Answer:
Foramen ovale
Explanation:
The foramen ovale is a hole that communicates the right side with the left side of the heart. During pregnancy, it is this communication that enables the fetus to receive its mother's oxygenated blood to develop since its lungs still do not function. Soon after birth, there is the natural closure of the foramen ovale. However, in a minority of people this natural closure does not occur and the foramen ovale remains open, ie patent, throughout life.
Cody is a teenager with a history of leukemia and an enlarged spleen. Today he presents with fairly significant left upper quadrant pain. On examination of this area a rough grating noise is heard. What is this sound?a) It is a splenic rub.
b) It is a variant of bowel noise.
c) It represents borborymi.
d) It is a vascular noise.
Answer:
The correct answer is option a) splenic rub.
Explanation:
Chronic leukemia can lead to spleen enlargement which can lead to splenic rub. The splenic rub can be heard in conditions in which individuals experience acute pain in the left quadrant of the abdomen because of the infraction of the spleen.
The splenic rub is a loud grating noise that occurs due to several underlying diseases such as leukemia.
Thus, the correct answer is option a. Splenic rub.
The sound heard during the examination of Cody is called a splenic rub. This abnormal noise arises when the enlarged spleen rubs against the peritoneum or diaphragm, and it can cause upper quadrant pain.
Explanation:The sound heard during the examination of Cody, a teen with leukemia and an enlarged spleen who presents with significant left upper quadrant pain, is called a splenic rub. This is an abnormal sound that a health care provider can hear while listening to the abdomen or chest with a stethoscope during physical examination.
Splenic rub is a sound that arises when the spleen rubs against the peritoneum or diaphragm. It tends to be associated with splenomegaly and can cause upper quadrant pain in those situations.
In contrast, bowel noises are sounds made by the movement of the intestines, and a borborymi is a rumbling or gurgling noise made by the movement of fluid and gas in the intestines. Vascular noises, meanwhile, could be sounds heard over the major blood vessels of the body and could indicate some circulatory concerns.
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Which source is most likely to contribute reliable and reputable information about finding alcohol education programs? A. school friends B. general Internet searches C. the police department D. late-night television Please select the best answer from the choices provided. A B C D
Answer:
The answer is C.) Police department
Hope this helps.
Answer: C
Explanation: cops are knowing what to do when in this situation because cops done with all of it
Protein is essential to the overall health of the body because it A. gives the body collagen, which protects the organs. B. keeps hair and nails healthy. C. sustains life and keeps body systems in good repair. D. helps "bulk up" muscles.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Which of these is an example of negative feedback?
1. As a blood clot begins to form, the process of its formation gets faster and faster.
2. After you eat, glucagon stimulates an increase in blood sugar levels.
3. After you eat, insulin stimulates the lowering of blood sugar levels.
4. The digestive enzyme pepsinogen is converted to pepsin by the action of hydrochloric acid; pepsin itself can then convert pepsinogen into pepsin.
5. Once labor begins, contractions increase in frequency and intensity
Answer:3. After you eat, insulin stimulates the lowering of blood sugar levels
Explanation:When someone is eating ,blood sugar level increases that is an original stimulus however insulin release to the body reduces or lowers the blood sugar levels hence it comes as a secondary stimulus that reduces the effect of the first stimulus that is negative feedback.
Whereas positive feedback the opposite happens in which the first or original stimulus is further enhanced by the release of the second stimulus for example when someone is in labor they have contractions during this process a hormone known as oxytocin is released which enhances contractions and that is a positive feedback .
The example of negative feedback given in the options is the third one: 'After you eat, insulin stimulates the lowering of blood sugar levels'. This is because insulin helps to restore the blood glucose levels back to normal after eating when these levels rise, which is the concept of negative feedback.
Explanation:In biology, negative feedback is a control mechanism in which a change in a certain variable triggers a response that helps to restore the variable to its 'normal' or 'set' value. In this case, option 3: 'After you eat, insulin stimulates the lowering of blood sugar levels' is an example of a negative feedback mechanism.
