Edward Dorsey is a part-time employee, and during the biweekly pay period he earned $395. In addition, he is being paid a bonus of $300 along with his regular pay. If Dorsey is single and claims two withholding allowances, how much would be deducted from his pay for FIT? (There are two ways to determine his deduction—do not use table for percentage method.)
A) Wage Bracket Table _____________$
B) Percentage Method ______________$

It would take Bartran Company a minimum of 5 days to create at least one finished ink cartridge if they started with nothing in stock.

Using the information given, we can determine the lead times for each component and calculate the total lead time to create a finished ink cartridge. The longest lead time comes from procuring new labels, which is 5 days. Therefore, it would take Bartran Company a minimum of 5 days to create at least one finished ink cartridge if they started with nothing in stock.

Total Lead Time Calculation: Since the longest lead time is 5 days (procuring new labels), it sets the minimum total lead time for creating a finished ink cartridge. This is because all other steps can occur in parallel or have lead times shorter than or equal to 5 days.

Therefore, if Bartran Company started with nothing in stock and initiated the process of creating an ink cartridge, it would take a minimum of 5 days to complete at least one finished ink cartridge.

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Final answer:

By setting up two equations based on the CAPM formula and the provided expected returns and betas for assets A and B, we solve for the risk-free rate of return, which is found to be 5.0%. The correct answer is option (A)

Explanation:

The Security Market Line (SML) depicts the relationship between an asset's expected return and its beta with respect to the market. It is based on the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), which is defined as:

Expected Return = Risk-Free Rate + Beta x (Market Return - Risk-Free Rate)

Based on the information given for assets A and B, we can set up two equations using their expected returns and betas:

1. 0.15 = Risk-Free Rate + 1.7 x (Market Return - Risk-Free Rate) for Asset A

2. 0.12 = Risk-Free Rate + 1.1 x (Market Return - Risk-Free Rate) for Asset B

To find the Risk-Free Rate, we have a system of two equations with two unknowns (Risk-Free Rate and Market Return). Solving this system algebraically:

After solving, we find that the risk-free rate of return is 5.0% (Option a).

Answer:

increased in budget = $98000

correct option is A $98000

Explanation:

given data

produce = 20,000 units per month

variable costs = $392,000

fixed costs = $242,000

increases production = 25,000 units

to find out

how much will they have to increase their budget

solution

we get here total cost or present budget that is

total cost = variable cost + fixed cost

total cost = $392000 + $242000

total cost = $634000

and

variable cost per unit will be here

variable cost per unit = [tex]\frac{variable\ costs}{produce}[/tex]

variable cost per unit = [tex]\frac{392000}{20000}[/tex]

variable cost per unit = 19.6

and

variable cost for increased production = increases production × variable cost per unit  

variable cost for increased production = 25000 × 19.6

variable cost for increased production = 490000

and

total cost of increased production = fixed cost + variable cost for increased production

total cost of increased production = $242000 + $490000

total cost of increased production = $732000

and

increased in budget = $732000 - $634000

increased in budget = $98000

correct option is A $98000

The book value of the machine at the end of year 3, using the units-of-production depreciation method, is $144,000. This is calculated based on the machine's actual usage of 8,000 hours in year 3.

To calculate the book value at the end of year 3 using the units-of-production depreciation method, we'll follow these steps:

1. Determine the depreciation per machine hour:

[tex]\[\text{Depreciation per Hour} = \frac{\text{Cost} - \text{Residual Value}}{\text{Total Estimated Machine Hours}}\][/tex]

2. Calculate the accumulated depreciation for each year:

[tex]\[\text{Accumulated Depreciation} = \text{Depreciation per Hour} \times \text{Actual Machine Hours}\][/tex]

3. Determine the book value at the end of each year:

[tex]\[\text{Book Value} = \text{Cost} - \text{Accumulated Depreciation}\][/tex]

Let's calculate it:

Given:

- Cost = $192,000

- Residual Value = $24,000

- Estimated Useful Life = 24,000 machine hours

- Actual Machine Hours in Year 1 = 6,000 hours

- Actual Machine Hours in Year 2 = 7,000 hours

- Actual Machine Hours in Year 3 = 8,000 hours

1.

[tex]\[\text{Depreciation per Hour} = \frac{192,000 - 24,000}{24,000 \text{ hours}} = 6[/tex]

2.

