Feather color in budgies is determined by two different genes, Y and B, one for pigment on the outside and one for the inside of the feather. YYBB, YyBB, YYBb or YyBb is green; yyBB or yyBb is blue; YYbb or Yybb is yellow; and yybb is white.
A blue budgie is crossed with a white budgie. Which of the following results is possible?

A) Green offspring only
B) Yellow offspring only
C) Blue offspring only
D) Green and yellow offspring
E) a 9:3:3:1 ratio

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

Blue offspring only

Explanation:

If A blue budgie is crossed with a white budgie.

i.e yyBB or yyBb × yybb

let use yyBb for blue budgie,so we have; yB, yb, yB, yb representing the columns on the horizontal rows of the punnet square.

on the other hand, in white budgie yybb, we will have yb, yb, yb, yb representing the rows on the vertical column of the punnet square.

if a dihybrid cross occurs among these representative, all progeny in the punnet square will be yyBb, showing that they are all Blue offspring only.

Answer 2

Option D) Green and yellow offspring

The possible outcome of crossing a blue budgie (genotype yybb) with a white budgie (genotype yybb) is green and yellow offspring.

When a blue budgie (yybb) is crossed with a white budgie (yybb), all the offspring will have the genotype Yybb, resulting in a green feather color.

However, when a blue budgie (yybb) is crossed with a white budgie (yybb), there is a possibility of producing offspring with the genotype YYbb or Yybb, resulting in a yellow feather color.

Therefore, the possible outcomes are green and yellow offspring, represented by option D.


Related Questions

DNA fingerprinting is based on regions of DNA that are variable between individuals. Many of these differences between individuals produce no change in phenotype. This type of mutation is a(n)

Answers

Answer:

Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms

Explanation:

Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms (SNPs) occur normally in the DNA  (one in 1000) and they have no affect on the phenotype of the person. SNPs pattern is unique in every individual that is why DNA fingerprint is different in every individual.

Plants that if left to self pollinate produce offspring identical to themselves are called

Answers

Answer:

True-breeding plants.

Explanation:

The self pollination in plants that produces progeny with similar characteristics or traits is called True-breeding plant. The parent and progeny both are identical genetically in true-breeding plants. The alleles shared between both offspring and parental plant is also same. The homozygous alleles are present in such organisms. The presence of homozygous alleles mean both alleles are same thus resulting in similar characters. Thus, plants that if left to self pollinate produce offspring identical to themselves are called True-breeding plants.

Describe at least three distinguishing features of synovial joints.

Answers

Answer:

Synovial fluid

ligaments

Explanation:

1) the ends of the bones of the synovial joints are covered with a connective tissue filled with synovial fluid

2) the outer surface of the joints contains ligaments that strengthen the joint and holds it in position thereby increasing flexibility

3) the synovial fluid present in the synovial cavity , lubricates the ends of the bones and reduces friction

Final answer:

Synovial joints are characterized by three primary features: the presence of articular cartilage, a synovial cavity filled with synovial fluid, and a synovial membrane that secretes the fluid.

Explanation:

Synovial joints, also known as diarthroses, are the most common and movable types of joints in the body. They have three main distinguishing features:

Articular cartilage: This is a smooth, slippery, white tissue that covers the ends of the bones, providing a cushion and allowing for smooth motion.Synovial cavity: This is a space between the joint's articulating bones, which contains synovial fluid produced by the synovial membrane.Synovial membrane: This is a thin layer of tissue that lines the joint capsule and secretes synovial fluid, providing lubrication and nutrients to the joint.

These components work together to facilitate movement and maintain joint health.

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Describe these 4 major events: pulmonary ventilation, external respiration, cardiovascular transport & internal respiration. Which uses diffusion vs. bulk flow? Know the bulk flow equation. What determines resistance?

Answers

Answer:

-Pulmonary ventilation is commonly referred to as breathing

-External respiration occurs in the lungs where oxygen diffuses into the blood and carbon dioxide diffuses into the alveolar air.