After you eat, your body's blood glucose levels rise. In response, the pancreas releases the hormone insulin, which facilitates the uptake of glucose into cells, thus lowering the blood's glucose levels back towards the normal range. This stabilizing effect of insulin is a classic example of negative feedback. After eating, if blood sugar was allowed to remain high, it would be harmful, so it's vital for our bodies to have a mechanism that helps return levels to normal.
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A somewhat controversial treatment method for PTSD requires the client to maintain awareness of one or more of (1) an image of the memory, (2) a negative self-statement or assessment of the trauma, (3) the physical feelings of the anxiety-provoking event. What is this particular treatment method called?
Answer:
The correct answer to the question: What is this particular treatment method called, would be: EMDR, or, Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing therapy.
Explanation:
This mode of therapy is known as style of psychotherapy which has been most successfully used in the treatment of PTSD (Post traumatic stress disorder). Although a bit controversial because it requires a person to be exposed to his/her traumatic memories, or images, while the therapist guides the patient to move his/her eyes and focus on something else, while remembering, and then reflect on the responses of the body, the idea has been successful, especially in treating trauma, depression, anxiety, panic attacks, and other conditions. The expected end result is that desensitization and reprocessing of the stressful situation happens, until it becomes non-harmful.
During the last stage of AIDS, many opportunistic infections proliferate in persons with weakened immune systems. HIV-infected individuals who live near one another in long-term care facilities, drug treatment facilities, and prisons should be carefully screened before admission. Why?
Answer:
Because they are at high risk of getting pulmonary tuberculosis.
Explanation:
An opportunistic infection is an infection caused by microorganisms that take advantage of the weakness of the body's defenses caused by HIV infection to cause damage. Opportunistic infections occur in people with compromised immune systems, allowing such organisms to cause widespread infection. In healthy individuals, microorganisms would not be allowed to proliferate to the point of causing infection because the immune system would keep them at bay.
People living with HIV are 28 times more likely to get pulmonary tuberculosis as an opportunistic disease. For this reason, HIV-infected individuals living close to each other in long-term treatment facilities, drug treatment facilities and prisons should be carefully examined prior to admission.
Which is not a factor in determining the amount you should consume from each food group in the MyPlate plan?
activity level
age
nationality
sex
Final answer:
Nationality is not a factor in determining the amount you should consume from each food group in the MyPlate plan.
Explanation:
The factor that is not a factor in determining the amount you should consume from each food group in the MyPlate plan is nationality. The MyPlate plan focuses on factors such as activity level, age, and sex when determining the recommended amounts of each food group. These factors are important because they affect an individual's energy needs and nutrient requirements.
The MyPlate plan is a visual portrayal of the five nutrition types that make up a sound eating regimen: grains, dairy, grains, vegetables, and protein It gives direction on the amount of every nutritional category ought to be consumed in view of individual factors, for example, action level, age, and sex.
The correct answer is c. nationality, is not a factor in determining the amount you should consume from each food group in the MyPlate plan.
The amount you should consume from each food group in the MyPlate plan is determined by several factors, including activity level, age, and sex. These factors influence the number of calories a person needs, which in turn affects the recommended servings from each food group. For example, a more active person will require more calories and thus more servings from each food group compared to someone who is less active. Similarly, age and sex play a role in caloric needs, with men generally requiring more calories than women and caloric needs often decreasing with age.
However, nationality is not a factor used in determining the amount one should consume from each food group in the MyPlate plan. The MyPlate guidelines are designed to be applicable to all individuals within the United States, regardless of their nationality or ethnic background. The recommendations are based on nutritional needs and do not differentiate based on cultural or national origins. It is important for individuals to choose foods from within each food group that fit their cultural preferences and dietary restrictions while still meeting the overall nutritional goals set by the MyPlate plan.