[tex]\[\text{Accumulated Depreciation Year 1} = $6 \times 6,000 \text{ hours} = $36,000\\\text{Accumulated Depreciation Year 2} = $6 \times 7,000 \text{ hours} = $42,000\\\text{Accumulated Depreciation Year 3} = $6 \times 8,000 \text{ hours} = $48,000[/tex]

3.

[tex]\text{Book Value Year 1} = $192,000 - $36,000 = $156,000\\\text{Book Value Year 2} = $192,000 - $42,000 = $150,000\\\text{Book Value Year 3} = $192,000 - $48,000 = $144,000[/tex]

Therefore, the book value at the end of year 3 is $144,000.

The complete question is:

A machine that cost $192,000 has an estimated residual value of $24,000 and an estimated useful life of 24,000 machine hours. The company uses units-of-production depreciation and ran the machine 6,000 hours in year 1, 7,000 hours in year 2, and 8,000 hours in year 3.

Calculate its book value at the end of year 3.

Answer:

This evaluation best exemplifies a "behavior-level" measure.

Explanation:

Donald Kirkpatrick proposed a Four-level training evaluation model for evaluating the impact of training on employees.

The four levels are; Reaction, Learning, Behavior and Results.

The behavior level of Kirkpatrick's model is the third stage and it comes after employees have undergone learning/training. At this stage, the behavior is measured through monitoring and observation to determine if they are implementing what they have learnt.

This gives some insight into how effective the training was.

Therefore GetHelp Inc. by monitoring the phone calls of their customer service representatives are carrying out a "behavior-level" measure.

Answer:

Total cash required= (15,820)

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Crane Corporation is projecting a cash balance of $33,900 in its December 31, 2019, balance sheet. Crane’s schedule of expected collections from customers for the first quarter of 2020 shows total collections of $209,050. The schedule of expected payments for direct materials for the first quarter of 2020 shows total payments of $48,590. Other information gathered for the first quarter of 2020 is: sale of equipment $3,390; direct labor $79,100, manufacturing overhead $39,550, selling and administrative expenses $50,850; and purchase of securities $15,820. Crane wants to maintain a balance of at least $28,250 cash at the end of each quarter.

Cash budget:

From last year= 33,900

Collections= 209,050

Direct material= (48,590)

Equipment= 3,390

Direct labor= (79,100)

Overhead= (39,550)

Selling and administrative expenses= (50,850)

Securities= (15,820)

Ending inventory= (28,250)

Total= (15,820)

Answer: The correct answer is "d. ask Morgan to submit to a second type of drug test at another laboratory.".

Explanation: Given this scenario, the HR manager should: ask Morgan to submit to a second type of drug test at another laboratory to prove whether Morgan has actually used drugs and evaluate whether it is convenient to hire him or not.

Answer:

Stock C

Explanation:

In this question, we apply the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) formula which is shown below

Expected rate of return = Risk-free rate of return + Beta × (Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return)

The (Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return)  is also called market risk premium

For Stock A

= 2.4% + 0.72 × 7.80%

= 2.4% + 5.616%

= 8.016%

For Stock B

= 2.4% + 1,48 × 7.80%

= 2.4% + 11.544%

= 13.944%

For Stock C

= 2.4% + 1.40 × 7.80%

= 2.4% + 10.92%

= 13.32%

For Stock D

= 2.4% + 1.06 × 7.80%

= 2.4% + 8.268%

= 10.668%

Since we see that the expected rate of return for stock C is equal to the expected rate of return so the stock C is correctly priced

Answer:

The journal entry for the issuance of the bond is shown below:

Explanation:

The entry to be posted on Jan 1

Cash A/c..............................................Dr   $76,180

    Premium on bonds payable A/c........Cr     $6,180

    Bonds Payable A/c..................................Cr   $70,000

As bonds issued, so cash is increasing and any increase in cash is debited. Therefore, the cash account is debited. But the bonds issued at a premium so the premium on the bonds payable will be credited. And bonds payable account is credited.

The journal entry to record the issuance of the bonds would be: Debit Cash $76,180, Credit Bonds Payable $70,000, Credit Premium on Bonds Payable $6,180.

To record the issuance of the bonds, the journal entry would be as follows:

The debit to Cash represents the amount received from the issuance of the bonds. The credit to Bonds Payable represents the face value of the bonds. The credit to Premium on Bonds Payable represents the difference between the face value of the bonds and the amount received, which is recorded as a liability on the balance sheet.