-Internal respiration occurs in the metabolizing tissues, where oxygen diffuses out of the blood and carbon dioxide diffuses out of the cells.

-cardiovascular transport is when Hormones are transported throughout the body via the blood's liquid plasma

Which of the following statements about fluid movement is NOT correct?

a. Exchanges between plasma and interstitial fluid happen between capillary walls.
b. An exchange between the plasma and the intracellular fluid occurs across the cell membrane.
c. An exchange between interstitial fluid and intracellular fluid occurs across the plasma membrane.
d. Under normal circumstances, lymph vessels help maintain fluid balance, especially between the plasma and the interstitial fluid.

Answers

Final answer:

The correct answer is b. An exchange between the plasma and the intracellular fluid occurs across the cell membrane.

Explanation:

The correct answer is b. An exchange between the plasma and the intracellular fluid occurs across the cell membrane. This statement is not correct because the exchange of fluids between the plasma and the intracellular fluid occurs across the capillary walls. The plasma and the interstitial fluid exchange happens between capillary walls, and the interstitial fluid and intracellular fluid exchange occurs across the plasma membrane.

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Final answer:

Statement b is incorrect. The usual transfer route of substances between plasma and intracellular fluid is via the interstitial fluid, not directly across the cell membrane.

Explanation:

The question asks which of the given statements about fluid movement is not correct. The choices given relate to how fluid exchanges occur in the body, particularly between plasma, interstitial fluid, and intracellular fluid. The structures involved in these exchanges are capillary walls, cell membranes, and plasma membranes. All of these statements are generally true, except for choice b. An exchange between the plasma and intracellular fluid does not occur across the cell membrane. The usual transfer route of substances between plasma and intracellular fluid is via the interstitial fluid, not directly across the cell membrane. Therefore, statement (b) is not correct.

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George and Henry are identical twins. George was raised by his mother in one home, and Henry was raised by his father in another home. Based on what is known about the relationship of genes and environment, one can correctly conclude that:

Answers

Answer:

Twins may be defined as the two offspring produced by the same pregnancy. The twins can be monozygotic or dizygotic depending upon whether they have developed from the same or different egg.

Both the Henry and George are identical twins. They have been raised in the different environments. This will affect their phenotype as phenotype expression depends on genotype as well as on environment. Both have different genotypes although they share the same genotype.

An increasingly intricate relationship exists between the gametophyte and sporophyte generations in vascular plants. As vascular plants live longer, they increase in size and complexity and the ____________ generation becomes dominant, while the ____________ generation becomes smaller and of shorter duration.

Answers

Answer:

1. Sporophyte

2. Gametophyte

Explanation:

Sporophyte and gametophyte generations of vascular plants are quite distinct from each other with respect to their shape and size. The gametophyte generation produces gametes while the saprophyte produces spores. In conifers and angiosperms, the sporophyte is diploid and more conspicuous. It is the dominant generation in these vascular plants and includes the roots, stem, and leaves of the plant body. The gametophyte generation is small and inconspicuous in higher plants. For example, the microscopic pollen grains of angiosperms carry the haploid male gametophyte.

On the other hand, the sporophyte of ferns consists of rhizome, fronds and true roots. Although sporophyte is a dominant generation in ferns, the haploid gametophyte also persists for a longer period and immature sporophyte is attached to and dependent on the gametophyte until the embryo matures.

The pedigree shows the inheritance of an autosomal recessive disorder. What is the genotype of Steve and Sonya's son?

Answers

Answer:

The answer is pp

Explanation:

Steve and Sonya's son genotype is pp. Because an inheritance of autosomal recessive disorder  is with recessive allele responsible for the exceptional phenotype. In this case, Steve and Sonya are both heterozygotes, Pp, which means they both have a p allele  because each one gave the boy a p, contributing to affect his son. And since we are talking about inheritance of an autosomal disorder, we know that the parents phenotypic proportions are the same.