The complete question is:
Which is not a factor in determining the amount you should consume from each food group in the MyPlate plan?
a. activity level
b. age
c. nationality
d. sex
Hemophilia is a disorder in which bleeding is severe and prolonged due to a lack of clotting factor VIII. The factor activation cascade is interrupted at the Factor IX activation step. Which pathway is inhibited by this interruption?
Answer:
The intrinsic pathway of blood coagulation is inhibited.
Explanation:
To answer the question, if the factor activation cascade is interrupted at the Factor IX activation step, then the intrinsic pathway of blood coagulation is inhibited, because Factor IX belongs to the intrinsic pathway of blood coagulation.
The blood clotting cascade is a sequential process involving two starts that eventually meet to result in the formation of a blood clot. Each stage of the cascade involves specific blood clotting factors that get activated along the way; their activation is needed to continue the process.
The two initiation pathways for the blood clotting cascade are:
Intrinsic pathway: involving factors XII, XI, IX and VIII (all found in the blood, hence the name "intrinsic").Extrinsic pathway: involving Tissue factor and factor VIII (Tissue factor is found in the blood vessels, hence the name "extrinsic")The final common stage is called the Common pathway which involves factors XIII, X, V, II and I.
Hemophilia is a condition where a clotting factor is missing, resulting in bleeding. There are two major types of hemophilia:
• Type A: factor VIII is missing
• Type B: factor IX is missing
When either of these factors is missing, the intrinsic pathway is interrupted.
Hemophilia B, characterized by the deficiency of clotting factor IX, leads to the inhibition of the intrinsic pathway in the blood coagulation process, resulting in severe, prolonged bleeding.
Explanation:Hemophilia is a genetic disorder characterized by the inability to produce sufficient quantities of certain clotting factors, which are proteins that work together to stop bleeding when vessels are injured. The most prevalent form, hemophilia A, involves a deficiency in clotting factor VIII, while hemophilia B is associated with a deficiency in clotting factor IX. Since factor IX activation is a crucial step in the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, a deficiency in factor IX, as seen in hemophilia B, inhibits this pathway. The intrinsic pathway is one of the two converging arms of the clotting cascade, the other being the extrinsic pathway, and leads to the common pathway where clot formation is completed. Therefore, the interruption caused by hemophilia B impedes the intrinsic pathway, preventing the proper formation of clots and resulting in severe and prolonged bleeding.
A(n) _____ is defined as an event or situation that an individual perceives as a threat and that precipitates either adaptation or the stress response.
Answer: Stressor
Explanation:
I'm not gonna lie, but I found a whole quizlet about this. If all of your questions fall in this category, then here's the link to the quizlet: https://quizlet.com/187146446/stress-management-unit-1-flash-cards/
A stressor triggers either adaptation or the stress response based on how an individual perceives and appraises the event. Judgment about the potential harm or challenge presented by the event and one's ability to cope with it are critical elements in this appraisal process, determining how one experiences stress.
A stressor is defined as an event or situation that an individual perceives as a threat and that precipitates either adaptation or the stress response. Stress is a pattern of physical and psychological responses in an organism after it perceives a threatening event that disturbs its homeostasis and taxes its abilities to cope with the event. This process can be understood as a way in which an individual perceives and responds to events that they appraise as overwhelming or threatening to their well-being.
The appraisal of stressors involves two key processes: primary appraisal and secondary appraisal. Primary appraisal is the judgment about the degree of potential harm or threat to well-being, whereas secondary appraisal is the assessment of one's ability to cope with the demands of the stressor. In cases where an event is appraised as overwhelming, exceeding one's resources to manage or adapt to it, the individual will likely experience a state of stress.
Winona purchased a gym membership for herself and her adolescent daughter, vowing that they will exercise every day together. Winona's motivation came from an article she read that detailed research showing that adolescents who exercise improved in all these areas EXCEPT:A) mood.B) diet.C) brain connectivity.D) sleep.