Answer:

B. $6,000

Explanation:

The computation of the annual depreciation expense under the straight-line method is shown below:

= (Original cost - residual value) ÷ (useful life)  

= ($41,000 - $5,000) ÷ (6 years)  

= ($36,000) ÷ (6 years)  

= $6,000

The original cost is computed below:

= Purchase value + transportation and installation cost

= $40,000 + $1,000

= $41,000

Answer:

(C) Using the tools the Fed had available would have disrupted the financial system.

Explanation:

Every time the solution of any problem is not available with the resources we have, rather the available resources might add up to the cost of damage.

In the given case also, this general phenomenon is applicable.

As the Fed had monetary policy tools, which it even used earlier are not good for the problem of financial crisis. That the policies could even turn the situation worse as the country is already facing the crisis, and the policies would not contribute to the well being.

Answer:

B. $816,000

Explanation:

The computation of the net sales is shown below:

= Total sales - sales returned amount

where,

Total sales is $850,000

And, the sales returned amount would be

= Total sales amount × sales returned percentage

= $850,000 × 4%

= $34,000

Now put these values to the above formula

So, the value would be equal to

= $850,000 - $34,000

= $816,000

Answer:

C) limited; unlimited

Explanation:

Economics can be described as the study of how people use limited resources to satisfy unlimited wants.

Economics is the study of how people use limited resources to satisfy unlimited wants, which requires making choices due to the scarcity of resources.

Economics can be described as the study of how people use limited resources to satisfy unlimited wants. The correct answer to the student's question is C) limited; unlimited

Scarcity is a core concept in economics, indicating that there is a finite amount of resources available to meet the endless human wants and needs. Resources such as labor, tools, land, and raw materials are essential to produce the desired goods and services but are not available in unlimited quantities. Time is another scarce resource; with only 24 expendable hours in a day, people must make choices about how to allocate their time among work, leisure, and rest.

Because of these limitations, economics studies how individuals and societies prioritize and allocate their resources, making trade-offs to best satisfy the varying wants and needs. Every choice made implies another option foregone, which is known as an opportunity cost.

Answer:

a. Plan A

b. Plan B

c. $638,400

Explanation:

The formula to compute the earning per share is shown below:

Earning per share = (Net income - interest) ÷ (Number of shares)

a. For Plan A

EPS = ($500,000) ÷ (210,000 shares) = $2.38

For Plan B

EPS = ($500,000 - $182,400) ÷ (150,000 shares) = $2.12

The interest is computed below:

= $2.28 million × 8%

= $182,400)

Plan A has higher EPS

b. For Plan A

EPS = ($750,000) ÷ (210,000 shares) = $3.57

For Plan B

EPS = ($750,000 - $182,400) ÷ (150,000 shares) = $3.78

The interest is computed below:

= $2.28 million × 8%

= $182,400)

Plan B has higher EPS

c. Break-even EBIT

(EBIT) ÷ (Number of shares) = (EBIT - Interest) ÷ Number of shares

(EBIT) ÷ (210,000) = (EBIT - $182,400) ÷$150,000

After solving this,

The EBIT would be $638,400

Answer:

30.92%

Explanation:

You find the answer by calculating the cost of equity using two methods; Dividend discount model and CAPM

Dividend discount model;

cost of equity; r = (D1/P0) +g

whereby, D1 = next year's dividend = 3.00

P0= current price = 13.65

g = dividend growth rate = 11% or 0.11 as a decimal

r = (3/13.65) + 0.11

r = 0.2198 + 0.11

r= 0.3298 or 32.98%

Using CAPM;

r = risk free + beta (Market risk premium)

r = 0.049 + (2.8 * 0.0856)

r = 0.049 + 0.2397

r = 0.2887 or 28.87%

Next, find the average of the two cost of equities;

=(32.98% + 28.87% )/2

= 30.92%

The total dollar return on the investment is calculated by adding the total capital gain ($7,236) and the total dividends ($1,350) which results in a total return of $8,586.

The question involves calculating the total dollar return on an investment in the stock market. To determine the total dollar return, we must consider both the capital gain (or loss) and the dividend payments received during the investment period.

