme pyruvate dehydrogenase, during which carbon dioxide is released and electrons are transferred to NAD+, forming NADH. This acetyl CoA then enters the Citric Acid Cycle where it is further broken down to release more carbon dioxide, generate ATP, and transfer energy to other carriers like NADH and FADH2. Overall, this step is crucial for cellular energy production in aerobic conditions.
Which tunic of an artery is most responsible for maintaining blood pressure and continuous blood circulation? A. tunica externa B. basement membrane C. tunica media D. tunica intima 4 points
Answer:
C) tunica media
Explanation:
The middle tunic of an artery is an intermediate layer consisting of elastic fibers, collagen and smooth muscle tissue. It also features an internal limiting elastic membrane separating it from the next layer. The medium tunic is responsible for maintaining blood pressure and continuous blood circulation.
The elasticity of the arteries allows the blood flow inside to remain constant. The loss of elasticity of the middle tunic causes its wall to sag and dilate, causing the aneurysm. This can cause the artery to rupture and lead to fatal bleeding.
Peter Rodman proposed that human evolution was linked to ________ while Owen Lovejoy suggested the best explanation was ________. a. the ability to carry food in order to provision family members; increased efficiency in walking as forests transformed to wooded environments b. the increased efficiency in walking as forests transformed to wooded environments; the ability to carry food in order to provision family members c. the ability to make and use stone tools; the loss of the diastema and evolution of thick enamel d. the early emergence of a large brain; the later emergence of a large brain
Answer:
b. increased efficiency in walking as forests transformed to wooded environments; the ability to carry food in order to provision family members.
Explanation:
Peter Rodman and his colleague proposed a 'patchy forest hypothesis' according to which forests become more patchy and the food in them is in dispersed form so, the hominids their can move efficiently with energy and can carry food now with free hands.
While Owen Lovejoy suggested that monogamous males, provision their females and protect them from predators, females that are provided with foods, could now take care of more than one offspring at a time, and thus reduce the gap between births.
Rodman proposed that human evolution was driven by efficiencies in walking due to environmental changes while Lovejoy suggested it was due to the ability to carry food and provision for family members.
Explanation:Peter Rodman and Owen Lovejoy were anthropologists who each contributed significant theories about the forces that drove human evolution. According to their theories, Peter Rodman proposed that human evolution was linked to the increased efficiency in walking as forests transformed into wooded environments. This transformation would have required our ancestors to travel further for resources, thus selecting for those who could walk more efficiently. On the other hand, Owen Lovejoy suggested the best explanation was the ability to carry food in order to provide for family members. In his view, the capacity to carry food would have promoted pair bonding and increased survival of offspring, propelling human evolution.
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During which phase do chromosomes become condensed
Answer:
Prophase.
Explanation:
During prophase of mitosis, chromosomes become condensed and appear visible.
For some genes, the DNA methylation pattern in sperm differs from that in eggs. The transcription of the gene that is methylated in eggs would be _______, whereas that of its unmethylated counterpart in sperm would be _______. This phenomenon is called “_______.”
Answer:
For some genes, the DNA methylation pattern in sperm differs from that in eggs. The transcription of the gene that is methylated in eggs would be low, whereas that of its unmethylated counterpart in sperm would be high. This phenomenon is called “ genomic imprinting.”
Explanation:
Genomic Imprinting is an epigenetic phenomenon that makes genes express in a parent-of-origin manner.
How are opposing anabolic and catabolic pathways with shares reactions regulated? What type of enzymes in such reactions serve as the point of regulation?
Answer:
Catabolic reactions are those that breakdown the complex molecules into simpler one and generate energy. While Anabolic reactions are those that utilize energy to for the synthesis of complex molecules from smaller molecules.
Both the pathways are regulated by separate enzymes. Enzymes with ΔG equal to zero, that is nearly equilibrium condition, are used to regulate these pathways. Both pathways are regulated differentiately to ensure the proper functioning and maintain balance.
Which of the following events occurs during transcription?
a.Those segments of the RNA strand that do not actually code for the protein are removed.
b. A molecule of RNA is formed based on the sequence of nucleotides in DNA.
c. The message in mRNA is translated into a protein.
d. A cap is added to the RNA molecule.
mRNA binds to a ribosome in the cytoplasm.
Answer:
Letter B. A molecule of RNA id formed based on the sequence of nucleotides in DNA
Explanation:
The process to form a protein from the information in genes are called the central dogma of molecular biology, this dogma consists of two main steps.
Transcription Translation
DNA to → RNA to → Protein
The first one consists in to obtain a molecule of RNA using DNA molecules as a template, this RNA contains a message from the DNA. In the next step the RNA molecule act as a messenger (also called mRNA) because it contains the information to form a protein, in this point there are others additional steps, for example, removing the segments in the RNA that do not code a protein or the mRNA is modified to binds a ribosome ( structure that can “read” the message in the mRNA to form a protein).
To sum up, in transcription, we obtain a molecule of RNA that comes from DNA. The translation is the process to read de RNA to form a protein.
Final answer:
During transcription, a molecule of RNA is created that mirrors the sequence of nucleotides in DNA, which then leaves the nucleus to assist in protein synthesis during translation.
Explanation:
The event that occurs during transcription is 'b. A molecule of RNA is formed based on the sequence of nucleotides in DNA.' During transcription, the DNA sequence of a gene is transcribed into an RNA molecule. This process begins when the DNA unwinds, and transcription factors, along with RNA polymerase, bind to the DNA sequence. RNA polymerase then synthesizes the mRNA strand by adding complementary nucleotides to the growing RNA chain. As a result, mRNA is created as a single-stranded transcript of the DNA which carries the genetic information necessary for protein synthesis. This mRNA later exits the nucleus and enters the cytoplasm for translation, at which point it interacts with ribosomes and tRNA to synthesize proteins.
What happens during the S phase of the cell cycle? A. The cell copies its organelles B. The cell makes daughter cells. C. The cell doubles in size. D. The cell copies its DNA
The S phase of the cell cycle is when the cell duplicates its DNA, resulting in chromosomes with sister chromatids that are essential for ensuring each daughter cell has a complete set of genetic material.
During the S phase of the cell cycle, the cell copies its DNA. This is crucial to ensure that when the cell divides, each daughter cell receives an identical set of genetic instructions. The replicated DNA results in chromosomes that consist of two identical sister chromatids, joined at the centromere. As the cell progresses into mitosis, these sister chromatids will be evenly distributed to the two new cells, maintaining the diploid chromosome number of the parent cell. This DNA replication is essential for growth, development, and maintenance of the organism.