Answer: B. DIET
Explanation: The other factors are benefits of exercise. Diet is the only variable that isnt a benefit.
The correct answer is D) sleep.
The research detailed in the article that Winona read likely showed that adolescents who exercise experience improvements in mood, diet, and brain connectivity. However, the article may have indicated that exercise does not necessarily lead to improvements in sleep for adolescents. This could be due to various factors, such as the timing of exercise, the type of exercise, or other sleep-related behaviors that might not be influenced by exercise alone. It is important to note that while exercise can help regulate sleep patterns in many cases, it is not universally effective for all individuals, and other interventions may be necessary to address sleep issues in adolescents.
Mary is in the delivery room giving birth to her first child. Her cervix is sufficiently dilated and the baby's head has started to move through the cervix into the vaginal canal. Which of the following stages of childbirth is Mary in?
Answer:
In the second stage
Explanation:
The stages of birth are three. The first one involves the first contractions, that is, the true labor, and it finishes when the cervix is open, dilated, at 10 cm. This can be the longest stage in birth, can be from 2 until 48 hours.
The second stage starts when the baby starts to get out from the mother, begging with the head, the body, until the legs and the umbilical cord. This is very quickly stage, it will take just 10 - 20 minutes.
The third stage is when the mom ejects the placenta, after the baby birth, the placenta and the umbilical cord are not necessary to the mother, actually is dangerous that some part of the placenta remains inside the mother. This stage is also very quickly, like 10 minutes.
Final answer:
Mary is in the second stage of childbirth, which sees the fully dilated cervix allowing the baby to be pushed down and out, concluding with the baby's delivery.
Explanation:
Mary is currently in the second stage of childbirth, which involves full dilation of the cervix and the expulsion of the newborn. The first stage is characterized by the cervix dilating and effacing, and contractions become more frequent and intense, dilating the cervical canal to about 10 cm. At the start of the second stage, the baby's head moves through the fully dilated cervical canal into the vaginal canal, and the mother actively pushes to help the baby descend. This step is vital for the baby's face to face the mother’s posterior as it exits the vagina and for delivering the shoulders, which help in the final birth of the baby. The second stage ends with the complete delivery of the newborn followed by the third stage, which is the delivery of the placenta and associated fetal membranes.
Mr. Martin is a 72-year-old smoker who comes to the clinic for a follow-up visit for hypertension. With deep palpation a pulsatile mass about 4 cm in diameter is palpable. What should the examiner do next?a) Obtain abdominal ultrasound.b) Reassess by examination in 6 months.c) Refer to a vascular surgeon.d) Reassess by examination in 3 months.
Answer: a) Obtain abdominal ultrasound.
Explanation:
In this patient pulsatile mass is required to be followed up with the abdominal ultrasound immediately. The risk of rupture of the aorta is around 15 times greater if the diameter of the aorta measures to be 4 centimeters.
Abdominal ultrasound is a kind of imaging test. It is used to observe the organs of the abdomenal system, including the liver, spleen, pancreas, gallbladder and kidneys. The blood vessels that lead associated with these organs, such as the aorta and the vena cava, can also be observed through the ultrasound.
Thus the abdominal ultrasound can be an appropriate approach for this.
Five-year-old Jonah likes to play a scrabble-like game on the family computer. He plays against other family members, and usually does pretty well. When he gets a list of letter tiles that are too difficult for him to use, he asks his mother and father for help. The difference between letter tiles that Jonah can use and letter tiles with which he needs help typifies what Vygotsky called the zone of ____ development.
Answer:
The correct answer is: Zone of proximal development
Explanation:
Zone of proximal development is the concept developed by the Soviet psychologist, Lev Vygotsky.
It is described as the cognitive, emotional, and volitional psychological development of children. Therefore, this zone is defined as the distance between the ability of the children to perform certain activities without help and perform other tasks with the help and support of a knowledgeable adult.
Therefore, according to Vygotsky, it is the zone of proximal development.