Celery stalks that are immersed in fresh water for several hours become stiff and hard. Similar stalks left in a salt solution become limp and soft. From this we can deduce that the cells of the celery stalks are

Answers

Answer:

hypertonic to water and hypotonic to salt solution.

Explanation:

When two solutions of unequal solute concentrations are separated by a permeable membrane, water molecules move from the solution with lower solute concentration to the solution with higher solute concentration until an equilibrium is reached. The solution with higher solute concentration is referred to as being hypertonic while the other one is referred to as being hypotonic.

The cells of celery stalks have higher solute concentration in their cell saps compared to the surrounding fresh water. Hence, water keeps entering the cells, resulting in turgidity. The cells are therefore hypertonic to fresh water.

The salt solution however seemed to have more solute concentration compared to that of the cell sap of the celery stalks. This made the cells of the celery stalks to lose water to the surrounding solution, resulting in flaccidity. Hence, the cells are hypotonic to salt solution.

The division of the cytoplasm following mitosis is called _____.

Answers

Answer: Cytokinesis

Explanation:

Answer is Cytokinesis

In unicellular and multicellular eukaryotic cells during mitosis and meiosis, cytokinesis is a visible process of cell division, in which the cytoplasm of a single parental cell divide into two daughter cells.

During Mitosis, cytokinesis begins in anaphase and ends in telophase.

Cytokinesis are referred to as final stage of cell division, when the cytoplasm divide irreversible into two daughter cells.

Final answer:

Cytokinesis is the term for the division of the cytoplasm following mitosis. It is the final stage in cell division, resulting in two separate daughter cells. The specifics of this process can vary depending on the type of cell.

Explanation:

The division of the cytoplasm following mitosis is called cytokinesis. In the process of cell division, cytoplasm, which is the internal material between the cell membrane and nucleus, divides to form two separate daughter cells. This is the final stage in cell division following the four separate stages of mitosis: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.

Cytokinesis is sometimes seen as the second part of the mitotic phase, completing cell division through the physical separation of cytoplasmic components. It is important to note, however, that the process of cytokinesis can be quite different for eukaryotes that have cell walls, like plant cells.

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During the replication of DNA, __________.

a. only one strand of the molecule acts as a template
b. the reaction is catalyzed by RNA polymerase
c. both strands of a molecule act as templates
d. errors never occur
e. the cell undergoes mitosis

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is c. both strands of a molecule act as templates.

Explanation:

DNA replication is a semi-conservative process which means that each strand of DNA acts as a template strand to synthesize the new DNA strand. DNA polymerase is the enzyme that helps in the production of new DNA strands by adding nucleotides at 3' end of the growing DNA stretch.

One DNA strand is called the leading strand and the other lagging strand. The leading strand is synthesized continuously but lagging strands are synthesized in a discontinuous way.  

So due to discontinuous replication of lagging strand small fragments of DNA are synthesized which are called Okazaki fragments. Then these fragments are sealed by ligase enzymes. So the correct answer is c.

Answer:

During the replication of DNA, both strands of the DNA molecule act as templates. This means that each strand serves as a guide for the creation of a new complementary strand.

For what purpose(s) might a karyotype be prepared?
A. for prenatal screening, to determine if a fetus has the correct number of chromosomes
B. to determine whether a fetus is male or female
C. to detect the possible presence of chromosomal abnormalities such as deletions of part of a chromosome
D. a karotype could help with all of the listed procedures

Answers

A karyotype might be prepared  to determine whether a fetus is male or female. Therefore, option (B) is correct.

The number of chromosomes that can be found in one cell of an organism is depicted in a karyotype, which is a visual representation of the information.

Karyotyping is a procedure that is used to prepare the karyotype of the organism, which is an essential component in the process of determining whether or not the organism has any chromosomal abnormalities.

The research of the genetic illness and the diagnosis of genetic disease are both made easier by the examination of the chromosomal abnormalities. During pregnancy, karyotyping is carried out, which makes it possible to get a better picture of the disease in a family with a medical history of genetic conditions.