First, let's calculate the capital gain:

Sale price per share: $47.49

Purchase price per share: $44.81

Number of shares: 2,700

Capital gain per share: $47.49 - $44.81 = $2.68

Total capital gain: $2.68 \\u00d7 2,700 shares = $7,236

Next, let's calculate the dividend earnings:

Dividend per share: $0.50

Total dividends: $0.50 \\u00d7 2,700 shares = $1,350

Now, we can calculate the total dollar return:

Total capital gain: $7,236

Total dividends: $1,350

Total dollar return: $7,236 + $1,350 = $8,586

Answer:

Explanation:

The journal entries are shown below:

a. Cash A/c Dr $300,000        (15,000 × $20)

To Unearned Service revenue A/c $300,000

(Being unearned service revenue recorded)

b. Unearned Service revenue A/c Dr $25,000    (300,000 ÷ 12 month)

                To Service revenue A/c $25,000

(Being the adjusting entry for December month is recorded)

Answer:

$2,000

Explanation:

The computation of the net present value is shown below:

= Number of outstanding shares × market price per share + incremental value of the acquisition - acquired value in cash

= 1,750 shares × $20 + $3,000 - $36,000

= $35,000 + $3,000 - $36,000

= $2,000

All other information which is given is not relevant. Hence, ignored it

Answer:

$258,790

Explanation:

Bramble report as its December 31 inventory:

= Inventory in hand as per physical count + Goods purchased from P corporation under FOB shipping basis + Cost of goods sold to A company under FOB destination basis

= $216,300 + $22,720 + $19,770

= $258,790

Therefore, the amount to be reported by Bramble company is $258,790.

Answer:

Credit is the provision of money or bills, based on a loan agreement between the bank and another party that requires the borrower to carry out the amount of interest in return

Note :

Sorry if my English ia a mess. becaues, I can't speak English

Credit:

Credit is the customer's ability to obtain services or goods before payment, based on the confidence that money to be paid will be made by him/her in the future.

In accounts, credit in an entry recording is a sum received listed on the right-hand side or column of an account.

Your financial power is part of the credit. You get what you need today, such as a car loan or a credit card, depending on the assurance that you can pay later. Planning to strengthen your mortgage helps ensure that you apply for credit if you need it.

Your statement is the basis for determining your credit score by the various financial reporting agencies that the borrowers use to assess your value of loan.  

Bank of America, TransUnion and Equifax are three major national credit service companies.

Answer

The answer and procedures of the exercise are attached in the following image.

Explanation  

Please consider the data provided by the exercise. If you have any question please write me back. All the exercises are solved in a single sheet with the formulas indications.  

Answer:

c. Four (4)

Explanation:

Answer: (B)

Compared to the first economist, the second economist must be assuming either a smaller induced increase in consumption, a larger crowding out effect, or both.

Explanation:

First of all, I'll like to explain some terms:

- Government Expenditure Multiplier is an index or figure showing the percentage by which Gross domestic product (GDP) will increase, when Government Expenditure increases; all other kinds of expenditure held constant

- the GDP equation is

GDP= C + I + G + (X-M)

Where C = consumption expenditure (by individuals)

I = investment expenditure (by firms)

G = government expenditure

(X-M) = international trade (export-import) expenditure

- If we hold other independent variables constant and measure the government expenditure multiplier, we will derive the index that shows the amount by which an increase in G will increase GDP.

Now to the question;

Crowding out effect means an act by the government to purchase so much more domestic goods and services than they previously purchased.

This is done deliberately by the government for various reasons: to boost the economy, to provide social welfare goods, and to kick-start national projects.

It is called "crowding out" because these huge government purchases limit private sector purchases.

If the 2nd economist assumes a larger crowding out effect, that means greater government expenditure, then this rhymes with the higher GM (government expenditure multiplier) that his estimate produces. GM of 1.25 means that a percent increase in G will increase GDP by 25%.

On the other hand, Economist 1's estimate of 0.75 implies a 25% decrease in GDP (coming from a decrease in G), which explains his part of option B. He (economist 1) is assuming a lesser crowding out effect.

If we add the assumption of Economist 2 that there'll be smaller induced increase in consumption, it follows that C will have a less positive impact on GDP.

If we combine both changes in C and G, we also have G producing more increase in GDP.

You are welcome.

Answer:

the correct answer is B

"Compared to the first economist, the second economist must be assuming either a smaller induced increase in consumption, a larger crowding out effect, or both".

Explanation:

Government use multiplier used to show increment in level of GDP when government use increment other than consistent of other consumption.  

Gross domestic product = c+I+g + ( x-m)  

In the event that we steady all use or free factors expected g which is meant government consumption at that point to compute government multiplier the expansion in g consequently increment in GDP.  

Swarming impact:- under this administration buy all the more increasingly residential merchandise and ventures which limits private division buy and this circumstance is gotten swarming out.  