What led to the swift population rise over the last two thousand years? Check all that apply.
a.increased food supply
b.improved communication
c.improved public health
d.increased birth rates
e.increased resistance to vaccines
D, C, and A are the correct answers.
Answer:
a. increased food supply
c. improved public health
d. increased birth rates
Explanation:
Throughout the history of mankind various changes have taken place in the number of inhabitants on earth. Thus, it is possible to perceive periods in which the number of inhabitants was modest and others, such as the present, with numbers considered quite high. Population growth means a change in the number of a population in a positive way.
On August 5, 2008, the United Nations (UN) released a report that estimates the number of inhabitants on a planetary scale for the year 2050, which could reach 9.2 billion people.
The report raised possible causes for this growth, increased life expectancy, increased access to disease treatment, and increased food supply; All of this would result in a greater birth rate.
According to the survey, population growth should occur significantly only in developing countries, in the case of developed countries the changes will be modest.
Moving cookies from the cookie jar on the kitchen counter to the back of the pantry to reduce the likelihood of eating them is an example of _____________.
Answer:
It is an example of stimulus control.
Explanation:
It is a process which occurs when organism behaves in a one way in the presence of the stimulus which is given and in another way when it is not present.A stimulus which further helps in the modification of behaviour in this manner is known as discriminative stimulus.Stimuli are very significant I.e.dog training because these are the reasons dog behaves in a certain ways.Stimuli like red lights & stop signs acts as symbols which indicates some sort of punishment or reinforcement is available. This is known as control piece.The generalized conditioned reinforcers are less susceptible to satiation because they can be exchanged for a wide variety of other reinforcers.Examples of conditioned reinforcers are: money & tokens.Examples of unconditioned reinforcers are:food & water are used inherently for reinforcement of individual.Which is a recommendation of the MyPlate plan?
eat fewer servings as your activity increases
consume more calories as your activity increases
eat more protein than vegetables
focus on one food group at each meal
Answer:
Consume more calories as your activity increases.
Explanation:
The fruit and vegetable portions make up half of the plate to emphasize the recommendation to include fruits and vegetables as half of every meal. Because of this answers c and d would be incorrect.
Answer a isn't logical. Answer B
During a client’s examination and consultation, the physician keeps telling the client,"You have an abdominal neoplasm." Which statements accurately paraphrase the physician’s statement?
Answer:
"You have a new growth of abnormal tissue in your abdomen." "You have an abdominal tumor."Explanation:
Neoplasia, also called a tumor, is a form of abnormal cell growth in a tissue. This growth is not controlled by the organism, with a tendency towards autonomy and perpetuation. An abdominal neoplasm, therefore, is an abnormal growth of tissue in a patient's stomach, generating a tumor. This tumor may be benign or malignant, according to its potential to cause harm to the individual.
Knee extension occurring from femoral condyles rotating forward on tibia as a person stands from a squatting position is an example of the accessory motion called _____.
Answer:
Arthrokinematics
Explanation:
According to my research on various studies conducted by medical professionals, I can say that based on the information provided within the question this is an example of the accessory motion called Arthrokinematics. This is when a a specific point on one articulating surface comes in contact with a series of points on another surface. Like seen in the picture below.
I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.
The dimension that includes a person’s ability to respond appropriately to upsetting events and to express feelings in appropriate ways is the __________ dimension of psychological health.
Answer:
Assertiveness.
Explanation:
Assertiveness is a skill refer to bien able to respond appropriately in conflictive contexts.
Brad has recently increased his weekly intake of omega-3 fatty acids. Over time, which of the following effects would he likely NOT
experience?
a) reduction in inflammation
b) increase in HDLS
c) increase in risk for cardiovascular disease
d) reduction in blood triglycerides
Answer: The effects that he would NOT likely experience is an increased risk in cardiovascular disease. The correct answer is C. By increasing his weekly intake of the omega-3 fatty acids, he is lowering the risks for cardiovascular disease. These fatty acids help reduce the risk of heart failure in men and women. Some foods that contain omega-3 fatty acids are; grass fed beef, flaxseed oil, salmon, and cod.