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The correct option is D. A karyotype is prepared for prenatal screening, to determine the number of chromosomes, fetus is male or female & the possible presence of chromosomal abnormalities.

A karyotype is a powerful diagnostic tool used in genetics to analyze the number and structure of chromosomes in a cell, providing crucial information for various medical and clinical applications.

A. Prenatal Screening:

Purpose: To determine if a fetus has the correct number of chromosomes.Example: Identifying conditions such as Down syndrome (trisomy 21).

B. Sex Determination:

Purpose: To ascertain whether a fetus is male or female.Example: Detecting the presence of XX (female) or XY (male) chromosomes.

C. Detection of Chromosomal Abnormalities:

Purpose: To identify structural changes in chromosomes, such as deletions, duplications, or translocations.Example: Detecting deletions that may cause genetic disorders like cri-du-chat syndrome.

By addressing these aspects, karyotyping provides comprehensive insights into chromosomal health and can guide medical decisions and interventions effectively.

The retinoblastoma protein, pRB, is a tumor-suppressor protein that controls the G1/S cell-cycle checkpoint. While pRB is present in all phases of the cell cycle, regulation of its activity is important in the progression from G1 phase to S phase. Sort each statement depending on whether it is is true of cells that remain at the G1 checkpoint or of cells that progress from G1 to S phase.1. pRB phosphorylated 2. pRB not phosphorylated 3. pRB bound to E2F 4. pRB not bound to E2F 5. E2F bound to DNA 6. CDK4 bound to Cyclin D1

Answers

Answer:

1. pRB phosphorylated: The cell will not remain in G1 phase i.e. it will enter S phase because pRB will be degraded.

2. pRB not phosphorylated: The cell will remain in G1 phase i.e. will not enter S phase because pRB will remain bound to E2F.

3. pRB bound to E2F: The cell will remain in G1 phase i.e. will not enter S phase.

4. pRB not bound to E2F: The cell will not remain in G1 phase i.e. it will enter S phase.

5. E2F bound to DNA: The cell will not remain in G1 phase i.e. it will enter S phase.

6. CDK4 bound to Cyclin D1:  The cell will not remain in G1 phase i.e. it will enter S phase.

Explanation:

Retinoblastoma protein, pRB supresses tumor by regulating cell cycle progression in G1 phase. When a transcription factor known as E2F is bound to pRB the cell remains in G1 phase and did not proceed further to enter S phase. But as soon as pRB becomes phosphorylated, E2F becomes free and causes gene expression of cyclin E and and cyclin A which are required in progression of cell cycle from G1 phase to S phase.

Signaling involved in cell cycle progression from G1 phase to S phase.

When a cell is unstimulated, pRB is bound to E2F but G1 phase specific growth factors induce the expression of cyclin D through Ras-MAP kinase pathway.

Synthesis of cyclin D leads to the activation of CDK-4 which is a serine-threonine kinase. This kinase causes phosphorylation of pRB which results in the degradation of pRB.

Because of degradation of pRB, E2F becomes free and leads to the expression of cyclin E and and cyclin A which are S phase specific cyclins. This is how cell progresses from G1 phase to S phase.

E2F is a transcription factor which causes expression of S phase specific cyclins i.e. cyclin E and and cyclin A. So, E2F bound to DNA will result in cell cycle progression from G1 phase to S phase.

A researcher has a petri dish containing several species of bacteria, but no viruses. She notices that the population of E. coli in her petri dish has no antibiotic resistance. Two weeks later, she reassesses the bacteria and finds that the E. coli have acquired antibiotic resistance. How could this have happened?

Answers

Answer:

Bacteria can get antibiotic-resistant gene through the process of transformation, conjugation, and transduction. In transduction, the virus is required to provide the extra gene to the bacteria.