So if financial specialist second have bigger swarming exertion implies government use increment and this lead higher government multiplier . Gm of 1.25 implies that percent expansion in g lead GDP increment by 25% .  

Financial specialist second gauge 0.75 methods 25% abatement in GDP .

Answer:

Letter D is correct. Cross-functional team.

Explanation:

A multifunctional team is made up of employees from different functional areas with the objective of enhancing organizational results.

Problem solving and search for innovation are relevant characteristics when choosing to form a multifunctional team in a company, it is believed that each sector has ideas and solutions that together will increase the possibility of effectiveness in activities and processes, besides providing greater integration, collaborative sense of team and resolution of common goals, which consequently drives the results and the organizational revenue.

Answer:

selling price is $90425.53

Explanation:

GIVEN DATA:

Commission 6%

net funds $10,000

mortgage is $75,000

Required selling price is given as

[tex]= \frac{Net\ funds\ required}{1 - commission}[/tex]

[tex]= \frac{10,000 + 75000}{1 - 0.06}[/tex]

[tex]=\frac{85000}{0.94}[/tex]

=$90425.53

selling price is $90425.53

To find the selling price that will net the owner $10,000, subtract the commission and mortgage balance from the selling price and solve for x. The selling price should be $90,425.

To find the selling price that will net the owner $10,000, we need to take into account the 6% commission and the balance of the mortgage. Let's represent the selling price as x. The commission would be 0.06x, and the balance of the mortgage is $75,000. So, the equation we can set up is:

x - 0.06x - $75,000 = $10,000

To solve for x, we can combine like terms:

0.94x - $75,000 = $10,000

Then, we can isolate x by adding $75,000 to both sides:

0.94x = $85,000

Dividing both sides by 0.94:

x = $90,425

Therefore, the selling price should be $90,425 to net the owner $10,000.

Answer:

You didn´t post the question complete. So I found the expected rate of return. Hope be useful.

Explanation:

Required rate of return on stock = 13%

Expected rate of return is calcualted below Using DDM model:

Expected rate of return = [$1.80 × (1 + 6%) / ($25)] + 6%

= ($1.908 / $25) + 6%

= 7.632% + 6%

= 13.632%

Expected rate of return is 13.632%.

Answer:

The statement is incorrect

Explanation:

As the statement correctly describes, the money supply does not directly affect real GDP, what it affects directly is the interest rate, and the inflation rate, which are monetary variables, while GDP is a variable that measures output.

When the Fed increases the money supply, it may be doing so with the hope of stimulating economic activity, and thus, increasing GDP, but the Fed knows that any effect will be indirect. What will happen under this expansionary monetary policy is that the interest rate will fall, and as it falls, the supply of loans will grow, investment will become cheaper, and more investment means more factors of production, or more productivity, which in turn, increase the real GDP, but as it can be seen, the effect is indirect.

In fact, if the FED goes overboard with increasing the money supply, it may cause high inflation or even hyperinflation, and these events actually lead to less investment, less saving, and less economic activity, resulting in a probable stagnation or contraction of GDP.

Answer: (B) Systematic, Unsystematic

Explanation:

The systematic risk is one of the type of investment and it is measured by investment return covariance in the market. The systematic risk is basically divided by market risk once it is calculated.

The premium risk of the security is mainly determine by the systematic risk and it is not depend upon its unsystematic risk.

The unsystematic risks is basically inherited from the specific industry and the risk can be reduced by the diversification.

Therefore, Option (B) is correct.

Answer:

$5,100

Explanation:

Initial cash balance (IB) = $32,500

Expected cash receipts (EC) = $48,500.

Cash disbursements (CD) = $56,100

Amount borrowed (B) = ?

Assuming that the final balance must equal at least $30,000, the cash flow for april is given by:

[tex]\$30,000 = IB +EC-CD+B \\B= \$30,000 -\$32,500-$48,500+\$56,100\\B=\$5,100[/tex]

Sit Down Corporation will need to borrow $5,100 during April to maintain a minimum cash balance of $30,000.

Answer:

$122,000

Explanation:

Cost of Patent:

= Cost of patent + (total cost ÷ 2)

= 145,000 + (15,000 ÷ 2)

= $152,500

Accumulated depreciation for 2 years:

= (Cost of Patent ÷ Benefited years) × No. of years

= (152,500 ÷ 10) × 2

= $30,500

Carrying value on December 31,2018:

= Cost of Patent - Accumulated depreciation for 2 years

= $152,500 - $30,500

= $122,000