Answer: its A
Brad has recently increased his weekly intake of omega-3 fatty acids. Over time, which of the following effects would he likely NOT
experience?
a) reduction in inflammation
b) increase in HDLS
c) increase in risk for cardiovascular disease
d) reduction in blood triglycerides
Explanation:
Which statement describes the flow of electricity if a small motor is connected to the gap in the wire and the circuit is closed? A) The flow of electricity stops. B) The electricity flows, and the motor turns on. C) The flow of electricity stops, and the motor turns on. D) The flow of electricity changes direction
Answer:
B. The electricity flows and the motor turns on
Explanation:
Think of circuits as a draw bridge. When the draw bridge is up no one can cross over to the other side. When the draw bridge is down everyone can cross over to the other side. Similarly to open and closed circuits, when the circuit is open no electricity can flow. When the circuit is closed electricity can flow.
Choose the correct statement from the list below:
a. Mechanical digestion of proteins is more important than chemical digestion.
b. Protein digestion begins in the small intestine with the activation of trypsinogen to trypsin
c. The stomach has a high pH which allows for the activation of digestive enzymes.
d. Proteins that are consumed in the diet are absorbed as individual amino acids following digestion
Answer:d. Proteins that are consumed in the diet are absorbed as individual amino acids following digestion
Explanation:
Enzymes that are released in the stomach assist in breaking proteins into individual amino acids.
Which DRI would inform Marni about the maximum amount of vitamin A she could consume without risk of side effects?
Adequate Intake (AI)
Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)
Upper Limit (UL)
Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)
Answer:
Upper Limit (UL)
Explanation:
Dietary Reference Intake (DRI) is a group of four nutrient based values i.e. Adequate Intake (AI), Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA), Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) and Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL). RDA is the average daily dietary intake sufficient to meet level of nutrients required by an individual. RDA depends on EAR. If EAR cant be estimated for some reasons, RDA cant be calculated and instead AI is used to estimate sufficient dietary intake. AI is derived on experimental basis by observing average nutrient intake by group of healthy individuals.
UL is the highest level of nutrient intake possible on a daily basis without causing harm to the individual. Intake above UL increases the risk of adverse effects. UL is higher than RDA or AI. Hence, Marni could be informed by UL the maximum amount of vitamin A she could consume without risk of side effects.
Pedro is a 4-year-old who is having lunch with his mother and sister. When his mother pours the milk that is left in the carton into the children’s glasses, she finds that there is not enough to fill both glasses; so she carefully pours half of the milk in the shorter, fatter glass in front of Pedro and half into a thin, taller glass in front of Pedro's sister. Immediately, Pedro complains that his sister got more milk than he did, and even when his mother tries to explain that they both got the same amount, Pedro insists he is right. In this example, Pedro is demonstrating a lack of development in the area of
Answer:
conservation
Explanation:
Conservation is a factor in child development, where the child is aware of the differences in fluid quantities, objects, and other things. This factor is usually developed between the ages of 8 and 12, so it is normal for Peter, who is only 4 years old, to be deficient in the concept of "conservation" and unable to understand that the amounts of milk in his cup in your sister's cup are the same.
The preservation is inserted in the development phase called the concrete operative. This phase is marked by the beginning of concrete logical thinking, children going through this stage begin to mentally manipulate the representations of the things they internalized during the past stages. The problem is that this manipulation can only occur with concrete things arranged in the real world. Abstract concepts are not yet understandable. In this phase, the child understands that both glasses have the same amount of juice, that is, they have the notion of conservation.