In transformation bacteria takes the genetic material from its surroundings and in conjugation bacteria can take or transfer antibiotic-resistant gene by sex pills. Therefore in this case virus is not present then transduction can not contribute to the antibiotic resistance gene to E.coli.

So conjugation and transformation are the methods by which E.coli can acquire antibiotic-resistant genes from other bacterial species.

Final answer:

E. coli can acquire antibiotic resistance through horizontal gene transfer or mutations. These mechanisms allow the bacteria to survive in the presence of antibiotics, leading to the development of antibiotic-resistant strains.

Explanation:

E. coli bacteria acquiring antibiotic resistance can occur through various mechanisms. One common way is through the transfer of resistance genes from other bacteria via plasmids. In the case of the researcher's petri dish, it is possible that E. coli acquired antibiotic resistance through horizontal gene transfer. Another possibility is that mutations occurred in the E. coli bacteria, leading to the development of antibiotic-resistant strains over time. These mutations can provide the bacteria with the ability to survive in the presence of the antibiotic, allowing them to outcompete non-resistant bacteria and increase in population.

The nucleus of a cell contains genetic material and many proteins. The interaction between these proteins and genetic material forms various structures.
Match each of the terms with the statement that describes the term:
Part A
a. protein
b. DNA
c. chromatin
d. histones
Part B
1. This series of nucleotides encodes proteins.
2. These proteins regulate transcription and modifications of genetic material.
3. This folded amino acid chain is genetically encoded and performs specific functions in the cell.
4. This substance is made up of fibers that are formed in the nucleus by supercoiling genetic material.

Answers

Answer:

Protein: 3. This folded amino acid chain is genetically encoded and performs specific functions in the cell.

DNA: 1. This series of nucleotides encodes proteins.

Chromatin: 4. This substance is made up of fibers that are formed in the nucleus by supercoiling genetic material.

Histones: 2. These proteins regulate transcription and modifications of genetic material.

The lagging strand is characterized by a series of short segments of DNA (Okazaki fragments) that will be joined together to form a finished lagging strand. The experiments that led to the discovery of Okazaki fragments gave evidence for which of the following ideas?
A) DNA polymerase is a directional enzyme that synthesizes leading and lagging strands during replication.
B) DNA is a polymer consisting of four monomers: adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine.
C) DNA is the genetic material.
D) Bacterial replication is fundamentally different from eukaryotic replication. The key shouldn’t be way longer than the distractors.

Answers

Answer: A

Explanation:

During the test that lead to the discovery of okazaki fragments on the lagging strand, a strand which is discontinuously synthesized with small DNA molecules to its own Primer RNA and was called okazaki fragments. The synthesis along the lagging strand is in 5' to 3' direction. As it moves, the primase synthesizes short RNA primer, to which the DNA nucleotides are added by DNA polymerase.

It was discovered that DNA synthesis is always in the 5' to 3'direction in both strands.

DNA polymerase is a directional enzyme that synthesizes leading and lagging strands during replication

Final answer:

The discovery of Okazaki fragments supports the idea that in DNA replication DNA polymerase is a directional enzyme that synthesizes both the leading and lagging strands.

Explanation:

The experiments that led to the discovery of Okazaki fragments provided evidence for the idea that DNA polymerase is a directional enzyme that synthesizes both the leading and lagging strands during DNA replication. Okazaki fragments are short, newly synthesized DNA pieces that are formed during the replication of the lagging strand. DNA polymerase adds nucleotides to the fragments in a 5' to 3' direction. The existence of these fragments is due to the directionality of DNA polymerase, highlighting that replication is not simultaneous. Eventually, these fragments are joined together by the enzyme DNA ligase to form the continuous lagging strand.

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Salivary amylase is a digestive enzyme not featured in the Concept Map. Which of the following describes its function? breaks down complex starches into smaller units, and where in the body does this occur? View Available Hint(s) Salivary amylase is a digestive enzyme not featured in the Concept Map. Which of the following describes its function? breaks down complex starches into smaller units, and where in the body does this occur? Salivary amylase breaks down steroid hormones into cholesterols in the stomach. Salivary amylase breaks down lipids into fatty acids in the mouth. Salivary amylase breaks down proteins into amino acids in the stomach. Salivary amylase breaks down complex starches into smaller units in the mouth.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is salivary amylase breaks complex starches into smaller units in the mouth.

Explanation:

Salivary amylase is so named because it is present in our saliva.Salivary amylase plays an important role in the digestion of starch molecules.

   Salivary amylase degrade the α-1,4-glycosidic linkages present within the biochemical structure of starch polysaccharide.The cleavage of α-1,4-glcosidic linkage result in the maltose,maltitriose and α limit dextrins.

     The so formed disaccharide, trisaccharide and tetrasaccharide are further digested in the small intestine to generate simple carbohydrates.

Final answer:

Salivary amylase, a digestive enzyme, initiates the breakdown of complex starches into smaller units starting in the mouth.

Explanation:

The function of the salivary amylase enzyme is to break down complex carbohydrates or starches into smaller, simpler units, specifically, maltose, which is a disaccharide. This process begins in the mouth where the salivary amylase is secreted by the salivary glands. It's important to note that the process is only initiated in the mouth, and the breakdown of starches continues in the stomach and small intestine where other digestive enzymes further contribute to the process.

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The four stages of translation, initiation, elongation, and termination __________. The four stages of translation, initiation, elongation, and termination __________. all require at least one protein cofactor all require base pairing between two RNAs all require ATP all have peptidyl synthetase catalyzed reactions

Answers

Final answer:

The four stages of translation are initiation, elongation, and termination, each involving specific molecules, reactions, and energy consumption, culminating in the synthesis of proteins.

Explanation:

The four stages of translation, which are initiation, elongation, and termination, each involve several key components and actions that are critical for the synthesis of proteins. Initiation involves the assembly of the ribosome, mRNA, initiation factors, and tRNAMet to form the initiation complex. During elongation, tRNA molecules recognize and base pair with codons on the mRNA template, delivering amino acids which are then linked together by peptidyl synthetase in a process driven by ATP. Finally, termination occurs when the ribosome encounters a stop codon on the mRNA, causing the release of the synthesized polypeptide chain with the help of protein termination factors.

As a ribosome translocates along an mrna molecule by one codon, what happens after it?

Answers

Answer:

The tRNA is released from the E site of the ribosome and the elongation process finishes while the termination process starts.

Explanation:

When the translocation process is finished the tRNA that is in the E site  of the ribosome is released and the A site of the ribosome reads a stop codon in the mRNA in order to finish the elongation process and start with the termination process.  In the termination process  a termination factor joins the stop codon, the ribosomal subunits split apart, the protein and the tRNA dissociate from one another and the tARN is not in the P site of the ribosome anymore.

The Acme Chemical Company has some employees who work in a production plant and some who work in a sales office. The plant workers get paid every Friday; however, the office workers get paid for every fifth sale that they make. The plant workers are paid on a ___ schedule, whereas the office workers are paid on a ___ schedule.
A) variable ratio; fixed interval
B) variable interval; variable ratio
C) fixed interval; fixed ratio
D) fixed ratio; variable interval

Answers

Answer:

fixed interval; fixed ratio

Explanation:

The fixed interval rewards employees at specified time intervals. If an employee displays the correct behavior each day, reinforcement may occur every week.

In the fixed ratio, reinforcement occurs after a specified number of desired responses.

Answer:  The correct answer is :  C) fixed interval; fixed ratio

Explanation:  Fixed interval: The period of time in which the worker receives his remuneration is fixed, which has several advantages since the employee can plan his expenses and somehow this provides security to the person.

fixed ratio: This salary does not depend on the time but on the amount or magnitude of results necessary to earn it.

A population of 1,000 birds exists on a small Pacific island. Some of the birds are yellow, a characteristic determined by a recessive allele. The others are green, a characteristic determined by a dominant allele. A hurricane on the island kills most of the birds from this population. Only 10 remain, and those birds all have yellow feathers. Which of the following statements is true?