An elderly client with Parkinson's disease and his wife, who appears to be much younger than he, are being interviewed by the nurse to update the client's health history. The nurse also has the client's electronic health record on her tablet computer. Earlier in the day, the nurse had spoken with the client's primary care physician, who had relayed some concerns to the nurse regarding the progression of the client's disease. Which source of biographic information should the nurse view as primary
Answer:
The client
Explanation:
The client is the primary primary source in any situation involving the use of biographical data in a medical setting. Biographical data is basic information about the patient such as name, address, marital status, gender and age, for example. All this data is taken from the client himself and for this reason, the client is a source of biographical information that the nurse should consider as the main one. Biographical data are important because they serve as a basis for defining treatment and hospitalization patterns if necessary.
A 2-year-old Bobby presents with left ear pain. He has been running a 102 fever on and off and rates the pain a 6 on a scale 0–10, 10 being the worse. Dad states that he just finished a round of amoxicillin two days ago. After examination you determine that Bobby has: __________________.
Answer:
an ear infection, consequence of other previous infection
Explanation:
In some cases, when the babies start with respiratory infections, the antibiotic can act in the respiratory system, but if there is some bacteria that can travel to the ears and grow over there, it can reproduce and cause an ear infection, as a consequence of a bad treatment of a bad care of the first infection.
If the recommended daily dose for vitamin C is 60 mg per day and there are 70 mg of vitamin C per 100 g of orange, how many 3 oz oranges are required to meet the weekly requirement? There are approximately 28.35 g in 1 oz. Round numeric answer to the nearest whole number.
Answer : The number 3 oz oranges required is 7.
Explanation :
As we are given:
Recommended daily dose for vitamin C per day = 60 mg
So, recommended daily dose for vitamin C per week = 7 × 60 mg = 420 mg
Now we have to determine the number of 100 g oranges required in a week.
Number of 100 g oranges required in a week = [tex]\frac{\text{Vitamin C required}}{\text{Vitamin C in one 100g of orange}}[/tex]
Number of 100 g oranges required in a week = [tex]\frac{420mg}{70mg}=6[/tex]
Total mass of oranges = 6 × 100 g = 600 g
Now we have to determine the mass of one 3 oz orange in grams.
As, 1 oz = 28.35 g
So, 3 oz = 3 × 28.35 = 85.05 g
Now we have to determine the number 3 oz oranges required.
Number 3 oz oranges required = [tex]\frac{\text{Mass of orange required in grams}}{\text{Mass of one 3 oz orange in grams}}[/tex]
Number 3 oz oranges required = [tex]\frac{600g}{85.05g}=7.054\approx 7[/tex]
Therefore, the number 3 oz oranges required is 7.
A hospital nurse is discussing with an older adult the possibility transfer to a nursing home for skilled care after pneumonia. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of this possible transfer?A) Old people who go to the nursing home don't get out.B) They will take my home if I go to the nursing home.C) I don't qualify for skilled care, I only had pneumonia.D) I have already used 45 Medicare days this year.
Answer: D) I have already used 45 Medicare days this year.
Explanation:
Medicare and other programs for the insurance of the health covers 100 days of care. This insurance cover can include the diagnosis and treatment associated with the skilled care, fractured hip, rehabilitation after acute illness, heart failure and others. This is associated with the provision of the nursing and day care facilities.
If the older adult has already used the 45 medicare days after the care of pneumonia the client may experience the fact that he should shift to other location for the same care.
True or false tasks are required activities that need to take place in order to complete a goal
Answer: true
Explanation: Tasks are required activities that need to take place in order to complete a goal.
A client taking chlorpromazine is preparing to undergo surgery. Which of the following complications does the surgical team need to prepare to deal with before anesthetics are administered?
a. arteriography
b. hypotension
c. tumor excision
d. cystoscopy
Answer:
The correct option is: B. hypotension
Explanation:
Chlorpromazine (CPZ) is an antipsychotic drug which has the trade names Thorazine, Largactil among others.
Some of the side effects of this drug include dizziness, galactorrhea, drowsiness, amenorrhea, dry mouth and movement problems. It can also cause orthostatic hypotension i.e. low blood pressure in the patient.