Answers

Answer:

Option B

Explanation:

Please see the attachment

Like all cells, the neurons' internal organization dictates its function. Neurons have relatively many mitochondria, an extensive network of rough endoplasmic reticulum and many clusters of ribosomes. These cellular features indicate all of the following EXCEPT ________.A) Neurons must meet a high demand for ATP.B) neurons have stable, relatively unchanging internal environments.C) neurons produce many proteins.D) neurons have a relatively high consumption of oxygen.

Answers

Answer:

B) neurons have stable, relatively unchanging internal environments.

Explanation:

Rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is studded with ribosomes which in turn serve as the site for protein synthesis. A cell with an extensive network of rough endoplasmic reticulum has higher rates of protein synthesis. Mitochondria are the powerhouse of cells and serve as the site for aerobic cellular respiration. A large number of ATP molecules are produced in mitochondria. Therefore, a cell with relatively many mitochondria appears to have a higher demand for ATP and higher consumption of oxygen.

A cell with higher rates of consumption of ATP and protein synthesis should be functionally active. The charge across the membrane and the internal concentration of ions such as Na+, K+ of a neuron keep on changing during the conduction of nerve impulse. Therefore, the presence of many mitochondria and RER does not indicate that the neurons maintain relatively constant internal conditions.

Why does an autopsy include an examination of all the body systems and not just the suspected cause of death? For example, if a victim has massive head trauma from an automobile accident, why is a complete autopsy performed, including a toxicology report?

Answers

Answer:

Autopsy is an internal/external examination of the body to determine the cause of death.

Explanation:

"Autopsy" is carried out to find the exact "reason" of death by examining the body. It is possible that there is some hidden cause of death even in case of an accident, so autopsy is done. Also, a person dying of a "car accident" could have died because of the heart attack or some other organ failure.

So, it is possible that the suspected cause of death is incorrect and exact reason is something else. Every aspect of death needs to be analysed.

Tall pea plants are dominant over short pea plants. If a heterozygous tall pea plant(Tt) is crossed with a short pea plant(tt), what percentage of the offspring will be homozygous dominant?

Answers

Answer: The percentage of the offspring that will be homozygous dominant is zero.

Explanation: Since tall pea plants are dominant to short pea plants, a cross between a heterozygous tall pea plant (Tt) and a homozygous short pea plant (tt) will produce four offsprings: two heterozygous tall pea plants (Tt) and two homozygous short pea plants (tt). Tt x tt = Tt, Tt, tt, and tt.

Tt is heterozygous dominant for tall height while tt is homozygous recessive for short height.

See the attached punnet square for more information.

Final answer:

When a heterozygous tall pea plant (Tt) is crossed with a short pea plant (tt), the offspring will either be heterozygous tall (Tt) or homozygous recessive short (tt), at a ratio of 1:1, or 50% for each. There cannot be any homozygous dominant (TT) offspring from this cross, so the chance is 0%.

Explanation:

The short pea plant (tt) can only pass on a recessive allele (t). On the other hand, the heterozygous tall pea plant (Tt) can pass on either a dominant (T) or a recessive (t) allele. When these alleles combine during reproduction, there are two possible combinations: Tt (a tall plant) or tt (a short plant). Because there is only one way to get Tt and one way to get tt, we can say that there is a 1:1 ratio, or 50% chance, for each type of offspring. Interesting to note, however, is that homozygous dominant (TT) is not a possible outcome from this cross, meaning that there is a 0% chance for homozygous dominant offspring in this particular cross.

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As a result of stress the anterior pituitary releases ________, which stimulates release of hormones from the adrenal cortex that retain sodium and water, increase blood sugar, and begin breaking down fats.
A) thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
B) ADH
C) growth hormone
D) ACTH

Answers

Answer:

D. ACTH

Explanation:

Under stress conditions, corticotrophs of anterior pituitary gland secrete adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). This hormone is also known as corticotropin and serves to stimulate the adrenal cortex to secrete its hormones. The glucocorticoids (mainly cortisol) from adrenal cortex serve to increase protein breakdown (except in liver). Cortisol also stimulates gluconeogenesis (formation of glucose from substances other than carbohydrates and lipolysis.

Cortisol also raises blood pressure and enhances inflammation, depresses immune responses. Mineralocorticoids (aldosterone) from the adrenal cortex target kidneys to stimulate the resorption of sodium and thereby retention of water in the blood.

Final answer:

Under stress, the anterior pituitary gland releases Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH), which stimulates the adrenal cortex to release hormones. These hormones help to retain sodium and water, increase blood sugar, and start breaking down fats.

Explanation:

The anterior pituitary releases several hormones as a response to stress, but the correct option in the given question is D) ACTH or Adrenocorticotropic Hormone. ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to release hormones like cortisol that critically regulate the body's stress response. These hormones prompt a range of systemic effects such as retaining water and sodium, increasing blood glucose levels, and initiating the breakdown of fats.

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What two things does a trna transfer or carry to the ribosome

Answers

The tRNA is also called as transfer RNA.

The tRNA molecule is responsible for binding the specific amino acid to the corresponding mRNA codon. The tRNA carries along with it the corresponding mRNA codon and a specific amino acid. During the process of translation the tRNA will carry the amino acid towards the ribosomes and also helps in joining with the complementary codons.

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A posterior and anterior root of each spinal segment unite to form a

Answers

Answer:

The answer is spinal nerve

Explanation:

A posterior and anterior root of each spinal segment unite to form a spinal nerve.

What are the major types of mountains?


downwarped, compressional, fault-block


folded, tensional, compressional


folded, fault-block, volcanic

ASAP PLEASE

Answers

Answer:

The answer is: Folded, fault block, volcanic.

Explanation:

The main types of mountains are: Folded, fault block, volcanic and upwarped.

Folded mountains. These types of mountains tend to change constantly depending on their complexity, however they always conform to the basic type.

Volcanic mountains. It is about the mountains that come to form when a volcano erupts.

Domes. These mountains are created by domed strata, as a granitic intrusion is generated.

Mountains in block. These are large-scale structural failures. These inside are usually folded and tend to have failures.

Plateau mountains. These are created when there is activity in the deepest of the earth's crust. They are formed with the deep channels that the current water produces, where the rivers can cut any table regardless of their depth, thus producing high-rise mountains.

The answer is: Folded, fault block, volcanic.

Arthropod exoskeletons and mollusc shells both ________.a.are secreted by the mantleb.help retain moisture in terrestrial habitatsc.are comprised of the polysaccharide chitind.completely replace the hydrostatic skeleton

Answers

Answer:

b. help retain moisture in terrestrial habitats

Explanation:

Arthropods such as cockroach, centipedes, spiders, crab are the members of the largest phylum Arthropoda. These are animals with paired jointed legs and their body is covered with an exoskeleton made of chitin. They live in diversified habitat and exoskeleton helps to retain moisture in theterrestrial habitats.

Similarly mollusks such as sepia, snail are soft bodied animal whose body is covered with calcareous shell as a protection and to retain moisture while living on land.

Stella, a kindergarten teacher, is teaching her students about mammals. She uses human beings as an example to explain this concept because human beings match the key features of mammals. In this scenario, human beings serve as a(n) _____.

Answers

Answer:

The human beings serve as replica/model of the mammals.

Explanation:

A mammal is a vertebrate and it has fur, mammary glands (female) and feeds the young ones with milk, a neocortex (region of the brain) and three middle ear bones. This differentiates them from reptiles and birds. All mammals are 'warm blooded' because the body temperature heats the blood. A few mammals like the platypus lay eggs. The mammals are at the top of the food chain.

Answer:

(B) Prototype

Explanation:

thats the correct answer

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